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050 – METEOROLOGY
050-01

THE ATMOSPHERE
050-01-01 Composition, extent, vertical division

8814
...
What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called:
A – Tropopause
B – Ionosphere
C – Stratosphere
D – Atmosphere
Ref: all
Ans: A
8824
...
The tropopause is a level at which:
A – vertical currents are strongest
B – water vapour content is greatest
C – pressure remains constant
D – temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
Ref: all
Ans: D
8889
...
What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the
troposphere?
A – 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
B – 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
C – 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest other gases
D – 50% oxygen, 40$ nitrogen and the rest other gases
Ref: all
Ans: A
10055
...
The thickness of the troposphere varies with:
A – latitude
B – longitude
C – rotation of the earth
D – the wind
Ref: all
Ans: A
10102
...
In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from:
A – 85 to more than 200 km
B – 0 to 11 km
C – 50 to 85 km
D – 11 to 50 km
Ref: all
Ans: D
10804
...
Which one of the following statement applies to the tropopause?
A – It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
B – It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
C – It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
D – It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
Ref: all
Ans: D
10846
...
The troposphere:
A – has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles
B – contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
C – is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
D – reaches the same height at all latitudes
Ref: all
Ans: A
10855
...
What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?
A – 40 km
B – 8 km
C – 11km
D – 16 km
Ref: all
Ans: D
15783
...
What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
A - -25oC
B - -75oC
C - -55oC
D - -35oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
15820
...
What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere
from a weather stand point?
A – Hydrogen
B – Water vapour
C – Nitrogen
D – Oxygen
Ref: all
Ans: B
15850
...
The troposphere is:
A – deepest over the equator
B – deepest over the poles
C – the same depth all over the earth
D – shallowest over the poles in summer
Ref: all
Ans: A
24289
...
Which of the following statements concerning the tropopause is correct?
A – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator and at the poles is equal
B – The temperature remains constant above and below the tropopause
C – The temperature of the tropopause at the equator is higher than at the
poles
D – The temperature lapse rate changes abruptly at the tropopause
Ref: all
Ans: D
24440
...
Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?
A – It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions
B – It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions
C – It is highest in middle latitudes
D – There is no significant difference with change of latitude
Ref: all
Ans: A
8810
...
Which of the
following contribute the most?
A – Absorption and evaporation
B – Solar radiation and conduction
C – Absorption and vaporisation
D – Convection and condensation
Ref: all
Ans: D

8833
...

What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
A – 5oC colder than ISA
B – 10oC warmer than ISA
C – 5oC warmer than ISA
D – 10oC colder than ISA
Ref: all
Ans: D
8856
...
At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48oC; according
to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330
...
5oC
B - -50oC
C - -54oC
D - -58oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
8864
...
A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of:
A – the passage of cold front
B – nocturnal radiation
C – advection fog
D – cumulus clouds
Ref: all
Ans: B
8890
...
An inversion is:
A – an increase of temperature with height
B – an increase of pressure with height
C – a decrease of pressure with height
D – a decrease of temperature with height
Ref: all
Ans: A
10024
...
Advection is:
A – the same as convection
B – vertical motion of air
C – the same as subsidence
D – horizontal motion of air
Ref: all
Ans: D
10038
...
65oC/100m
D – varies with time
Ref: all
Ans: D
10066
...
An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature:
A – increases with height at a constant rate
B – increases with height
C – decreases with height at a constant rate
D – remains constant with height
Ref: all
Ans: D

10074
...
An air mass is called stable when:
A – the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears
B – the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height
C – the pressure in a given area is constant
D – the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air
currents
Ref: all
Ans: A
10095
...
The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of:
A – 0
...
65oC/100m
D – 1oC/100m
Ref: all
Ans: D

10122
...
In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15oC and the
temperature at 1000m/AGL is 13oC
...
The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100m in the International
Standard Atmosphere is:
A – 0
...
5oC
D – variable
Ref: all
Ans: A
10145
...
From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the
atmosphere be derived?
A – Surface temperature
B – Environmental lapse rate
C – Dry adiabatic lapse rate
D – Pressure at the surface
Ref: all
Ans: B
10754
...
Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in:
A – winter in the afternoon
B – winter during the night and early morning
C – summer during the night and early morning
D – summer in the afternoon
Ref: all
Ans: D
10761
...
The temperature at FL 160 is -22oC
...
The temperature at FL 140 is -12oC
...
The temperature at FL 80 is +6oC
...
The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is:
A – clear and winds are strong
B – clear and winds are weak
C – overcast and winds are weak
D – overcast and winds are strong
Ref: all
Ans: B

10861
...
The temperature at FL 110 is -5oC
...
The 0o isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50
...
A temperature of 15oC is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level
...
The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry
adiabatic lapse rate in:
A – cumulus
B – freezing fog
C – stratus
D – cirrus
Ref: all
Ans: D
10894
...
The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus
...
If
the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January
3rd to January 4th should be:
A – slightly above +3oC
B – significantly below 0oC
C – slightly below +3oC
D – significantly above +3oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
15782
...
How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?
A – increases
B – At first it increases and higher up it decreases
C – Remains constant
D – Decreases
Ref: all
Ans: D

15822
...
How would you characterise an air temperature of 55oC at the 200 hPa level
over western Europe?
A – High
B – Low
C – Very high
D – Within +/- 5oC of ISA
Ref: all
Ans: D
15851
...
A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia
...
This can be due to:
A – low relative humidity
B – a very strong temperature inversion
C – sand/dust in the engines
D – very pronounced downdrafts
Ref: all
Ans: B

15876
...
2oC per 100m increase
in altitude
...
In the disturbed temperate regions:
A – winters are generally mild
B – the weather is mainly governed by travelling frontal depressions
C – the wet season is normally from May to September
D – the surface winds are moderate westerlies
Ref: all
Ans: B
16348
...
Which of the following statements concerning the thermal wind component
(TWC) is true?
A – TWC decreases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increases
B – TWC increases as the horizontal mean temperature gradient increases
C – the greater the TWC, the greater the reduction in the upper wind
D – the greater the TWC, the greater the surface wind
Ref: all
Ans: B

16555
...
For international aviation meteorological purposes, temperature is measured in
degrees:
A – Fahrenheit
B – Celsius
C – Absolute
D – Kelvin
Ref: all
Ans: B
16571
...
Air at T = +16oC and DP = +4oC is forced from sea level over a 10,000 ft
mountain range and descends back to sea level on the other side
...
A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer
...
65oC per 100m
B – remains constant
C – decreases 1oC per 100m
D – becomes equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer
Ref: all
Ans: C
24221
...
According to ISA the temperature in the lower part of the stratosphere:
A – decreases with altitude
B – is almost constant
C – increases with altitude
D – increases at first and decreases afterward
Ref: all
Ans: B
24269
...
In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is
greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but les than dry adiabatic lapse rate
– the air mass is described as being
A – conditionally unstable
B – stable
C – unstable
D – absolutely unstable
Ref: all
Ans: A
24353
...
5oC/1000 ft
B – 3oC/1000 ft
C – 6
...
What is, approximately, the temperature at 20000 ft in the ICAO Standard
Atmosphere?
A - -20oC
B - -15oC
C - -25oC
D - -30oC
Ref: all
Ans: C

050-01-03 Atmospheric pressure
10035
...
In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100m increase in height:
A – is greater at higher levels than at lower levels
B – remains constant at all levels
C – is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels
D – is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL
Ref: all
Ans: C
10085
...
The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:
A – QNE
B – QFE
C – QNH
D – QFF
Ref: all
Ans: D
10807
...
Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal:
A – QFE
B – QFF
C – QNE
D – QNH
Ref: all
Ans: B
15780
...
The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:
A – at height of observatory
B – at a determined density altitude
C – reduced to sea level
D – at flight level
Ref: all
Ans: C
15837
...
Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees
...
At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be:
A – lower than at the same height in a column of cold air
B – higher than at the same height in a column of cold air
C – the same irrespective of the temperature
D – depends on the relative humidity
Ref: all
Ans: B
16357
...
When flying towards high contour values an aircraft will experience:
A – headwind
B – tailwind
C – port drift
D – starboard drift
Ref: all
Ans: C

16363
...
25 mb
D – do not indicate heights at all
Ref: all
Ans: B
16364
...
25 mb is set
Ref: all
Ans: D
16436
...
Towards the end of your flight, you have
descended
...
Select the correct statement regarding the wind direction in connection with
the high and low pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere:
A – the winds blow counter clockwise around a high and clockwise in a low
B – the winds blow clockwise in both highs and lows
C – the winds blow clockwise in a high and counter clockwise in a low
D – the winds blow counter clockwise in both highs and lows
Ref: all
Ans: C

16439
...
According to definition, flight levels are surfaces with constant air pressure
determined from a certain pressure value
...
25 hPa
B – 1025
...
If you have a column of air limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure
difference of 100 hPa, the distance between the pressure surfaces will change
if mean temperature and mean pressure of the column of air change
...
Lines joining points of equal pressure are known as:
A – Isotherms
B – Isopleths
C – Isobars
D – Isotachs
Ref: all
Ans: C

16544
...
A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering or leaving it, will:
A – reduce in pressure, rise in temperature, decrease in density
B – maintain volume, decrease in density, reduce in pressure
C – maintain pressure, reduce in density, increase in volume
D – reduce in pressure, decrease in density, increase in volume
Ref: all
Ans: D
24345
...
The
air temperature is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere
...
Which of the following statements is correct?
A – Cumulus clouds and a good viability are normally observed in a warm
sector in winter
B – Cumulus clouds and a good visibility are normally observed in a warm
sector in autumn
C – Normally atmospheric pressure stops falling rapidly behind a warm front,
the air temperature rises
D – At warm fronts thunderstorms are often observed
Ref: all
Ans: C

050-01-04 Atmospheric density
10146
...
2 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
15779
...
The air density at this level is:
A – unable to be determined without knowing the QNH
B – greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
C – less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
D – equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180
Ref: all
Ans: B
16525
...
With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere
increases with increasing:
A – relative humidity
B – air pressure
C – stability
D – temperature
Ref: all

Ans: B

050-01-05 International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
8840
...
7oC
B - -273oC
C - -58
...
A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height
...
A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height
...
The temperature at 10000 ft in the International Standard Atmosphere is:
A - -20oC
B – 0oC
C - -5oC
D - -35oC
Ref: all

Ans: C
8884
...
A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height
...
If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15oC warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
A - -30oC
B - -45oC
C - -60oC
D - -15oC
Ref: all
Ans: A
10125
...
65oC per 100m
C – 0
...
6oC per 100m
Ref: all
Ans: B

10127
...
5oC per 1000m
C – 3oC per 1000m
D – 6
...
A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height
...
A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height
...
If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10oC warmer than a standard
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
A - +15oC
B - +5oC
C - -10oC
D - -15oC
Ref: all
Ans: B

10888
...
25 hPa
B – At MSL temperature is 15oC and the decrease in temperature with height
is 1oC per 100m
C – At MSL temperature is 10oC and the decrease in temperature with height
is 1oC Ref: all
Ref: All
Ans: A
24253
...
7oC
B - -273oC
C - -56
...
The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce
at the rate of:
A - 2oC per 1000 ft up to 65617 ft after which it will remain constant to
104987 ft
B – 1
...
3oC per 1000 ft
up to 65617 ft when it will remain constant
C – 1,98oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft after which it remains constant to 65617
ft
D – 2oC per 1000 ft up to 36090 ft and will then increase at 0
...
In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa
...
The
QFE adjustment in Geneva is:
A – 942 hPa
B – 967 hPa
C – 961 hPa
D – 948 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: A
8811
...
If the local QNH is 1009 hPa,
what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the
transition level?
A – It will increase
B – It will decrease
C – It will remain the same
D – It will not be affected
Ref: all
Ans: B
8815
...

The air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere
...
An aircraft is flying at FL 80
...
After the second
altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be
approximately:
A – 7650 ft
B – 8600 ft
C – 8350 ft
D – 8000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: A
8829
...
The air temperature is 10oC lower than a standard atmosphere
...
An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 ft, QNH 1008 hPa)
...
The altimeter will indicate:
A – 1200 ft
B – 1375 ft
C – 1105 ft
D – 1280 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B

8836
...

Assume the station is at MSL
...
Temperature in degrees C
...

A – The layer between 16000 and 18000 ft is absolutely unstable
B – The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 ft
C – The temperature at 10000 ft is in agreement with the temperature in the
International Standard Atmosphere
D – Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013
...
An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa) with the
altimeter set to 1013 hPa
...
You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 ft
...
2 hPa)?
A – ISA + 12oC
B – ISA +/- 0oC
C – ISA +20oC
D – ISA -20oC
Ref: all
Ans: D

8845
...
25 hPa at the surface
D – the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
Ref: all
Ans: B
8861
...
What pressure is defined as QFE?
A – The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
B – The pressure of the altimeter
C – The pressure at field elevation
D – The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures
Ref: all
Ans: C
8867
...
If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter
reading during the resetting procedure?
A – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
B – It will increase
C – It will remain the same
D – It will decrease
Ref: all
Ans: D

8870
...
Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude?=
A – It remains constant
B – It increases
C – It decreases
D – Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question cannot be
answered
Ref: all
Ans: C
8875
...
If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE?
A – 1005 hPa
B – 995 hPa
C – 1000 hPa
D – 1025 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
10030
...
Outside air temperature is -40oC and the pressure at
sea level is 1033 hPa
...
The QNH at an airfield located 6 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa
...
What is the QFF?
A – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
B – Less than 1022 hPa
C – More than 1022 hPa
D – 1022 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: D
10049
...
Which statement is true?
A – QNH can be 1013
...
25 hPa
C – QNH is lower than 1013
...
5 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: D
10079
...
A vertical spacing of 1000 ft, is the standard required separation between two
FL
...
The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018
hPa
...
What is
the QFF?
A – More than 1018 hPa
B – Less than 1018 hPa
C – 1018 hPa
D – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
Ref: all
Ans: A
10091
...
The chart recommends a
minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level
...
Your altimeter is set
to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level)
...
You intend to overfly a mountain range
...
The air mass that
you will fly through is on average 15oC warmer than the standard atmosphere
...
At what altimeter reading will you
effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?
A – 15900 ft
B – 13830 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 14100 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
10113
...
At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the
minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum
safe altitude?
A – In a cold low pressure region
B – At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the
QNH is greater than or equal to 1013 hPa
C – At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH
is less than 1013 hPa
D – In a warm high pressure region
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

10140
...
The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation
from ISA is -15oC below FL 100
...
The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013
...
The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where
the QNH is 1023 hPa
...
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local
QNH is unknown
...
An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winters day
...
During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an
altitude of its summit
...
An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summers day
...
During the flight, a
mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit
...
The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa
...
What is the QNH?
A – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
B – More than 1016 hPa
C – 1016 hPa
D – Less than 1016 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: D

10799
...
After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 ft), the altimeter
indicates an altitude of 1310 ft
...
What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1028 hPa
C – 1013 hPa
D – 998 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: B
10808
...
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet;
local QNH is 1003 hPa
...
Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude
to a position where flight over mountains could be dangerous?
A – Cold high
B – Warm depression
C – Cold low
D – Warm high
Ref: all
Ans: C
10830
...
The reason
for this is that:
A – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
B – the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille
C – the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille
D – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
Ref: all
Ans: C
10835
...
What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass
in which the aircraft is flying?
A – Its average temperature is the same as ISA
B – It is colder than ISA
C – It is warmer than ISA
D – There is insufficient information to make any assumption

Ref: all
Ans: B
10836
...
For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa
...
If the QFE at Locarnho (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1000 hPa
C – 1005 hPa
D – 1010 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
10859
...
An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 ft
...
You are flying at FL 160
...
What is the true altitude?
A – 15630 feet
B – 15100 feet
C – 16370 feet
D – 16910 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
10868
...

What action, if any, should be taken?
A – None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer
than the air around Marseille
B – Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong
C – Re-check the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
D – Compensate by heading further to the left
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

10873
...
The
reason for this is that:
A – the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca
B – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
C – the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
D – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
10876
...

What is the probable reason for this?
A – One of the QNH values must be wrong
B – The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
C – The altimeter is faulty
D – The aircraft is being blown off track to the left
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
10881
...

The air is on an average 15oC colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is
1003 hPa
...
2 hPa) read?
A – 15690 ft
B – 16230 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 13830 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
15812
...
The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa
...
What is the QFF?
A – Less than 1022 hPa
B – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
C – More than 1022 hPa
D – 1022 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: B
15825
...
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet,
local QNHY is 1013 hPa
...
During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
altitude
...
(Refer to figure 050-14)
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart
...
2 hPa
...
After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is
still set to 1013
...
What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level?
A – 2280 feet
B – 660 feet
C – 1200 feet
D – 1740 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
15852
...
You must make an emergency landing at sea
...

What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the
subscale?
A – 4000 ft
B – Less than 0 ft
C – 0 ft
D – More than 0 ft, but less than 4000 ft

Ref: all
Ans: B
15889
...
Suppose that you are flying at FL 40 and that you reset the altimeter to
reference pressure 993 hPa
...
In which of the following cases will the altimeter always indicate the airport
elevation when landing?
A – If QFF of the airport is set as reference
B – If QFE of the airport is set as reference
C – If QNH of the airport is set as reference
D – At standard setting
Ref: all
Ans: C
16506
...

Regardless of setting it can generally be said that it indicates:
A – altitude above mean sea level at +15oC
B – altitude in the standard atmosphere at +15oC
C – altitude corresponding to difference between reference pressure and the
pressure where the instrument is
D – height above terrain

Ref: all
Ans: C
16509
...
At an airport 1700 ft above sea level the temperature reading is +10oC from
the barometer readings made at the same time QFE, QFF and QNH are
computed
...
When landing at an airport you have correctly set QNH = 1023 hPa as
reference pressure on your altimeter
...
Suppose that you change the pressure reference to standard setting
(1013 hPA) what will your altimeter indicate?
A – 0 ft
B – 900 ft
C – 1200 ft
D – 1500 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B

16514
...
A barometric altimeter always indicates:
A – correct altitude to the terrain below
B – altitude to the set altitude reference
C – standard altitude
D – the dynamic pressure
Ref: all
Ans: B
16516
...
25)
B – QFE
C – QFF
D – QNH
Ref: all
Ans: D
16520
...
You are flying at a constant altitude according to your altimeter
...
Which of the following interact to give a
minimum a true altitude?
1)
2)
3)
4)

Flying from an area of low pressure to that of an area of high pressure
Flying from an area of high pressure to that of an area of low pressure
Flying from a warm air mass to a cold air mass
Flying from a cold air mass to a warm air mass

A – 1, 3
B – 2, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 3
Ref: all
Ans: D
16522
...
Airport
elevation = 2785 ft
...
Your pressure altimeter is set at 1000 hPa
...
You join the
circuit at 2600 ft but forget to reset your altimeter
...
At the official measuring level for a specific airport, an aircraft altimeter, set at
QNH for the airport, should read:
A – the elevation of the airport, but only at standard ISA temperature
B – the elevation of the airport, regardless of temperature
C – zero, regardless of temperature
D – zero, only at standard ISA temperature
Ref: all
Ans: A
16526
...
Which one of the following conditions gives the shortest take off run, if the
airports have the same QNH?
A – High temperature and low airport elevation
B – Low temperature and low airport elevation
C – High temperature and high airport elevation
D – Low temperature and high airport elevation
Ref: all
Ans: B
16535
...
If flying North with easterly drift, an aircraft’s altimeter will progressively:
A – under-read
B – over-read
C – remain correct
D – impossible to say – it depends on the atmospheric pressure
Ref: all
Ans: B
16541
...
Assuming that 1 hPa equals 30 ft
and
that point B is 823 metres AMSL the terrain clearance over B is:
A – 6480 ft
B – 4280 ft
C – 3780 ft
D – 5680 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
16543
...
Assuming that the
altimeter sub-scale is set to 984 mbs and 1 hPa = 30 ft, the height of the
aircraft over X and Y will be:
A – 5000 ft; 3900 ft
B – 4150 ft; 3900 ft
C – 4150 ft; 1500 ft
D – 5000 ft; 1500 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
16568
...
(Refer to figure 050-14)
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart
...
2 hPa
...
(Refer to figure 050-15)
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart
...
2 hPa
...
(Refer to figure 050-15)
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart
...
2 hPa
...
An aeroplane flies at flight level 40
...
An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6oC) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio
altimeter (ground elevation 3090 ft)
...
An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4500 ft from A (360
ft/AMSL – QNH 986 hPa) to B (690 ft/AMSL –QNH 1011 hPa)
...
An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 5500 ft from A (1050
ft/AMSL – QNH 968 hPa) to B (650 ft/AMSL – QNH 1016 hPa)
...
An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 6500 ft from A (600
ft/AMSL – QNH 1012 hPa) to B (930 ft/ALMSL – QNH 977 hPa)
...
An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 7500 ft from A (270
ft/AMSL – QNH 1021 hPa) to B (1650 ft/AMSL – QNH 983 hPa)
...
Given:
Altimeter setting: 1013
...
If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value,
A – the 1013
...
Pressure altitude is obtained by:
A – setting the altimeter to QFF pressure
B – correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from ISA
C – setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea
level
D – setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure
Ref: all
Ans: D

24408
...
Which FL corresponds with the 300 hPa pressure level?
A – FL 390
B – FL 300
C – FL 100
D – FL 50
Ref: all
Ans: B
24410
...
Which FL corresponds with the 700 hPa pressure level?
A – FL 300
B – FL 180
C – FL 100
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: C

24412
...
You are flying at FL 340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere
...
Your true
altitude will:
A – increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route
B – decrease
C – decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route
D – increase
Ref: all
Ans: D
24458
...
The pressure at sea level is 10213 hPa
...
What is the approximate speed of a 40 knot wind, expressed in m/sec?
A – 25 m/sec
B – 15 m/sec
C – 20 m/sec
D – 30 m/sec
Ref: all
Ans: C
8944
...
What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
A – Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh
B – Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
C – Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh
D – Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
Ref: all
Ans: D

8952
...
During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anti-cyclonic
conditions, the:
A – surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon
B – surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
C – angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in
the early afternoon
D – wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
Ref: all
Ans: A
8963
...
(Refer to figure 050-101)
On which route do you expect moderate to severe CAT at FL 300?
A – Zurich-Rome
B – London-Zurich
C – Zurich-Copenhagen
D – Paris-Bordeaux
Ref: all
Ans: A
8994
...
(Refer to figure 050-98)
What does zone C depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
C – The warm sector
D – The cold front
Ref: all
Ans: C
10561
...
What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than
parallel to the isobars?
A – Coriolis force
B – Surface friction
C – The greater density of the air at the surface
D – The greater atmospheric pressure at the surface
Ref: all
Ans: B
10600
...
(Refer to figure 050-71)
What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL 240?
A – Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas
B – Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing
conditions
C – You may encounter thunderstorms intermittently
D – Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds
Ref: all
Ans: A
10632
...
What prevents air from flowing directly from high pressure areas to low
pressure areas?
A – The pressure gradient force
B – Surface friction
C – Katabatic force
D – Coriolis force
Ref: all
Ans: D
10687
...
The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by:
A – curvature of isobars
B – friction
C – horizontal temperature gradients
D – slope of pressure surfaces
Ref: all
Ans: A
10783
...
In an area of Converging air in low level:
A – convective clouds can be dissolved
B – stratified clouds can be dissolved
C – clouds cannot be formed
D – clouds can be formed
Ref: all
Ans: D
15862
...
Which of the following statements is NOT-TRUE?
The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in the Northern hemisphere
only
B – The geostrophic force is the same as the Coriolis force
C – The geostrophic force deflects the wind to the left in the Southern
hemisphere
D – The Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right in both hemispheres
Ref: all
Ans: D

16600
...
Which of the following statements is true?
A – A gale has an average speed of 33 kts or more
B – A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes
C – A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes
D – The more stable the atmosphere, the less turbulence
Ref: all
Ans: D
24219
...
In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows:
A – direct from high to low pressure areas
B – clockwise around anti-cyclones and cyclones
C – clockwise around cyclones and anti-clockwise around anti-cyclones
D – clockwise around anti-cyclones and anti-clockwise around cyclones
Ref: all
Ans: D

24297
...
For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be?
A – greater at 60oN than at 30oN
B – greater at 30oN than at 60oN
C – equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component
D – the same at all latitudes north or south of 15o
Ref: all
Ans: B
8918
...
What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on
the weather map are very close together?
A – Strong and parallel to the isobars
B – Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars
C – Strong the flowing across the isobars
D – Moderate and parallel to the isobars
Ref: all

Ans: C
8993
...
Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:
A – straight lines and no friction is involved
B – curved lines and no friction is involved
C – straight lines and friction is involved
D – curved lines and friction is involved
Ref: all
Ans: A
10631
...
For the same pressure gradient at 60oN, 50oN and 40oN the speed of the
geostrophic wind will be:
A greatest at 40oN
B – the same at all latitudes
C – greatest at 60oN
D – least at 50oN
Ref: all
Ans: A

10645
...
Under anti-cyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars
the speed of the gradient wind is:
A – less than the geostrophic wind
B – greater than the geostrophic wind
C – the same as the thermal component
D – proportional only to the coriolis force
Ref: all
Ans: B
10656
...
Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences
right drift
...
When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close
together, the wind is most likely to be:
A – strong
B – blowing perpendicular to the isobars
C – changing direction rapidly
D – light
Ref: all
Ans: A
10698
...
Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?
A – Pressure gradient force, coriolis force
B – Friction force, pressure gradient force, coriolis force
C – Pressure gradient force, coriolis force, centrifugal force
D – Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force
Ref: all
Ans: A
10719
...
In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is
the centre of low pressure?
A – To the left
B – Behind
C – In front
D – To the right
Ref: all
Ans: C

10777
...
The geostrophic wind depends on:
A – density, earth’s rotation, geographic latitude
B – earth’s rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
C – geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
D – centripetal force, height, pressure gradient
Ref: all
Ans: A
15865
...
Geostrophic wind:
A – always increases with increasing height
B – veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere
C – is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
D – is directly proportional to the density of the air
Ref: all
Ans: C

16595
...
The pressure gradient force acts:
A – parallel to the isobars with low pressure on its left (in the Northern
hemisphere)
B – perpendicular to the isobars with low pressure behind it
C – perpendicular to the isobars and away from the high pressure
D – parallel to the isobars and towards the low pressure
Ref: all
Ans: C
16598
...
A geostrophic wind is a true wind only under the following conditions:
A – straight and parallel isobars, unchanging pressure field, no friction
B – uniformly curved isobars, constant pressure field, 2000 ft wind
C – circular isobars, slack pressure gradient, no friction
D – parallel isobars, constant pressure field, no friction
Ref: all
Ans: A

16601
...
With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue?
A – The geostrophic force decreases near the poles
B – The geostrophic force is non-existent at the equator
C – The geostrophic force varies in direct proportion to the wind speed
D – The pressure gradient force is a maximum at the poles
Ref: all
Ans: A
16603
...
The effect of curved isobars on geostrophic wind speed correction is:
A – greater at high latitudes
B – greater at low altitudes
C – less at high latitudes
D – no effect
Ref: all
Ans: C

16605
...
In the Northern hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind to:
A – back and decrease
B – veer and decrease
C – back and increase
D – veer and increase
Ref: all
Ans: A
16607
...
For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars at latitudes 50oN
and 30oN the gradient wind speed will be least at latitude:
A – 30oN in an anti-cyclone
B – 50oN in an anti-cyclone
C – 30oN with a cyclonic circulation
D – 50oN with a cyclonic circulation
Ref: all
Ans: D

24398
...
Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by
the zone of:
A – equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the inter-tropical
convergence zone over central Australia
B – Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass
between south Australia and Antarctica
C – disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous
succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain
D – sub-tropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts
originating in the adjacent zone of disturbed temperate low pressure
Ref: all
Ans: D
8968
...
(Refer to figure 050-100)
Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt-Rome at FL 170:
A – 200/50 kt
B – 230/40 kt
C – 060/50 kt
D – 030/35 kt
Ref: all
Ans: B
8998
...
In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10oN and 20oN the
prevailing winds are:
A – NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
B – NE trade winds
C – SE trade winds
D – SW winds throughout the whole year
Ref: all
Ans: B
10576
...
(Refer to figure 050-48)
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation,
zone Y is an area of:
A – SE trade winds
B – NE trade winds
C – travelling low pressure systems
D – sub-tropical high pressure systems
Ref: all
Ans: C
10670
...
(Refer to figure 050-107)
What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?
ABCD-

-55oC
-51oC
-63oC
-47oC

Ref: all
Ans: D
10790
...
You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface
...
Which of the following alternatives is the correct one, regarding the surface
wind in relation to the air pressure in the Northern hemisphere?
A – The wind over land blows parallel to the isobars
B – The wind around a high pressure blows clockwise and slants across the
isobars towards higher pressure
C – The wind blows counter-clockwise around a low and slants across the
isobars towards lower pressure
D – The wind blows counter-clockwise around a high and clockwise around a
low
Ref: all
Ans: C
24262
...
Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?
A – Altocumulus lenticularis
B – Stratocumulus
C – Cirrocumulus
D – Nimbostratus
Ref: all
Ans: A
8981
...
Usually, small variations in air
speed
...
5 to 1
...
Occupants feel strain against seat belts
...

Food service and walking are difficult
...
What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying
through a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
A – Moderate turbulence in NS cloud
B – Severe turbulence in CB cloud
C – Light turbulence in CB cloud
D – Light turbulence in ST cloud
Ref: all
Ans: B

10676
...
Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of:
A – a high risk of thunderstorms
B – poor visibility at surface
C – smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
D – turbulence at and below the cloud level
Ref: all
Ans: D
16329
...
If Paris reports a wind of 08010 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would
you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
A – 11020 kt
B – 08015 kt
C – 05020 kt
D – 08005 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A

8955
...
From approximately which direction would
you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
A – South
B – South-southwest
C – Southwest
D – South-southeast
Ref: all
Ans: D
8962
...
In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows:
A – from a low pressure area to a high pressure area
B – counter-clockwise around, and towards the centre of, a low pressure area
C – clockwise around, and away from the centre of a low pressure area
D – counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure
area
Ref: all
Ans: B
10647
...
If Paris reports a wind of 19015 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would
you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
A – 16020 kt
B – 22030 kt
C – 25025 kt
D – 22010 kt
Ref: all
Ans: B
10671
...
The effect of this change is
that the wind:
A – veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
B – backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
C – veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
D – backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
Ref: all
Ans: C
10693
...
The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anti-cyclone
because the:
A – centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
B – centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
C – effect of coriolis is added to friction
D – coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force
Ref: all
Ans: B

10794
...
If Paris reports a wind of 16020 kt on the METAR, what wind velocity would
you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground:
A – 14020 kt
B – 16030 kt
C – 19040 kt
D – 17015 kt
Ref: all
Ans: C
15789
...
What is the primary reason of
difference between these two wind directions?
A – A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes
B – Stronger coriolis force at the surface
C – The influence of warm air at the lower altitude
D – Friction between the wind and the surface
Ref: all
Ans: D
15838
...
When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the left
...
During a descent from 2000 ft above the surface to the surface (no frontal
passage) the wind normally:
A – veers and decreases
B – backs and decreases
C – veers and increases
D – backs and increases
Ref: all
Ans: B
15864
...
Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL 180 in
the northern hemisphere where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude
remains constant?
A – There is a cross wind from the right
B – There is a cross wind from the left
C – There is no cross wind
D – Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question cannot be answered
Ref: all
Ans: C

8927
...
What direction,
relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from?
A – From the left and slightly on the tail
B – From the right and slightly on the nose
C – From the right and slightly on the tail
D – From the left and slightly on the nose
Ref: all
Ans: D
8942
...
In a land and sea breeze circulation the land breeze blows:
A – during the day and is stronger than the sea breeze
B – during the night and is weaker than the sea breeze
C – during the day and is weaker than the sea breeze
D – during the night and is stronger than the sea breeze
Ref: all
Ans: B
10590
...
Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
A – backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
B – veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
C – backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
D – veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
Ref: all
Ans: C
10621
...
What surface wind direction is
likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon?
A – Parallel to the coastline
B – Land to sea
C – Variable
D – Sea to land
Ref: all
Ans: D
10641
...
The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is
toward the:
A – valley during daylight hours
B – mountain at night
C – mountain during daylight hours
D – valley during daylight as much as at night
Ref: all
Ans: C

10662
...
When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a
large body of water will experience wind:
A – continually from land to water
B – from the water in daytime and from the land at night
C – continually from water to the land
D – from the land in day time and from the water at night
Ref: all
Ans: B
10684
...
When down wind over the sea, the airfield is on the right
...
A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows:
A – down the slope during the night
B – up the slope during the day
C – down the slope during the day
D – up the slope during the night
Ref: all
Ans: A

15883
...
At the same position the
surface wind is most likely to be:
A – 075/12
B – 060/18
C – 060/12
D – 045/12
Ref: all
Ans: D
16611
...
A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the
Mediterranean Sea and coastal region during the summer
...
Sea breezes are most likely to occur when:
A – slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land
temperatures
B – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast
conditions persist
C – a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies
at night exist
D – a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast
conditions persist
Ref: all
Ans: A

050-02-07 Jet streams
8906
...
What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
A – 70 kt
B – 50 kt
C – 60 kt
D – 100 kt
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: C

8931
...
In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from
Bombay (19oN – 73oE) to Bangkok (13oN – 100oE)
...
While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 ft below its
core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
A – A head wind
B – Cross wind from the right
C – Cross wind from the left
D – A tail wind
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: B
10565
...
Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
A – Equatorial jet stream/arctic jet stream
B – Equatorial jet stream/polar front jet stream
C – Arctic jet stream/sub-tropical jet stream
D – Sub-tropical jet stream/polar front jet stream
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: D
10569
...
A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following
wind profile (Northern hemisphere)
900 hPa
700 hPa
400 hPa
250 hPa

220/20 kt
230/35 kt
280/85 kt
310/120 kt

800 hPa
500 hPa
300 hPa
200 hPa

220/25 kt
260/60 kt
300/100 kt
310/80 kt

Which system is the jet stream associated with:
A – With an easterly wave
B – With a cold front
C – With a ITCZ
D – With a warm front
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: D

10605
...
What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
A – The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front region
B – The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the
Azores and a low over Iceland
C – The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front
D – Strong winds in the upper atmosphere
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: C
10619
...
Which area of a polar front jet steam in the northern hemisphere has the
highest probability of turbulence?
A – Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core
B – Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core
C – In the core of the jet stream
D – Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: A

10633
...
What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and
all the other jet streams?
A – Horizontal dimension
B – Vertical dimensions
C – Wind direction
D – Wind speed
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: C
10643
...
You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles
...

A – You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with
practically no temperature difference between the two air masses
B – This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core
C – Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing
have the instruments tested
D – This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large
temperature differences are possible at these heights
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: B
10672
...
Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly
direction
...
When and
where is it likely to be encountered?
A – In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean
B – In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central
Africa
C – In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the
Mediterranean to southern Spain
D – Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: B

10709
...
This means that:
A – above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from
north to south
B – the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
C – below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from
north to south
D – the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: D
10717
...
Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found?
A – At about 5500 metres altitude
B – Just below the tropopause
C – Close to the ground
D – In the stratosphere
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: B
10727
...
An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north,
beneath the core
...
During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the
polar front jet stream moves towards the:
A – south and speed decreases
B – north and speed decreases
C – south and speed increases
D – north and speed increases
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: C
10795
...
While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing
...
What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross
section?
A – 1/1
B – 1/10
C – 1/1000
D – 1/100
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: D

15815
...
Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
A – In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
B – In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
C – In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
D – In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: B
16335
...
A jet stream is:
A – a band of strong winds only found near thunderstorms
B – a broad band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross section
C – a narrow band of strong winds only found near fronts
D – a narrow band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross section
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: D

16365
...
At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific usually
strongest?
A – October
B – January
C – There is no annual variation
D – July
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: D
24302
...
Maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are usually
located in the:
A – polar air above the tropopause
B – tropical air above the tropopause
C – tropical air below the tropopause
D – polar air below the tropopause
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: C

24328
...
What is necessary for the development of a polar front jet stream?
A – An unstable atmosphere up to great heights
B – Strong vertical temperature gradients
C – A uniform pressure pattern
D – Strong horizontal temperature gradients
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: D
25626
...
An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL
400 in the southern hemisphere
...
Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found:
A – Just above the warm air tropopause
B – In the polar air mass
C – In the tropical air mass
D – Just below the cold air tropopause
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: C
8909
...
At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely
to be encountered is:
A – altocumulus lenticularis
B – cirrostratus
C – cirrus
D – cumulus mediocris
Ref: all
Ans: A
16613
...
Relative humidity:
A – is not affected by temperature changes of the air
B – is not affected when air is ascending or descending
C – changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature
remains constant
D – does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of
the air remains constant
Ref: all
Ans: C
9012
...
Relative humidity:
A – is higher in cool air than in warm air
B – is higher in warm air than in cool air
C – increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure
constant
D – decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure
constant
Ref: all
Ans: C

9019
...
Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
A – It can be used to estimate the air mass’ relative humidity even if the air
temperature is unknown
B – It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
C – It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass’
relative humidity
D – It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
Ref: all
Ans: D
9027
...
What temperature change must occur during the night in order
to induce saturation?
A – It must decrease to +6oC
B – It must decrease by 5oC
C – It must decrease to +5oC
D – It must decrease to +7oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
9040
...
Dew point is defined as:
A – the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air
will result in the absorption of latent heat
B – the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given
pressure
C – the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the
relative humidity
D – the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at
a given pressure
Ref: all
Ans: D
9049
...
When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative
humidity?
A – It increases up to 100%, then remains stable
B – It increases
C – It remains constant
D – It decreases
Ref: all
Ans: D
9064
...
How is the relative
humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour
in it?
A – It is not influenced by changing water vapour
B – It increases with increasing water vapour
C – It decreases with increasing water vapour
D – It is only influenced by temperature
Ref: all
Ans: B

9066
...
How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass
change with varying temperature?
A – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dew point
remains constant
B – When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dew
point decreases
C – When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point increases
D – When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dew
point remains constant
Ref: all
Ans: D
9077
...
The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:
A – dew point
B – relative humidity
C – stability of the air
D – air temperature
Ref: all
Ans: D

9093
...
(Refer to figue 050-42)
What does this picture depict?
A – A westerly wave over Central Europe
B – A high pressure area over Central Europe
C – South foehn
D – North foehn
Ref: all
Ans: A
9100
...
(Refer to figure 050-44)
Which weather situation can be expected during the day at Zurich airport?
A – TAF LSZH 1601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT
+SHSN W002=
B – TAF LSZH 1601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OV3015=
C – TAF LSZH 1601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500
MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG W001=
D – TAF LSZH 1601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=
Ref: all
Ans: C
10192
...
How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by
temperature changes?
A – It increases with increasing temperature
B – It is not influenced by temperature changes
C – It decreases with increasing temperature
D – It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour
Ref: all
Ans: C

16563
...
What is true for the water vapour distribution in the layer between the surface
and the 500 hPa pressure surface in the trade wind belt?
A – The lower part is relatively dry and the upper part is relatively moist
B – The whole layer is relatively dry
C – The whole layer is relatively moist
D – The lower part is relatively moist and the upper part is relatively dry
Ref: all
Ans: D

050-03-02 Change of state of aggregation
9009
...
The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as:
A – super cooling
B – sublimation
C – super saturation
D – radiation cooling
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: B
9042
...
When water evaporates into unsaturated air:
A – relative humidity is decreased
B – heat is released
C – relative humidity is not changed
D – heat is absorbed
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D
9048
...
Super cooled droplets can be encountered:
A – only in winter at high altitude
B – in winter only in high clouds
C – only in winter above 10,000 ft
D – at any time of the year
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D
9072
...
A super cooled droplet is one that:
A – is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air
B – has frozen to become an ice pellet
C – has a shell of ice with water inside it
D – remains liquid at a below freezing temperature
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D
9081
...
Super cooled droplets are always:
A – large and at a temperature below freezing
B – small and at a temperature below freezing
C – at a temperature below freezing
D – at a temperature below -60oC
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: C
10189
...
What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 ft?
A – 1
...
0oC
C – 3
...
5oC
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: C
9005
...
A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and
then returned to its original level
...
A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects
...
A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by:
A – expanding it adiabatically
B – raising the temperature
C – lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant
D – compressing it adiabatically
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A
9046
...
65oC
B – 2oC
C – 1oC
D – 0
...
The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of
ascending unsaturated air because:
A – water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun
B – moist air is heavier than dry air
C – water vapour does not cool as rapidly as dry air
D – heat is released during the condensation process
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D
9062
...
Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is
correct?
A – Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels
B – Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels
C – Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0
...
65oC per 100m
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: B
9079
...
(Refer to figure 050-41)
What can be said about this weather situation?
A – Air mass thunderstorms may develop during summertime
B – Strong gradient winds may occur over Central Europe
C – Foehn conditions lead to severe weather south of the Alps
D – No ground fog will be present in Paris and Zurich during the winter
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A
9085
...
Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?
A – The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0
...
65oC/100m
C – The layer is unstable for unsaturated air
D – The environmental lapse rate is less than 1oC/100m
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D
9095
...
This layer can be described as being:
A – conditionally stable
B – absolutely stable
C – conditionally unstable
D – absolutely unstable
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D

9099
...
An inversion is:
A – an absolutely stable layer
B – a conditionally unstable layer
C – an unstable layer
D – a layer that can be either stable or unstable
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A
9141
...
If in a 100m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10oC and
at the top of the layer is 8oC then this layer is:
A – absolutely unstable
B – absolutely stable
C – conditionally unstable
D – neutral
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A

10177
...
A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is:
A – neutral
B – unstable
C – absolutely stable
D – conditionally unstable
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: C
10181
...
A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is:
A – between 1oC per 100m and 0
...
65oC per 100m
D – less than 0
...
The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by:
A – temperature and dew point at the surface
B – temperature at surface and air pressure
C – wind and dew point at the surface
D – wet adiabatic lapse rate and dew point at the surface
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A
10187
...
5oC
B – 1oC
C – 0
...
35oC
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: C
10202
...
What is the final temperature of unsaturated surface air at 12oC, which rises to
6000 ft?
A - +30oC
B - +18oC
C - +30oC
D - -06oC
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D

16592
...
5oC / 1000 ft
B – 2
...
0oC / 1000 ft
D – It varies daily
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: B
16593
...
9oC per 1000 ft, is by definition:
A – stable
B – conditionally stable
C – unstable
D – conditionally unstable
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D

050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG
050-04-01 Cloud formation and description
9104
...
What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST
cloud coverage?
A – Convection process
B – Sinking
C – Lifting
D – Radiation
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: C
9108
...

When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible
...

A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Nimbostratus
D – Cirrostratus
Ref: all
Ans: A

9109
...
Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
A – ST, CS
B – CU, CB
C – SC, NS
D – C1, SC
Ref: all
Ans: B
9111
...
Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building
of CU and CB clouds?
A – Frontal lifting within stable layers
B – Radiation
C – Subsidence
D – Convection
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D

9142
...
A cumulonimbus cloud at mid latitudes in summer contains:
A – only water droplets
B – ice crystals, water droplets and super cooled water droplets
C – only ice crystals
D – ice crystals and water droplets but never super cooled water droplets
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
9146
...
Which of the following are medium level clouds?
A – Altostratus and altocumulus
B – Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
C – Cumulonimbus
D – All convective clouds
Ref: all
Ans: A

9154
...

At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
A – 7000 – 15000 ft above ground
B – 100 – 1500 ft above ground
C – 1500 – 7000 ft above ground
D – 15000 – 25000 ft above ground
Ref: all
Ans: C
9159
...
Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from:
A – 500 to 1000 ft
B – 1000 to 2000 ft
C – the surface to 6500 ft
D – 100 to 200 ft
Ref: all
Ans: C
9169
...
Altostratus clouds are classified as:
A – convective clouds
B – low level clouds
C – high level clouds
D – medium level clouds
Ref: all
Ans: D
9185
...
Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?
A – ST
B – CS
C – AS
D – CC
Ref: all
Ans: A
9189
...
Fall-streaks or virga are:
A – water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching
the ground
B – strong down draughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
C – gusts associated with a well developed Bora
D – strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy
precipitation
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
9193
...
(Refer to figure 050-02)
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus
capillatus?
A–D
B–A
C–B
D–C
Ref: all
Ans: A
9196
...
(Refer to figure 050-03)
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus
lenticularis?
A–2
B–1
C–4
D–3
Ref: all
Ans: A
10223
...
The vertical extent of these
clouds depends on the:
A – air pressure at the surface
B – wind direction
C – thickness of the unstable layer
D – pressure at different levels
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
10231
...

At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
A – 15000 – 35000 ft above the terrain
B – 7000 – 15000 ft above the terrain
C – 1500 – 7000 ft above the terrain
D – 100 – 1500 ft above the terrain
Ref: all
Ans: A
10235
...
What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?
A – Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime
ice
B – Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain
C – Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice
D – Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and
rime ice
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
10243
...
At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be
expected?
A – 1500 – 7000 ft above the terrain
B – 100 – 1500 ft above the terrain
C – 7000 – 15000 ft above the terrain
D – 15000 – 25000 ft above the terrain
Ref: all
Ans: C
10244
...
In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most
likely to be encountered?
A – Within cloud of any type
B – Below the freezing level in clear air
C- In clear air above the freezing level
D – In Nimbostratus cloud
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

10247
...
The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates:
A – stability in the higher troposphere
B – strong convection at low height
C – instability in the middle troposphere
D – subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
15793
...
Which of the following is most correct regarding the cloud types Stratus and
Nimbostratus?
A – Neither cloud type may give precipitation
B – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may
give rain showers
C – Stratus may give rain showers and Nimbostratus may give drizzle, ice
prisms or snow grains
D – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may
give continuously falling rain or snow
Ref: all
Ans: D

16553
...
How do you
distinguish between them?
A – The cloud base is higher in AS and precipitation, if any, is light
B – Precipitation falls from AS but not from NS
C – Steady precipitation from AS
D – The sun can be seen through NS
Ref: all
Ans: A
16554
...
The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is a sign of:
A – severe instability
B – anabatic winds
C – katabatic winds
D – lee waves
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
24114
...
(Refer to figure 050-34)
The cloud type most applicable to square 2D is:
A – AS
B – CU
C – CB
D – CS
Ref: all
Ans: A
24116
...
(Refer to figure 050-34)
During summer, the cloud type most applicable to square 2A is:
A – ST
B – AC
C – CB
D – CS
Ref: all
Ans: C
24121
...
(Refer to figure 050-58)
The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is:
A – CS
B – CB
C – NS
D – SC
Ref: all
Ans: A
24130
...
(Refer to figure 050-58)
The cloud type most applicable to square 2B is:
A – ST
B – CS
C – CB
D – SC
Ref: all
Ans: C
24209
...
A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispensed by:
A – adiabatic cooling due to subsidence
B – absorption of long waved solar radiation in the stratus layer
C – the release of latent heat due to precipitation
D – insulation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level
Ref: all
Ans: D
24220
...
The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white
...

These clouds are:
A – Altocumulus castellanus
B – broken Cumulus humilis
C – towering Cumulus
D – Stratocumulus
Ref: all
Ans: C
24225
...
Why can
the base of these clouds become higher during the day?
A – Because the difference between the temperature and the dew point
temperature at the initial condensation level becomes smaller
B – The wind speed is increasing, because the cold air mass changes into a
warm air mass
C – Because the stability increases
D – Because the surface temperature increases
Ref: all
Ans: D

24254
...
Clouds will mainly consist of super cooled water droplets when the
temperature is:
A – between -5oC and -30oC
B – between 0oC and -15oC
C – between -30oC and -40oC
D – below -40oC
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir: HELI: all
Ans: B
24303
...
Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence?
A – Jet streams
B – Mountain waves
C – Stratospheric inversions
D – Areas of high level clear air turbulence
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir: HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

25578
...
(Refer to figure 050-01)
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus
astellanus?
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: C

050-04-02 Fog, mist, haze
9107
...
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
A – Dry, warm air passing over warm ground
B – Heat loss from the ground on clear nights
C – The passage of fronts
D – Cold air passing over warm ground
Ref: all

Ans: B
9113
...
What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?
A – 2000 ft
B – 500 ft
C – 5000 ft
D – 10000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B
9116
...
Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of
steam fog (arctic smoke)?
A – Warm air moving over cold water
B – Cold air moving over warm water
C – The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
D – The coastal region of the sea cools at night
Ref: all
Ans: B

9119
...
The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:
A – above 15 kt
B – between 10 and 15 kt
C – between 5 and 10 kt
D – below 5 kt
Ref: all
Ans: D
9124
...
Freezing fog consists of:
A – frozen water droplets
B – super cooled water droplets
C – frozen minute snow flakes
D – ice crystals
Ref: all
Ans: B

9132
...
What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?
A – Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills
B – High relative humidity and an unstable air mass
C – Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
D – Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the
range
Ref: all
Ans: A
9155
...
When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather
conditions are most likely to be:
A – unlimited visibility
B – clear and cool
C – high scattered clouds
D – fog or low cloud
Ref: all
Ans: D

9183
...
The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:
A – increasing surface wind speed
B – an increasingly stable atmosphere
C – surface cooling
D – a low level temperature inversion
Ref: all
Ans: A
9198
...
Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air:
A – that is stable
B – with warm mass properties
C – that is absolutely stable
D – with cold mass properties
Ref: all
Ans: D

10212
...
Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation
fog?
A – Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air
B – Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air
C – Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air
D – Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air
Ref: all
Ans: A
10241
...
Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
A – Very dry air
B – Little or no cloud
C – Strong surface winds
D – Very low temperatures
Ref: all
Ans: B

10245
...
(Refer to figure 050-04)
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:
A–3
B–3
C–1
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: B
16545
...
For (FG) is defined as being a:
A – visibility of < 1,000m due to any precipitation in the atmosphere
B – visibility of < = 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in
the atmosphere
C – visibility of < 1,000m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in
the atmosphere
D – visibility of < 1,000m due to solid or liquid particles suspended in the
atmosphere
Ref: all
Ans: C
16580
...
According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to the
presence of solid particles (lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of:
A - < 5,000 m
B - < = 5,000m
C - > 5,000m
D - > = 5,000m
Ref: all
Ans: B

16582
...
Which of the following statements is true?
A – Radiation fog only forms on a clear night with no wind
B – Radiation fog only forms in valleys (the katabatic effect)
C – Radiation fog only forms when the air is very dry and there is an inversion
D – Radiation fog cannot form over the sea
Ref: all
Ans: D
16584
...
Advection fog is caused by:
A – dry air over a cold surface
B – cold air over a warm moist surface
C – air, cooler by at least 10oC, moving over a moist surface
D – none of the above
Ref: all
Ans: C

16586
...
Advection fog is most likely to form when:
A – cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is
greater than 15 kt
B – cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs
C – a mild moist air stream flows over snow covered ground and the wind
speed is less than 10 kt
D – warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind
speed is greater than 15 kt
Ref: all
Ans: C
24224
...
As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is
formed
...
Frontal fog can be formed by:
A – cooling at night
B – condensation of air saturated by adiabatic cooling
C – condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitation
D – evaporation of moisture at the surface
Ref: all
Ans: C
24279
...
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
A – A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
B – A warm moist air mass on the windward side of the mountains
C – An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
D – Warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions
Ref: all
Ans: C
24314
...
The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if
A – air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another
B – the wind is strong
C – the sky is overcast
D – the turbulence in the lower layers is moderate
Ref: all
Ans: A
24375
...
Advection fog
is formed by evaporation over the sea
B – Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea
C – Radiation for forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to day
time cooling
D – Radiation for forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind
...
What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundland in
spring time?
A – Radiation fog
B – Frontal fog
C – Advection fog
D – Steaming fog
Ref: all
Ans: C
24415
...
Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a
Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm?
A – Convection
B – Ground radiation
C – Convergence
D – Orographic lift
Ref: all
Ans: B
24422
...
Which statement is correct?
A – Fog can be super cooled and can also contain ice crystals
B – Mist and haze consist of water droplets
C – Fog and haze do not occur in the tropics
D – Mist and haze only differ by different values of visibility
Ref: all
Ans: A
24451
...
Which is true of advection fog?
A – It can appear suddenly by day or by night
B – It develops slowly and clears fast
C – It forms when unstable air is adiabatically cooled
D – It usually forms by night and clears by day
Ref: all
Ans: A

050-05

PRECIPITATION

050-05-01 Development of precipitation
9203
...
Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to
fall in mid-latitudes?
A – Hail
B – Moderate rain with large drops
C – Heavy rain with large drops
D – Drizzle
Ref: all
Ans: D
9227
...
The widest precipitation zone occurs usually:
A – ahead of a warm front
B – ahead of a cold front
C – in rear of a cold front
D – in rear of a warm front
Ref: all
Ans: A

050-05-02 Types of precipitation
9202
...
What type of cloud can produce hail showers?
A – CS
B – NS
C – CB
D – AC
Ref: all
Ans: C
9206
...
From what type of cloud does drizzle fall?
A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Cumulus
D – Cirrostratus
Ref: all
Ans: A

9215
...
With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly associated?
A – CB
B – AS
C – SC
D – NS
Ref: all
Ans: A
9218
...
With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer
months?
A – NS, CC
B – CB, ST
C – SC, AS
D – AS, NS
Ref: all
Ans: C

9221
...
Large hail stones:
A – only occur in thunderstorms of mid latitudes
B – are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
C – are entirely composed of clear ice
D – only occur in frontal thunderstorms
Ref: all
Ans: B
9223
...
What type of clouds are associated with rain showers?
A – Nimbostratus
B – Towering cumulus and altostratus
C – Altostratus and stratus
D – Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus
Ref: all
Ans: D

9228
...
With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
A – Stratocumulus
B – Cumulonimbus
C – Nimbostratus
D – Stratus
Ref: all
Ans: B
9230
...
With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation most
commonly associated?
A – NS
B – AC
C – SC
D – ST
Ref: all
Ans: A

9232
...
Select
the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
A – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain
...
Turbulence is rarely more than moderate
B – Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain
...
Icing and turbulence are
frequently severe
D – Precipitation and icing are usually nil
...
Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from:
A – stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
B – convective clouds with little or no turbulence
C – stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
D – convective clouds with moderate turbulence
Ref: all
Ans: C
9235
...
Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility?
A – Heavy rain
B – Drizzle
C – Hail
D – Snow
Ref: all
Ans: D

24275
...
Super cooled droplets can occur in:
A – clouds, fog and precipitation
B – clouds but not in precipitation
C – precipitation but not in clouds
D – clouds but not in fog
Ref: all
Ans: A

050-06

AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
050-06-01 Types of air masses

9236
...
(Refer to figure 050-47)
What is the classification of the air mass affecting North-Western parts of
France at 0600 UTC?
A – Tropical continental
B – Polar maritime
C – Polar continental
D – Tropical maritime
Ref: all
Ans: D
9282
...
What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between
an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over
northern Russia?
A – The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North Russian
air
B – The North Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores
C – The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North Russian air
D – The North Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores
Ref: all
Ans: A
9304
...
An air mass is stable when:
A – pressure is constant
B – temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
C – the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and
disappears
D – the lapse rate is 1oC per 100m
Ref: all
Ans: C
9324
...
In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?
A – Baltic Sea
B – Region of British Isles
C – East of Greenland
D – Black Sea
Ref: all
Ans: C
16429
...
Which one of the
following weather types may originate from this condition?
A – The formation of thunder storms
B – Warm front dissipation
C – The forming of a warm front
D – The forming of a cold front
Ref: all
Ans: C
16431
...
A stationary front is a front in which:
A – there are never frontal clouds
B – there is no difference in temperature between the two air masses
C – there is no wind on both sides of the front
D – there is no horizontal motion perpendicular to the front
Ref: all
Ans: D

24228
...
An air mass acquires its basic properties
A – by widespread thunderstorms
B – by the influence of jet streams
C – by stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having
particular characteristics
D – in the westerlies of the mid latitudes
Ref: all
Ans: C
24231
...
An air mass is unstable when
A – pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
B – temperature and humidity are not constant
C – an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height
D – temperature increases with height
Ref: all
Ans: C

24233
...
An unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope
...
An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by
A – stratiform cloud
B – cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation
C – continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud
D – poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels
Ref: all
Ans: B

24276
...
Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass?
A – Addition of water vapour in the lower layer
B – Cooling by the underlying surface
C – Warming of the air mass from below
D – Advection of colder air aloft
Ref: all
Ans: B

050-06-02 Fronts
9238
...
In a warm front occlusion:
A – the warm front becomes a front aloft
B – the warm front overtakes the cold front
C – the warm air is lifted
D – the cold air is lifted
Ref: all
Ans: C
9241
...
Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer?
A – Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed
B – Mainly layered clouds
C – Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed
D – Mainly towering clouds
Ref: all
Ans: D
9251
...
If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in
the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability
of freezing rain the lowest?
A – 9000 feet
B – 12000 feet
C – 5000 feet
D – 3000 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
9253
...
Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?
A – The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
B – The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of
the front
C – The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
D – The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
Ref: all
Ans: C

9255
...
Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when
approaching an active warm front at medium to low level?
A – Severe thunderstorms at low altitude
B – Low cloud base and poor visibility
C – Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground
D – High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms
Ref: all
Ans: B

9261
...
What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?
A – Extensive areas of fog
...
What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central
Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0oC, and freezing rain
starts to fall?
A – Cold occlusions
B – Warm fronts, warm occlusions
C – High level cold fronts
D – Cold fronts
Ref: all
Ans: B
9266
...
What type of front/occlusion usually moves the fastest?
A – Cold front
B – Warm front
C – Cold occlusion
D – Warm occlusion
Ref: all
Ans: A
9272
...
Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva
Airport?
A – TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN
018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=
B – TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 –RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG
0810 5000 RA BKN 020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030
BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=
C – TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013
25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316
VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100=
D – TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811
23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000
TSRA BKN020CB =
Ref: all
Ans: B
9274
...
Which of the following
are you most likely to encounter?
A – Strong, gusty winds
B – Decreasing temperatures
C – A strong down draught
D – Increasing temperatures
Ref: all
Ans: B

9275
...
An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system
of a depression, which is moving from West to East
...
For this observer the wind
direction is:
A – continuously veering
B – continuously backing
C – initially backing, then veering
D – initially veering, then backing
Ref: all
Ans: B
9291
...
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on
the ground as an active cold front is passing?
A – It will first increase then decrease
B – It will remain unchanged
C – It will first decrease then increase
D – It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet
Ref: all
Ans: A
9303
...
(Refer to figure 050-08)
Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross section
shown on the left?
A – Track B-A
B – Track C-A
C – Track D-A
D – Track B-C
Ref: all
Ans: C
9307
...
(Refer to figure 050-104)
What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?
A – Approximately constant pressure
B – A drop in pressure
C – Irregular fluctuations
D – A rise in pressure
Ref: all
Ans: D
9312
...
What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front?
A – Cold air slides over a warm air mass
B – Warm air pushes over a cold air mass
C – Cold air pushes under a warm air mass
D – Warm air pushes under a cold air mass
Ref: all
Ans: C
9319
...
At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west
to east generally, at their most southerly position?
A – Autumn
B – Summer
C – Spring
D – Winter
Ref: all
Ans: D
9322
...
On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching:
A – QFE increases and QNH decreases
B – QFE and QNH increase
C – QFE and QNH decrease
D – QFE decreases and QNH increases
Ref: all
Ans: C
9330
...
How do air masses move at a warm front?
A – Cold air over rides a warm air mass
B – Warm air over rides a cold air mass
C – Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
D – Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
Ref: all
Ans: B
9333
...
What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression
over Central Europe in the summer?
A – BKN CU and CB
B – Fair weather CU
C – Sky clear
D – ST with drizzle
Ref: all
Ans: B
10250
...
In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?
A – Ahead of a warm front in the winter
B – Ahead of a cold front in the winter
C – Behind a warm front in the summer
D – Ahead of a cold front in the summer
Ref: all
Ans: A
10262
...
The polar front is the boundary between:
A – maritime polar aid and continental polar air
B – arctic air and polar air
C – arctic air and tropical air
D – polar air and tropical air
Ref: all
Ans: D
10271
...
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on
the ground shortly before an active cold front passes?
A – It will be decreasing
B – It will remain unchanged
C – It will be increasing
D – It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet
Ref: all
Ans: C
10277
...
Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if:
A – the cold air is convectively stable
B – the cold air is convectively unstable
C – the warm air is convectively unstable
D – the warm air is convectively stable
Ref: all
Ans: C

10279
...
And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside
...
”
Which of these weather phenomena is being described?
A – A warm front
B – A blizzard
C – Weather at the back of a cold front
D – A cold front
Ref: all
Ans: A
10281
...
What form of precipitation do
you expect?
A – Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives
...
Improvement on the passage of the
cold front
B – Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of
some 24 hours
C – Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives
...
Rain or snow on the passage of the cold
front
D – Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives
...
On the
arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours
Ref: all
Ans: D
10282
...
The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead
of a warm front is the:
A – saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporating
B – saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
C – reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds
D – warm air moving over a cold surface
Ref: all
Ans: B
10286
...
A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:
A – in an air mass with cold mass properties
B – behind of a stationary front
C – ahead of a cold front
D – at an occluded front
Ref: all
Ans: C
16354
...
Jets are very rare near occluded front because:
A – the air is too cold across the fronts
B – the air is too warm across the fronts
C – there is not enough pressure difference across the fronts
D – there is not enough temperature difference across the fronts
Ref: all
Ans: D
16366
...
If cold air is being “replaced” by warm air, the boundary between the air
masses is called:
A – a warm front
B – a cold front
C – a polar front
D – an arctic front
Ref: all
Ans: A
16430
...
When flying through a cold front in the summer, the following flying weather
may be expected:
A – towering clouds with showery precipitation
B – horizontally extended clouds with drizzle
C – horizontally extended clouds with even tops and bases
D – towering clouds without turbulence
Ref: all
Ans: A
16434
...
The mean position of the polar front in the North Atlantic is:
A – from Florida to SW UK in July
B – from Florida to North of the UK in January
C – from north of UK to Newfoundland in July
D – from SW UK to Newfoundland in January
Ref: all
Ans: C
24171
...
A gust front is:
A – normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
B – formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
C – characterised by heavy lightning
D – another name for a cold front
Ref: all
Ans: B
24218
...
The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of
the observer
...
An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when:
A – the cold air behind is colder than the cold air ahead
B – the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead
C – the cold air behind is lifted by the warm air
D – the cold air ahead is lifted
Ref: all
Ans: B
24242
...
At a cold front:
A – warm air is lifted as cooler air pushes under it
B – warm air is compressed as cold air rises over it
C – temperature rises owing to increased pressure
D – fog will form from the interaction of cold and warm air
Ref: all
Ans: A
24248
...
During the passage of a front in the northern hemisphere the wind veers
...
In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates:
A – the approach of a warm occlusion
B – backing winds with increasing heights
C – increasing probability for showers
D – the formation of advection fog
Ref: all
Ans: A

24324
...
The arctic front is the boundary between:
A – arctic air and tropical air
B – polar air and tropical air
C – cold polar air and less cold polar air
D – polar air and arctic air
Ref: all
Ans: D
24330
...
The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens
and drizzle or rain begins to fall
...
These phenomena:
A – warm front
B – cold front
C – trade wind front
D – sea breeze front
Ref: all
Ans: A
24332
...
This is typical for:
A – the passage of a squall line
B – the passage of a cold front
C – anti-cyclonic weather
D – the passage of a warm front
Ref: all
Ans: D

24338
...
The area of the system in which you are at this moment is:
A – behind the cold front
B – the main body of the warm or cold front, or of the occlusion
C – the warm sector
D – the high pressure area
Ref: all
Ans: B
24342
...
The types of
fog just in advance and just after the passage are respectively
A – arctic smoke and frontal fog
B – advection fog and radiation fog
C – frontal fog and advection fog
D – advection fog and steaming fog
Ref: all
Ans: C
24347
...
The slope and speed of a warm front compared to the slope and speed of a
cold front is in general:
A – smaller and slower
B – greater and faster
C – greater and slower
D – smaller and faster
Ref: all
Ans: A

24396
...
Where is the projection of the polar front jet stream on the surface most likely
to be found in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression?
A – 30 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm
front
B – Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side
of the warm front
C – Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side
of the warm front
D – 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the
warm front
Ref: all
Ans: D
24438
...
Which statement is correct for a warm occlusion?
A – The warm front overtakes the cold front
B – The cold front becomes a front aloft
C – The warm front becomes a front aloft
D – Both fronts become fronts aloft
Ref: all
Ans: B

050-07

PRESSURE SYSTEMS

050-07-01 Location of the principal pressure areas
9353
...
Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following
statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic
region between 30oN and 65oN
...
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN together with
the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is:
A – Azores, Siberia
B – Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
C – NE Canada, Iceland
D – Greenland, Iberian peninsula
Ref: all
Ans: A

9405
...
In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land
during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone?
A – NS
B – TS, SH
C – CB, TS
D – Calm winds, haze
Ref: all
Ans: D
9348
...
The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by:
A – convection
B – subsidence
C – a decrease in temperature
D – a decrease in pressure
Ref: all
Ans: B

9362
...
The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure
area in the mid-latitudes is called:
A – subsidence inversion
B – friction inversion
C – radiation inversion
D – trade wind inversion
Ref: all
Ans: A
9399
...
What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region
overland in the winter?
A – Thunderstorms
B – A tendency for fog and low ST
C – NS with continuous rain
D – The possibility of snow showers
Ref: all
Ans: B

9415
...
Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it:
A – reaches warmer layers
B – is heated by compression
C – is heated by expansion
D – loses water vapour
Ref: all
Ans: B
9420
...
Polar air moving south will become:
A – increasingly stable
B – increasingly unstable
C – conditionally unstable
D – it depends on the humidity
Ref: all
Ans: B

24206
...
During summer an anti-cyclone covers the British isles giving mainly clear
skies
...
The coastline at the airfield perimeter is aligned in an
east/west direction
...
When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country)
with an anti-cyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wind will be:
A – from the right
B – from the left
C – a head wind
D – a tail wind
Ref: all
Ans: C
24457
...

An anti-cyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you
...
Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?
A – It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense
B – It tends to move round the primary in an anti-cyclonic sense
C – It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
D – It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary
Ref: all
Ans: A
9352
...
With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the
weather likely to be experienced is:
A – strong wind shear, convection and snow showers
B – light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
C – strong wind with subsidence at low levels
D – strong wind associated with an almost clear sky
Ref: all
Ans: A
9392
...
On the 500 hPa chart)
C – As a low pressure area aloft (eg
...
What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air
pool?
A – Nothing (CAVOK)
B – Strong westerly winds
C – Fine weather CU
D – Showers and thunderstorms
Ref: all
Ans: D
9407
...
Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal
depression because of:
A – surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread
descent of air in the depression
B – surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread
descent of air in the depression
C – surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression
D – surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread
ascent of air in the depression
Ref: all
Ans: C
9412
...
A cold air pool:
A – occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is
under the influence of cold north westerly air stream
B – develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime
arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an
extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems
C – normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
D – is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the
middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
Ref: all
Ans: D
24256
...
What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presence
of a tropical revolving storm?
A – NS spread over a large area
B – Frequent SC
C – Excessive accumulation of CU
D – Dense C1
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
9345
...
What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?
A – The equatorial jet stream
B – Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high pressure belt
C – Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes
D – Latent heat released from condensing water vapour
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
9355
...
On which coast of North America is the danger of tropical revolving storms the
greatest?
A – NE coast
B – W coast
C – N coast
D – SE coast
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
9364
...
During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern
hemisphere?
A – All seasons
B – Winter
C – Winter and spring
D – Summer and autumn
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
9376
...
Why to tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of
the tropical oceans?
A – Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and
sea
B – Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive wind shear
with increase of height
C – Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds
long sea passage
D – Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary
circulation
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
9380
...
The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms
occur is:
A – the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
B – the Caribbean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south east
coastline of the USA
C – the south western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the
island of Reunion
D – the north west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea and the Chinese
coastline
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
9400
...
Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?
A – From the earth’s surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its
surroundings
B – They intensify rapidly after landfall
C – The diameter is 50-500m
D – Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

9403
...
(Refer to figure 050-18)
The arrows labelled “S” represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms
which occur mainly from:
A – December to April and are called cyclones
B – May to November and are called cyclones
C – May to November and are called hurricanes
D – December to April and are called typhoons
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
9411
...
Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm?
A – Anywhere in the eye
B – In the wall of clouds around the eye
C – In the centre of the eye
D – About 600 km away from the eye
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

050-08

CLIMATOLOGY
050-08-01 Climatic zones

9468
...
What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the
equatorial region?
A – Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain
occurs also
...
The frequency is the
same throughout the year
C – Rain showers, hail showers and thunder storms occur the whole year, but
frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and OctoberNovember
D – Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest
in January
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
10312
...
Considering the North Atlantic area north of 60oN during winter, the mean
height of the tropopause is approximately:
A – 37000 ft
B – 56000 ft
C – 29000 ft
D – 20000 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
24258
...
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30oN and 65oN, the mean
position of the polar front during summer extends from:
A – Florida to SW England
B – Newfoundland to N Scotland
C – NE Canada to Iceland
D – Greenland to Spain
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

050-08-02 Tropical climatology
9435
...
Which one of the following statements regarding the inter-tropical convergence
zone (ITCZ) is correct?
A – The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year
B – Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ
C – The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream
D – Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area
of the ITCZ
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
9457
...
Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
A – SE trade winds and NE trade winds
B – SW monsoon and NW monsoon
C – SW monsoon and NW trade winds
D – NW monsoon and SW trade winds
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

9470
...
Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced by the:
A – SW monsoon
B – NE monsoon
C – NW monsoon
D – SE monsoon
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
9479
...
An easterly wave is a:
A – wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe
convective activity in rear of its trough
B – wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east
to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
C – small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west,
with severe convective activity ahead of its trough
D – disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet,
moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its
trough
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
9484
...
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of
the ITCZ in the region of West Africa?
A – It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5oS in January
B – It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15o – 20oN in July
C – It oscillates during the year between 10oN and 10oS
D – It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10oN
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

9490
...
Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the
A – NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ
B – SW monsoon
C – passage of frontal system generated in the south Indian ocean
D – high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the Persian Gulf
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
9523
...
During July flights from Bangkok (13oN – 100oE) to Karachi (25oN – 67oE)
experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt
...
What is
the reason for this difference?
A – The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream
B – The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual,
favourable conditions
C – The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse
conditions
D – The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional
wind system
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

10299
...
Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be
encountered?
A – At the latitudes of Algeria
B – Near the Canary Islands
C – At the latitudes of Gibraltar
D – In the vicinity of Dakar
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
10302
...
When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?
A – March to May and October to November
B – December to February and July to October
C – March to May and August to October
D – April to July and December to February
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

10316
...
What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?
A – Fog
B – Stratus clouds and drizzle
C – Sandstorms
D – Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
10333
...
Which of the following best describes the inter-tropical convergence zone?
A – The zone where the Harmattan meets the north easterly trade winds over
Africa
B – The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of
the southern hemisphere
C – The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics
D – The zone where the west winds meet the sub-tropical high pressure belt
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

10337
...
(Refer to figure 050-48)
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade
winds are applicable to zone:
A–U
B–T
C–V
D–W
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
16333
...
Which of the following statements concerning the ITCZ is correct?
A – In the southern summer it is normally positioned entirely south of the
equator
B – Its furthest displacement from the equator is normally about 45oS
C – It is normally fed with converging northern and southern trade winds
D – Its associated weather is invariably strong convergence and heavy
cumuliform cloud
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

16336
...
(Refer to figure 050-61)
Considering the sector from 10oN to Nairobi of the route indicated, during
January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be:
A – westerlies in excess of 60 kt
B – easterly jet streams in excess of 70 kt
C – light easterlies
D – westerlies at 40 kt
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
24133
...
(Refer to figure 050-19)
Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30oE to 50oE, the upper
winds in January above FL 300 are most likely to be:
A – a sub-tropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
B – a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
C – variable in direction and less than 30 kt
D – light easterlies
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

24135
...
(Refer to figure 050-20)
The typical weather conditions affecting the Darwin area during July are:
A – NE monsoon – continuous heavy rain but little thunder storm activity
B – dry season – mainly SE winds – visibility reduced by dust and haze
C – NW monsoon – very wet – proximity of the inter-tropical convergence
zone causes widespread thunderstorm activity
D – mainly clear skies – advection fog drifting inland with the typical NE
wind
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
24265
...
Which of the following
reports is most likely?
A – 25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT015 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1006 NOSIG =
B – 05013KT 3500 MIFG SCT003 BKN005 19/14 Q1012 BECMG 8000 =
C – 02005KT CAVOK 24/09 Q1030 NOSIG =
D – 30012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT200 20/16 Q1025 BECMG 4000 BR =
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

24310
...
Over which areas can tropical cyclones occur?
A – Australia, Gulf of Bengal, Atlantic Ocean at 20oS
B – India, Arabic Sea, Atlantic Ocean at 2oS
C – Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Bengal, Indian Ocean East of Madagascar
D – Caribbean Sea, Indian Ocean at 20oS, Pacific Ocean at 2oN
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
24404
...
A cold pool:
A – normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
B – develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime
arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an
extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems
C – is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the
middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
D – occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is
under the influence of cold north westerly air stream
Ref: all
Ans: C
9458
...
(Refer to figure 050-07)
Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart? (spacing of the
isobars: 5 hPa)
A – Uniform pressure pattern
B – Cutting wind
C – West wind condition
D – Warm south and condition (Foehn)
Ref: all
Ans: A

10289
...
With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the
indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over
a period of about ten minutes?
A – Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small
B – Increase rapidly
C – Show strong fluctuations
D – Decrease rapidly
Ref: all
Ans: A
10319
...
Which of the following statements is correct?
A – In winter the Savannah climatic region is governed by the equatorial rains
B – Trade wind seldom extend much above 5000 feet
C – The outflow of air from the Siberian high over northern China and Japan
is initially north westerly
D – The easterly jet stream normally appears at the 200 mb level
Ref: all
Ans: C

24102
...
In mid-latitudes, the tops of Cumulus are often limited by:
A – a radiation inversion
B – a layer of unstable air
C – a temperature inversion
D – the tropopause
Ref: all
Ans: C
24337
...
Which statement about hurricanes in the North Atlantic is correct?
A – Their eye can be well observed by weather satellite
B – They intensify after landfall
C – They move towards the equator
D – They move with a speed of at least 60 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A

050-08-04 Local seasonal weather and wind
9429
...
What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows
over a certain part of Europe?
A – Bora
B – Foehn
C – Mistral
D – Typhoon
Ref: all
Ans: C
9441
...
A dry sand and dust laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large
parts of North West Africa is known as a:
A – Scirocco
B – Harmattan
C – Pampero
D – Khamsin
Ref: all

Ans: B
9451
...
What are the characteristics of the Bora?
A – It is a warm and moist, south westerly wind experienced in the eastern
Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation
B – It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter fro a north westerly
direction in the Mediterranean
C – It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a table
and downwards to the Adriatic
D – It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that
often carries dust
Ref: all
Ans: C
9474
...
Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no
precipitation?
A – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south
B – The north side of the Alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north
C – Frontal zones
D – Occlusions
Ref: all
Ans: A
9495
...
The Foehn wind is a:
A – warm anabatic wind
B – cold fall wind
C – warm fall wind
D – cold anabatic wind
Ref: all
Ans: C
9524
...
What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern
Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
A – Mistral
B – Ghibli
C – Bora
D – Scirocco
Ref: all
Ans: C
9747
...
At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most
rapidly?
A – Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox
B – Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice
C – Spring Equinox and Summer Solstice
D – Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice
Ref: all
Ans: A
10301
...
(Refer to figure 050-56)
Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a:
A – warm southerly dust bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa
B – SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the
West African coast south of 15oN
C – NE wind affecting north west Africa during November to April reducing
visibility in rising dust
D – localised depression giving squally winds
Ref: all
Ans: C
10329
...
What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain
chains? In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly
wind depending on the weather situation
...
The Bora is a:
A – cold katabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
B – squally warm katabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
C – cold katabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
D – cold katabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
Ref: all
Ans: C
10336
...
8/8 stratus base 200 ft/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north
of France; the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt
...
(Refer to figure 050-60)
Considering the route indicated from Recife to Dakar the mean height of the
tropopause during January is approximately:
A – 56000 ft
B – 43000 ft
C – 36000 ft
D – 29000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: A

24103
...
At which height and at what time of the year can an aircraft be affected by the
equatorial jet stream?
A – FL 500 from June to August
B – FL 500 from November to February
C – FL 400 during the winter in the northern hemisphere
D – FL 400 during the winter in the southern hemisphere
Ref: all
Ans: A
24259
...
For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front will
usually be indicated by:
A – a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind backing and
decreasing
B – rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and
decreases
C – rapid improvement in visibility, pressure falling rapidly, wind veering and
increasing
D – rise in temperature, rapid rise in pressure, wind backs and becomes gusty
Ref: all
Ans: B
24271
...
In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated
with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located
A – below the tropopause at about 300 hPa
B – above the tropopause at about 100 hPa
C – below the tropopause at about 200 hPa
D – above the tropopause at about 250 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
24311
...
The air masses that are observed most frequently over western Europe are:
A – polar air and equatorial air
B – arctic air and polar air
C – polar air and tropical air
D – arctic air and tropical air
Ref: all
Ans: C
24327
...
The easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs:
A – only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx 30000 ft
B – only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx
...
The Foehn wind is a:
A – cold katabatic wind
B – warm katabatic wind
C – warm anabatic wind
D – cold anabatic wind
Ref: all
Ans: B

24344
...
The SW monsoon starts in the month of:
A – December in southern India to reach Pakistan in May
B – September in Pakistan to reach southern India in November
C – June in southern India to reach Pakistan in July
D – March in southern India to reach Pakistan end of April
Ref: all
Ans: C
24359
...
What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco?
A – Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the Alps
B – High pressure area over Italy
C – Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean
D – High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean Sea
Ref: all
Ans: C

24393
...
When and where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered?
A – Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high
B – In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean
C – In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the
Mediterranean to southern Spain
D – In summer from south east Asia extending over southern India to central
Africa
Ref: all
Ans: D
24426
...
The latitude of the axis of greatest seasonal wind speed is
further south in winter than in summer
B – The average westerly component remains the same but the axis of greatest
speeds moves south in winter
C – The average westerly component remains the same but the altitude of
greatest wind speed reduces in winter
D – The average westerly component is greater in the summer than in the
winter
...
Which statement concerning the Sirocco is correct?
A – It is a north easterly wind over the western part of North Africa with much
dust and sand
B – It blows from southerly directions and can carry dust and sand which may
reach Europe
C – The carried dust and sand does not reach great heights
...
Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere?
A – The jet streams are easterly
B – In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height
C – The wind veers at the passage of a cold front
D – If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected
Ref: all
Ans: B
24449
...
Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe?
A – Tropical air
B – Arctic air
C – Polar air
D – Equatorial air
Ref: all
Ans: D

25621
...
Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling
low pressure systems during summer?
A – 45o – 75o
B – 35o – 45o
C – 15o – 25o
D – 10o – 15o
Ref: all
Ans: A
25635
...
Large super cooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane form:
A – rime ice
B – clear ice
C – hoar frost
D – cloudy ice
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: B
9537
...
You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud
...
Which of the following statements is true?
A – If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as
CB is unlikely to form in such cloud
B – Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions
C – Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
D – In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air
temperature of -5oC
Ref: all
Ans: C

9548
...
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
A – NS
B – AS
C – SC
D – CS
Ref: all
Ans: D
9570
...
The freezing level
Is at 3000 ft/AGL
...
According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an
inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front
...
flights clear of cloud experience no icing
D – No
...
Which of the following conditions is mot likely to cause airframe icing?
A – PE
B – GR
C – SHSN
D - +FZRA
Ref: all
Ans: D

9595
...
While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a
white and rough powder like contamination is detected along the leading edge
of the wing
...
In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?
A – Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero
degrees C
B – Flying in dense cirrus clouds
C – Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer
D – Flying in heavy drizzle
Ref: all
Ans: A
9612
...
Hoar frost is most likely to form when:
A – flying inside convective clouds
B – taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion
C – flying inside stratiform clouds
D – flying in super cooled drizzle
Ref: all
Ans: B
9616
...
Freezing fog exists if fog droplets:
A – are frozen
B – are super cooled
C – are freezing very rapidly
D – freeze when temperature falls below zero
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: B
9621
...
The
cloud consists of small super cooled droplets
...
A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and
temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
A – Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds
B – Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light
icing in clouds
C – A high probability for icing in clouds
...
Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate
icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of super cooled
cloud droplets?
A – Stratocumulus and cirrostratus
B – Altocumulus and altostratus
C – Stratus and cumulonimbus
D – Altostratus and cirrocumulus
Ref: all
Ans: B
10341
...
Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:
A – water vapour
B – large super cooled water drops
C – small super cooled water drops
D – snow
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: B

10353
...
The most dangerous form of airframe icing is:
A – rime ice
B – hoar frost
C – dry ice
D – clear ice
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D
10368
...
At what degree of icing should ICAOs change of course and/or altitude
desirable recommendation be followed:
A – Light
B – Moderate
C – Severe
D – Extreme
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: B

10376
...
At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing,
in cloud, greatest?
A – FL 80
B – FL 150
C – FL 180
D – FL 220
Ref: all
Ans: B
10377
...
Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of:
A – water vapour
B – large super cooled water drops
C – small super cooled water drops
D – snow
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: C
10379
...
Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to
occur in a CB?
A – Close to the freezing level
B – Between -20oC and -30oC
C – Between -2oC and -15oC
D – Between -30oC and -40oC
Ref: all
Ans: C
10391
...
The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large super cooled drops
that have a temperature of -5oC is most likely to be:
A – clear ice
B – hoar frost
C – rime ice
D – cloudy ice
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A
10430
...
Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:
A – water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
B – freezing rain striking the aircraft
C – droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
D – small super cooled droplets striking the aircraft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A
10442
...
Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe
airframe icing?
A – It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus
formation
B – It always occurs in altostratus cloud
C – It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will occur in clear sky conditions
Ref: all
Ans: C
15873
...
A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when
the temperature profile:
A – coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – indicates temperatures below -40oC
C – indicates temperatures above 3oC
D – intersects the 0oC isotherm twice
Ref: all
Ans: D
16327
...
Which one of the following statements concerning icing in freezing rain is
correct?
A – A coating of clear ice forms when water vapour sublimates
B – Rime ice forms when large water drops freeze
C – Clear ice forms when large water drops freeze
D – Hoar frost form when small water droplets freeze
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: C
16442
...
Icing on the wings of an aircraft normally causes:
A – the stalling speed to increase
B – the stalling speed to decrease
C – the interference drag to increase
D – the interference drag to decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A
16444
...
Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?
A – Snowfall
B – Mixed rain and snow
C – Freezing rain
D – Ice pellets
Ref: all
Ans: C
24226
...
What type of icing will you encounter?
A – Hoar frost
B – Rime ice
C – Clear ice
D – Smooth icing
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A

24234
...

At what levels is the probability for airframe icing the highest?
A – Between FL 120 and FL 60
B – Between FL 120 and FL 180
C – Between FL 60 and Fl 20
D – At FL 140
Ref: all
Ans: A
24235
...
The type of icing it will most likely encounter is
A – granular frost
B – hoar frost
C – rime ice
D – clear ice
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: D
24267
...
Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures:
A – between 0oC and -17oC in ST
B – between 0oC and -17oC in AS
C – between 0oC and -23oC in large CU
D – below -40oC in CB
Ref: all
Ans: C

24286
...
In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how
would it normally appear?
A – Cumuliform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -20oC
and 25oC
...
Appears granular and tends to accumulate forward into the air
stream
C – Cumuliform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures between 0oC and –
15oC
...

Appears opaque and builds forward from leading surface into a sharp edge
Ref: all
Ans: C
24334
...
The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in:
A – icy clouds at high levels
B – super cooled precipitation
C – unstable clouds at medium levels
D – zones where the air temperature is below -15oC
Ref: all
Ans: B
24360
...
Stratiform clouds at temperatures of -10oC to
-20oC are most conducive to its formation
B – Opague rough appearance, tending to spread back over an aircraft surface
...
Most common in cumuliform clouds at temperatures of -20oC to –
25oC
D – Transparent appearance and tendency to take the shape of the surface on
which it freezes
...
What intensity and type of aircraft icing is likely to occur at FL 100 in a
thunderstorm, with the freezing level at 7000 ft?
A – Moderate to severe icing due to clear ice
B – Light icing due to rime ice
C – Moderate to severe icing due to rime ice
D – Light icing due to clear ice
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: A

24365
...
What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying
at FL 170 in AS with the outside air temperature at -20oC?
A – Moderate – hoar frost
B – Severe – clear
C – Light – rime
D – Moderate – clear
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: C
24428
...
Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe
airframe icing?
A – It will not occur in clear sky conditions
B – It always occurs in altostratus cloud
C – It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will occur in the anvil part of the cumulonimbus cloud
Ref: all
Ans: A

25633
...
What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
A – Decrease of speed
B – Change of course
C – Increase of speed
D – Change of flight level
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
9625
...
In spite of
moderate gust you decide to continue the flight
...
The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of
the type Clear Air Turbulence
...
The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even
impossible
...
The passengers will feel some discomfort
C – The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing board
(small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity,
but will make flight a little more difficult
...
How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
A – Large, abrupt changes in altitude or altitude occur but the aircraft may
only be out of control momentarily
B – Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without
appreciable changes in altitude or attitude
C – Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive
control at all times
D – Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage
Ref: all
Ans: C
10384
...
An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270
and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence
...
The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by:
A – Climbing
B – Descending
C – Turning right
D – Maintain FL 270
Ref: all
Ans: B
15795
...
All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it
...
Unsecured objects are dislodged
...
This intensity of CAT should be
reported as:
A – severe
B – extreme
C – moderate
D – light
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C

16324
...
Possible severe turbulence will be encountered in mountain waves in:
A – roll cloud
B – lenticular cloud
C – at the crest of the mountain
D – on the windward side
Ref: all
Ans: A
16608
...
(Refer to figure 050-70)
Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC
...
(Refer to figure 050-73)
On which of the following routes would you not have to worry about oderate
and/or severe turbulence on the cruising level?
A – Keflavik to Oxlo at FL 220
B – Rome to Frankfurt at FL 320
C – Beirut to Athens at FL 310
D – Madrid to Zurich at FL 280
Ref: all
Ans: A
24212
...
In which zone of a polar front jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?
A – Exactly in the centre of the core
B – On the tropical air side of the core
C – On the polar air side of the core
D – About 12000 ft above the core
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
24318
...
The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet
stream is:
A – well below the core
B – close to the core on the side facing the polar air
C – on the tropical side of the core
D – 5000 feet or more above the core
Ref: all
Ans: B
24441
...
Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to:
A – experience little or no change in speed and direction
B – change in speed but not in direction
C – change in direction but not in speed
D – change significantly in speed and direction
Ref: all
Ans: D
9605
...
The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered:
A – when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
B – in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kts
C – during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
D – near valleys and at the windward side of mountains
Ref: all
Ans: A
10356
...

A – at the condensation level when there is a stong surface friction
B – at the condensation level when there is no night radiation
C – at the top of the friction layer
D – at he top of a marked surface-based inversion
Ref: all
Ans: D
10417
...
What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?
A – It results in good visual conditions
B – It promotes extensive vertical movement of air
C – It prevents vertical wind shear
D – It promotes vertical wind shear
Ref: all
Ans: D

16326
...
An additional hazard to aircraft taking-off or landing in or near a thunderstorm
is:
A – extra turbulence
B – wind shear
C – compass error
D – pilot disorientation
Ref: all
Ans: B
24139
...
In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most
likely to occur
A – on the tropical side of the core
B – well below the core
C – close to the core on the polar side
D – 5000 ft or more above the core
Ref: all
Ans: C

24405
...
Vertical wind shear is:
A – a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with height
B – a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distance
C – a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal
distance
D – a horizontal shear of vertical wind
Ref: all
Ans: A

050-09-04 Thunderstorms
9531
...
Where is a squall line to be expected?
A – At the surface position of a warm front
B – Behind a cold front
C – In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels
D – In front of an active cold front
Ref: all
Ans: D

9539
...
Which of the following statements describes a microburst?
A – A high speed down burst of air with a generally lower temperature than its
surroundings
B – A high speed down draft of air with a higher temperature than its
surroundings
C – An extremely strong wind gust associated with a troical revolving storm
D – A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
Ref: all
Ans: A
9554
...
A gust front is:
A – normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
B – formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
C – characterised by heavy lightning
D – another name for a cold front
Ref: all
Ans: B

9574
...
At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection
with a CB?
A – From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450
B – From the ground up to about FL 200
C – From the ground up to about FL 100
D – From the base of the clouds up to FL 200
Ref: all
Ans: A
9577
...
The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of:
A – 8 km and 5-15 minutes
B – 4 km and 30-40 minutes
C – 4 km and 1-5 minutes
D – 12 km and 5-10 minutes
Ref: all
Ans: C

9596
...
What are the meteorological pre-requisites, at low level, for thunderstorms
formed by lifting processes over land?
A – Low temperatures, low humidity
B – High air pressure (>1013 hPa), high temperatures
C – High temperatures, high humidity
D – Subsidence, inversion
Ref: all
Ans: C
9622
...
In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for
thunderstorm formation?
A – Stable conditions and high moisture content
B – Unstable conditions and high moisture content
C – Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
D – Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
Ref: all
Ans: B

10359
...
Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land
in moderate latitudes?
A – Occlusion thunderstorms
B – Warm front thunderstorms
C – Cold mass thunderstorms
D – Air mass thunderstorms
Ref: all
Ans: D
10381
...
Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at
least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult
...
But if it happens, the
result will be an occasional engine failure
...
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised
predominantly by down drafts?
A – Dissipating stage
B – Cumulus stage
C – Mature stage
D – Anvil stage
Ref: all
Ans: A
10394
...
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:
A – dissipating stage
B – cumulus stage
C – mature stage
D – period in which precipitation is not falling
Ref: all
Ans: C
10402
...
A microburst:
A – is always associated with thunderstorms
B – has a life time of more than 30 minutes
C – has a diameter up to 4 km
D- occurs only in tropical areas
Ref: all
Ans: C
10410
...
The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country
flight is:
A – cirrus
B – stratocumulus
C – cumulus
D – cumulonimbus
Ref: all
Ans: D
10425
...
Which thunderstorms generally product the most severe conditions, such as
heavy hail and destructive winds?
A – Warm front thunderstorms
B – Squall line thunderstorms
C – Nocturnal air mass thunderstorms
D – Daytime air mass thunderstorms
Ref: all
Ans: B
15817
...
What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A – A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
B – An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
C – Water vapour and high pressure
D – A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
Ref: all
Ans: B
15870
...
Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the:
A – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry
adiabatic lapse rate
B – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the
saturated adiabatic lapse rate
C – cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
adiabatic lapse rate
D – warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
adiabatic lapse rate
Ref: all
Ans: D
16359
...
Which of the following is consered to be one of the conditions necessary for
thunderstorm development?
A – A marked temperature inversion extending well above the 0 degree
isotherm
B – ELR less than the DALR extending well above the 0 degree isotherm
C – Instability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree
isotherm
D – Stability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0 degree
isotherm
Ref: all
Ans: C
16368
...
There are two principal types of origin of thunderstorm
A – Air mass thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms
B – Air mass thunderstorms and heat thunderstorms
C – Convection thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms
D – Convection thunderstorms and orographic uplift thunderstorms
Ref: all
Ans: A
16372
...
Frontal thunderstorms are triggered off by:
A – rising air dur to falling pressure at air mass boundaries
B – convection by intense daytime heating or cold air moving over a warm
surface
C – rising air due to falling pressure or due to orographic uplift
D – mass ascent over large areas of cold air moving over a warm surface
Ref: all
Ans: A
16374
...
The building stage of a thunderstorm last for approximately:
A – 20 min
B – 30 min
C – 20/
...
In the building stage of a thunderstorm, which of the following is true?
A – Only up-currents are present
B – Only down-currents are present
C – Both up-currents and down-currents are present
D – Up-currents and side-currents are present
Ref: all
Ans: A

16377
...
Which of the following statements is true with regard to a mature
thunderstorm:
A – both up-currents and down-currents appear concurrently
B – the cloud top assumes an anvil shape
C – water droplets, hail and snow are all present
D – the top of the cloud is negatively charged and the base is positively
charged
Ref: all
Ans: A
16379
...
The most common hazards of thunderstorms to aircraft on or near the ground
are:
A – lightning and hail
B – heavy precipitation and surfaces squalls
C – turbulence and static
D – all of the above
Ref: all
Ans: D

16383
...
Which thunderstorms are the more difficult to forecast and detect?
A – cumulus thunderstorms
B – air mass thunderstorms
C – frontal thunderstorms
D – cumulus thunderstorms because they are smaller
Ref: all
Ans: B
16385
...
(Refr to figure 050-72)
At which position is the development of thunderstorms most likely, and what
is the maximum height of the CB clouds at 00 UTC?
A – Position C, FL 200
B – Position A, FL 200
C – Position B, FL 270
D – Position D, FL 290
Ref: all
Ans: C

24207
...
Which statement is
correct?
A – The freezing level in the whole cloud lies lower than outside the cloud
B – In temperatures lower than -23oC icing is still possible
C – If hail occurs, it only occurs in down drafts
D – Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but hardly ever below the cloud
Ref: all
Ans: B
24215
...
Assuming that an initial “trigger” force is present, the conditions most likely
to result in the formation of thunderstorms are:
A – high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate
B – high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layer
C – rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals
D – intense surface heating, anti-cyclonic pressure system and relatively high
freezing level
Ref: all
Ans: B
24249
...
Convective weather phenomena include:
A – heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large
area
B – thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog
C – thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning
strikes
D – hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind
maximum
Ref: all
Ans: C
24299
...
Thunderstorms are often preceded by:
A – Altostratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altocumulus Castellanus
D – Altocumulus Lenticularis
Ref: all
Ans: C
24367
...
What is the approximate maximum diameter of a area affected by damaging
winds at the surface caused by a microburst?
A – 20 km
B – 400m
C – 4 km
D – 50 km
Ref: all
Ans: C
24421
...
Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy
thunderstorms?
A – A cold front approaching a mountain range in the evening
B – The passage of a warm front in the morning
C – A cold front on the leeward side of a mountain range
D – A warm sector moving over a snow-covered ground
Ref: all
Ans: A

24424
...
Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass
thunderstorms?
A – Advection of cold air over a warm sea
B – Mountain waves
C – Advection of warm air over a cold sea
D – Low level wind shear
Ref: all
Ans: A
24445
...
With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only
updraughts of air?
A – Anvil stage
B – Mature stage
C – Initial stage
D – Dissipating stage
Ref: all
Ans: C

050-09-05 Tornadoes
9544
...
At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
A – Spring, summer
B – Summer, autumn
C – Autumn, winter
D – Winter
Ref: all
Ans: A
10413
...
Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by:
A – terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night
B – an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the
atmosphere at lower levels
C – gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent
mixing at the lower levels
D – compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform
cloud
Ref: all

Ans: A
24321
...
You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alpa, on a hot summer day,
when the weather is unstable
...
Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stablelayer of
air is forced to rise against a mountain range?
A – Inversions
B – Stratified clouds
C – Showers and thunderstorms
D – Areas of severe turbulence
Ref: all
Ans: B

10398
...
What type and degree of icing is most
probable?
A – In clouds pushed up against he mountains, moderate to severe rime ice
B – In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice
C – Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice
D – Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost
Ref: all
Ans: B
15811
...
For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge
should:
A – decrease or even reverse direction
B – increase initially, then decrease
C – increase with little change in direction
D – increase and then reverse in direction
Ref: all
Ans: D

16337
...
Mountain waves should be expected:
A – when instability is high
B – on the downwind side of the mountain chain
C – directly over the mountain chain
D – on the upwind side of the mountain chain
Ref: all
Ans: B
24401
...
Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves?
A – The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain
waves
B – Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from
initiating high ground, regardless of the height of the ground
C – Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous
than flight with tailwind toward high ground
D – Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous
than flight with headwind toward high ground
Ref: all
Ans: C

24442
...
The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are:
A – wind direction parallel to the mountain range – wind speed increasing
with height – extensive isothermal layer between mountain crests and the
tropopause
B – wind diretion parallel to the general alignment of the mountain range –
wind speed increasing with height – intense surface heating
C – wind speed less than 15 kt and wind direction at right angles to mountains
– intense radiation cooling at night particularly at the higher levels
D – wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range – wind
speed 30 kt and steadily increasing with height – an inversion just above
the crest level with less stable air above and below
Ref: all
Ans: D

050-09-09 Visibility reducing phenomena
9558
...
Visibility is reduced by haze when:
A – a cold front just passed
B – a light drizzle falls
C – dust particles are trapped below an inversion
D – small water droplets are present
Ref: all
Ans: C
9600
...
Below a low level inversion visibility is often:
A – moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers
B – very good at night
C – very good in the early morning
D – moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange
Ref: all
Ans: D
10405
...
In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by:
A – low stratus
B – haze
C – drizzle
D – showers of rain or snow
Ref: all
Ans: D
16575
...
The forms of visible water which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are:
A – fog, spray, cloud and hail (but only for short periods)
B – cloud, fog, smog, spray or precipitation
C – cloud, fog, mist, spray or smog
D – cloud, fog, mist spray or precipitation
Ref: all
Ans: D
16577
...
In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation
is:
A – low and the precipitation is showers
B – good and the precipitation is steady rain
C – good and the precipitation is showers
D – low and the precipitation is steady rain
Ref: all
Ans: C
24361
...
When fog is reported, the visibility is below:
A – 0
...
5 km
D – 3 km
Ref: all
Ans: B
24402
...
What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used
for?
A – To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
B – To measure wind currents on the ground
C – To help provide 14-day forecasts
D – To locate precipitation zones
Ref: all
Ans: A
9663
...
Where is this instrument placed?
A – On the roof of the weather station
B – 1m above the runway
C – Close to the station about 2m above the ground
D – On a mast 6-10m above the runway
Ref: all
Ans: D
9685
...
What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met
...
vis
...
vis
...
vis
...
Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?
A – Hail
B – Water vapour
C – Fog
D – Any cloud
Ref: all
Ans: A
10464
...
An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location
of:
A – cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by
falls of hail
B – all clouds
C – zones of precipitation, particularly liquid state precipitation, and also their
intensity
D – stratocumulus and its vertical development
Ref: all
Ans: C

10558
...
Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the
braking action of a runway?
A – MIFG
B – FG
C – HZ
D - +FZRA
Ref: all
Ans: D
15818
...
(Refer to figure 050-85)
Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the
tropopause to be located?
A – FL 410
B – FL 360
C – FL 330
D – FL 390
Ref: all
Ans: B

15847
...
Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what
altitude will the freezinglevel above Shannon be found?
A – FL 20
B – FL 140
C – FL 120
D – FL 60
Ref: all
Ans: D
16548
...
Normally, temperature readings are taken at a height of ___ in a Stevenson
Screen:
A – 4 ft (1
...
A cup ___ and remote transmitting vane form the transmitting head of the
electrical ___ which enables a continuous record of wind direction and speed
to be made on a moving chart
...
The three elements in a cloud report are:
A – amount, cover, height of base
B – type, cover, amount
C – amount, type, height of base
D – type, amount, cloud species
Ref: all
Ans: C
16565
...
LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN 010 OVC015 TEMPO 1500 +
RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015
TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500
TSGR BKN007CB
What is the most likely visibility for landing at 1345Z?
A – 4,500m
B – 1,500m
C – 6,000m
D – 12,000m
Ref: all
Ans: A

16570
...
(Refer to figure 050-33)
For 1300 UTC select a METAR which you consider to be most appropriate to
position “T”:
A – 19010KT 6000 RA BKN016 OVC090 08/06 Q1004=
B – 24020KT 5000 RA BKN100 11/10 Q1002=
C – 18015KT 9999 SCT020 03/01 Q1000=
D – 27030KT 8000 SCT020 07/03 Q1004=
Ref: all
Ans: A
24183
...
(Refer to figure 050-05)
Of the four radio surroundings, select the one that indicates low stratus:
A–3
B–1
C–2
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: A
24214
...
How is a ceiling defined?
A – Height above ground or water of the highest layer of cloud or obscuring
phenomena aloft that covers 4 oktas or more of the sky
B – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud independent on
the amount of clouds
C – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud that contributes
to the overall overcast
D – Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000 ft
covering more than half of the sky
Ref: all
Ans: D
24281
...
In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010 MPS
...
In the METAR code the abbreviation VC indicates:
A – volcanic ash
B – present weather within the approach area
C – present weather within a range of 8 km, but not at the airport
D – present weather at the airport
Ref: all
Ans: C
24293
...
The temperature at the surface is given as +15oC and at 4000 ft it is +9oC the
state of this layer is said to be:
A – absolutely unstable
B – conditionally unstable
C – stable
D – unstable
Ref: all
Ans: C

24356
...
What does the code R24R/P1500 mean?
A – Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24 right, useable runway length
1500 metres
B – RVR RWY 24 right below 1500 metres
C – RVR RWY 24 right above 1500 metres
D – RVR RWY 24 right 1500 metres
Ref: all
Ans: C
24374
...
What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500
UTC?
KCHS 280430Z 280606 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40
SHRA BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416
VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030
BECMG
A – 3000 feet
B – 1000 feet
C – 1300 feet
D – 1500 feet
Ref: all
Ans: B
24379
...
What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC?
LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO
1215 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT
4000 RA OVC010=
A – 10 km
B – 6 NM
C – 4 km
D – 6 km
Ref: all
Ans: D

24394
...
Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance
with the regulations, abbreviated to “CAVOK”?
(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 ft, LSZH 8000 ft, LSGG
12000 ft, LFSB 6000 ft)
A – LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000
TSRA=
B – LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 KBN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000
BR=
C – LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG=
D – LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG=
Ref: all
Ans: B
24427
...

Intensity increasing
...
Intensity increasing
...
Pilots
advised to cross this area above FL 380
D – Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be
expected north of the Alps
Ref: all
Ans: A

24435
...
While appreciating your destination aerodrome you receive the following
message:
RVR runway 23: 400m
This information indicates the
A – portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways
would see, with runway 23 in service
B – visibility on runway 23
C – length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on
the threshold of runway 23
D – minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in
service
Ref: all
Ans: C
24453
...
(Refer to figure 050-04)
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog:
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all
Ans: B
25634
...
(Refer to figure 050-57)
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “A” is:
A – cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, heavy rain or snow showers, medium to
strong winds
B – clear skies, good visibility in light winds
C – mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus and drizzle, medium to
strong winds
D – radiation fog, low stratus, drizzle, no medium or upper cloud, light wind
Ref: all
Ans: C
2847
...
(Refer to figure 050-102)
On which route of flight would you expect no icing at FL 180?
A – Zurich-Hamburg
B – Zurich-Madrid
C – Hamburg-Stockholm
D – Zurich-Vienna
Ref: all
Ans: C
9640
...
(Refer to figure 050-98)
The warm sector is indicated by letter:
A–A
B–B
C–D
D–C
Ref: all
Ans: D
9649
...
(Refer to figure 050-45)
Which of the following best describes Zone B?
A – Col
B – Ridge of high pressure
C – Depression
D – Trough of low pressure
Ref: all
Ans: A
9680
...
What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?
A – Positions with the same air density
B – Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels
C – Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure
D – Positions with the same wind velocity
Ref: all
Ans: C
9713
...
(Refer to figure 050-45)
Which of the following best describes Zone C?
A – Ridge of high pressure
B – Col
C – Trough of low pressure
D – Depression
Ref: all
Ans: A
10449
...
If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and
temperature charts would be nearest your flight level?
A – 300 hPa
B – 500 hPa
C – 850 hPa
D – 700 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: B
10472
...
(Refer to figure 050-06)
What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?
A – The centre of a tropopause high, where the tropopause is at FL 400
B – The centre of a high pressure area at 400 hPa
C – The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400
D – The lower limit of the tropopause
Ref: all
Ans: A
10498
...
(Refer to figure 050-45)
Which of the following best describes Zone D?
A – Anti-cyclone
B – Ridge of high pressure
C – Depression
D – Trough of low pressure
Ref: all
Ans: C
10504
...
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL 390?
A – 700 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 200 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: D
10524
...
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL 100?
A – 850 hPa
B – 700 hPa
C – 500 hPa
D – 300 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: B
10535
...
In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions
found?
A – 300 hPa chart
B – 24 hour surface forecast
C – 500 hPa chart
D – Significant Weather Chart
Ref: all
Ans: D
10543
...
How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts?
A – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per
hour
B – The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots
C – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots
D – The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour
Ref: all
Ans: C
15788
...
(Refer to figure 2050-71)
You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam
...
(Refer to figure 050-100)
What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and Rome?
A – 020/50
B – 050/40
C – 200/40
D – 350/40
Ref: all
Ans: C
15834
...
Which of the following reports reflects weather development
at Zurich airport?
A – TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN01S TEMPO 1720 05018KT
0300 +SHSN W002=
B – TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023
22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015
C – TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201
32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB=
D – TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT
3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG W001=
Ref: all
Ans: D

15835
...
When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart
would be nearest your flight level?
A – 500 hPa
B – 300 hPa
C – 850 hPa
D – 700 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: C
15846
...
The 500 mb contour chart is equivalent to Flight Level:
A – FL 300
B – FL 90
C – FL 50
D – FL 180
Ref: all
Ans: D

16362
...
(Refer to figure 050-59)
Considering the North Atlantic route from the Azores to Bermuda, the mean
height of the tropical tropopause during summer is approximately:
A – 33,000 ft
B – 39,000 ft
C – 51,000 ft
D – 60,000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: C
24105
...
(Refer to figure 050-51)
The air mass affecting positon “A” is most likely to be:
A – Continental tropical
B – Maritime polar
C – Continental polar
D – Maritime tropical
Ref: all
Ans: B

24108
...
(Refer to figure 050-50)
The air mass affecting position “S” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime polar and unstable
B – Maritime tropical and stable
C – Maritime polar and stable
D – Continental tropical and unstable
Ref: all
Ans: B
24110
...
(Refer to figure 050-63)
The air mass affecting position “R” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime tropical
B – Maritime polar
C – Continental polar
D – Continental tropical
Ref: all
Ans: D

24112
...
(Refer to figure 050-65)
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “A” is:
A – advection fog
B – clear skies – radiation fog forming overnight
C – snow showers – gale force wind
D – continuous drizzle and hill fog
Ref: all
Ans: C
24117
...
(Refer to figue 050-50)
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “S” is:
A – increasing AS and NS with moderate to heavy rain
B – scattered thunderstorms and good visibility
C – overcast with drizzle and orographic fog
D – small amounts of CU with generally good visibility
Ref: all
Ans: C

24122
...
(Refer to figure 050-34)
For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, the
most likely weather conditions are:
A – showers of rain and hail
B – moderate continuous rain
C – low cloud, mist
D – scattered AC base 2000 ft, good visibility
Ref: all
Ans: C
24124
...
(Refer to figure 050-51)
The weather most likely to be experienced near to position “A” is:
A – overcast layer cloud – rain later
B – advection fog and drizzle
C – frequent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitation
D – clear skies – radiation fog at night
Ref: all
Ans: C
24126
...
(Refer to figure 050-53)
The weather most likely to be experienced at position “B” is:
A – mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus, drizzle
B – scattered stratocumulus with good visibility
C – frequent showers of rain or snow, good visibility outside showers
D – clear skies, moderate wind, good visibility
Ref: all
Ans: C
24128
...
(Refer to figure 050-55)
The pressure system at position “D” is a:
A – secondary low
B – col
C – trough of low pressure
D – ridge of high pressure
Ref: all
Ans: B
24136
...
(Refer to figure 050-18)
The dotted line labelled “Y” represents the:
A – axis of the sub-tropical jet stream during January
B – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during
January
C – mean position of the inter-tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July
D – axis of the equatorial jet stream during July
Ref: all
Ans: B
24138
...
(Refer to figure 050-58)
For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield which is not situation near
high ground, in the vicinity of the active front in square 3B, a potential hazard
exists in the form of:
A – radiation fog
B – low level wind shear
C – rotor streaming
D – clear air turbulence (CAT)
Ref: all
Ans: B
24141
...
(Refer to figure 050-24)
The air mass at position “X” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime polar
B – Maritime tropical
C – Continental polar
D – Continental tropical
Ref: all
Ans: B
24143
...
(Refer to figure 050-25)
The air mass affecting position “R” is most likely to be:
A – Maritime tropical
B – Continental polar
C – Continental tropical
D – Maritime polar
Ref: all
Ans: D
24145
...
(Refer to figure 050-27)
For an aircraft at FL 40, approaching the front (square 3C) from the direction
of square 3D a potential hazard exists before reaching the front in the form of:
A – clear ice accretion to the airframe
B – severe turbulence associated with CB
C – severe turbulence and wind shear
D – severe down drafts from subsiding air
Ref: all
Ans: A

24147
...
(Refer to figure 050-26)
When front “G” passes position “T” the surface wind should:
A – veer and decrease
B – veer and increase
C – back and increase
D – back and decrease
Ref: all
Ans: B
24149
...
(Refer to figure 050-29)
From indications shown on the chart, when front “S” passes position “V” the
urface wind should:
A – back and decrease
B – veer and increase
C – back and remain more or less at the same speed
D – veer and remain more or less at the same speed
Ref: all
Ans: D
24152
...
(Refer to figure 050-93)
The temperature deviation from ISA (to the nearest oC) overhead Charleston
t FL 340 is:
A - +3
B - +5
C - -5
D - -7
Ref: all
Ans: B
24154
...
(Refer to figure 050-85)
At 40oN 20oW, the forecast wind at FL 390 is:
A – 090o/45 kt
B – 060o/45 kt
C – 070o/30 kt
D – 270o/45 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A
24156
...
(Refer to figure 050-32)
The front labelled “E” is a:
A – cold front
B – warm front
C – warm occlusion
D – cold occlusion
Ref: all
Ans: A
24158
...
(Refer to figure 050-92)
What is the average wind forecast for FL 300 between Edinburgh and Madrid?
A – 180/20
B – 300/45
C – 240/25
D – 280/30
Ref: all
Ans: D
24161
...
(Refer to figure 050-94)
The average forecast wind for the leg from Madrid to Dhahran at FL 390 is:
A – 270/50
B – 270/30
C – 320/70
D – 310/50
Ref: all
Ans: A
24163
...
(Refer to figure 050-95)
Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP)
...
(Refer to figure 050-95)
Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP)
...
(Refer to figure 050-96)
The mean wind that may be expected to affect the route segment from the
coast of SE England to Geneva at FL 270 is:
A – 245/55
B – 240/90
C – 270/70
D – 220/70
Ref: all
Ans: D

24167
...
(Refer to figure 050-96)
At FL 300 between Geneva and Tunis, what mean wind would be most likely?
A – 245/50
B – 225/25
C – 265/40
D – 265/25
Ref: all
Ans: A
24169
...
The diagram
representing most accurately the wind direction and speed is:
A – 210o/30 kt (diagram B)
B – 030o/30 kt (diagram A)
C – 030o/30 kt (diagram C)
D – 210o/30 kt (diagram D)
Ref: all
Ans: B
24170
...
(Refer to figure 050-31)
On a Significant Weather Chart, hail is represented by symbol:
A–1
B–4
C–2
D–3
Ref: all
Ans: B
24174
...
(Refer to figure 050-105_B)
Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
A – Symbol 5
B – Symbol 3
C – Symbol 4
D – Symbol 2
Ref: all
Ans: A
24178
...
(Refer to figure 050-72)
At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over northern
Scandinavia?
A – FL 330
B – FL 280
C – FL 360
D – FL 300
Ref: all
Ans: B
24181
...
(Refer to figure 050-69)
The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be:
A - -57oC
B - -39oC
C - -33oC
D - -45oC
Ref: all
Ans: D
24185
...
(Refer to figure 050-78)
What is the speed of the front located over France?
A – 15 kt
B – 25 kt
C – 10 kt
D – 30 kt
Ref: all
Ans: A
24191
...
Which of the four
diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned?
A – Diagram 3
B – Diagram 4
C – Diagram 2
D – Diagram 1
Ref: all
Ans: B
24193
...
(Refer to figure 050-112)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying
according to instrument flight rules (IFR)?
A – Symbol 1
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 2
D – Symbol 3
Ref: all
Ans: C

24195
...
(Refer to figure 050-100)
Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt – Rome at FL
170:
A – 230/40
B – 200/50
C – 050/40
D – 030/35
Ref: all
Ans: A
24198
...
(Refer to figure 050-87)
Judging by the chart, what wind speeds can you expect at FL 310 above
London?
A – 90 kt
B – 300 kt
C – 140 kt
D – 100 km/h
Ref: all
Ans: A
24200
...
(Refer to figure 050-91)
On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 170?
A – Paris – Lisbon
B – Madrid – Vienna
C – London – Stockholm
D – Zurich – Athens
Ref: all
Ans: C

24202
...
Which of the
ollowing reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport?
A – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 23016KT 8000 –RA BKN030 OVC070
BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 1012 3000 +RA
BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090=
B – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 05014KT 5000 BR OVC015 BECMG 0810
8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025=
C – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO
1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT
3000 BCFG SCT100=
D – TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 VRB03KT 6000 SCT020 BECMG 0811
23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000
TSRA BKN020CB=
Ref: all
Ans: A
24203
...
(Refer to figue 050-85)
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 130 between 0600 and 0900
UTC, what can you expect at cruising level?
A – You will be out of clouds more of three quarters of your flight
B – A strong wind from the right with 90 kt at the crossing of the core of the
jet stream
C – You will arrive at your destination before you have to cross the warm
front
D – Moderate icing about half way along the route
Ref: all
Ans: D

24308
...
(Refer to figure 050-98)
A convergence line is indicated by:
A – Sector A
B – Sector B
C – Sector C
D – Sector D
Ref: all
Ans: A
25580
...
(Refer to figue 050-98)
Which of the following best describes Zone A?
A – Trough of low pressure
B – Cold Front
C – Ridge of high pressure
D – Depression
Ref: all
Ans: A

25582
...
(Refer to figure 050-45)
Which of the following best describes Zone C?
A – Ridge of high pressure
B – Cold Front
C – Trough of low pressure
D – Depression
Ref: all
Ans: A
25584
...
(Refer to figure 050-98)
What does zone A depict?
A – A trough
B – A ridge
C – The warm sector
D – The Cold Front
Ref: all
Ans: A

25586
...
(Refer to figure 050-11)
In which direction does the polar front move in this picture?
A–1
B–2
C–3
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: C
25588
...
(Refer to figure 050-36)
Which airport has the biggest probability for rain at 1200 UTC?
A – LIRF
B – LEMD
C – LFPO
D – LOWW
Ref: all
Ans: C

25595
...
(Refer to figure 050-42)
What does this picture depict?
A – A high pressure area over France
B – A westerly wave over Central Europe
C – South foehn
D – North foehn
Ref: all
Ans: B
25598
...
(Refer to figure 050-100)
Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the
freezing level above Tunis be found?
A – FL 100
B – FL 20
C – FL 180
D – FL 260
Ref: all
Ans: A

25601
...
(Refer to figure 050-107)
What is the average temperature for the route Geneva-Stockholm, FL 260?
A - -55oC
B - -51oC
C - -63oC
D - -47oC
Ref: all
Ans: D
25603
...
(Refer to figure 050-84)
On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of
the chart?
A – Hamburg – Oslo
B – Rome – Frankfurt
C – Tunis – Rome
D – Copenhagen – Helsinki
Ref: all
Ans: A

25605
...
(Refer to figure 050-108)
On which of these routes would you not have to worry about turbulence at FL
240?
A – Rome – Berlin
B – Zurich – Rome
C – Zurich – Athens
D – Shannon – Hamburg
Ref: all
Ans: D
25607
...
Which of the following flight
levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
A – FL 260
B – FL 320
C – FL 180
D – FL 140
Ref: all
Ans: A

25608
...
(Refer to figure 050-109)
State the temperature deviation to ISA over Copenhagen at FL 140:
A – 8oC colder than ISA
B – 4oC warmer than ISA
C – 8oC warmer than ISA
D – 12oC colder than ISA
Ref: all
Ans: A
25610
...
Which of the following symbols represents a thunderstorm?
A – Symbol 3
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 9
D – Symbol 1
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

25612
...
(Refer to figure 050-69)
Over Paris at what flight level would you expect to find the tropopause
according to the map?
A – FL 300
B – FL 330
C – FL 150
D – FL 280
Ref: all
Ans: A
25614
...
(Refer to figure 050-70)
Over Paris at what flight level would you expect to find the tropopause
according to the map?
A – FL 330
B – FL 310
C – FL 300
D – FL 280
Ref: all
Ans: C

25616
...
(Refer to figure 050-110)
Which of the following best describes Zone A?
A – Ridge of high pressure
B – Trough of low pressure
C – Depression
D – Col
Ref: all
Ans: B
25618
...
(Refer to figure 050-104)
What pressure does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour?
A – Rising pressure
B – Falling pressure
C – A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop
D – No substantial pressure change
Ref: all
Ans: B

25620
...
(Refer to figue 050-105_B)
Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
A – Symbol 3
B – Symbol 4
C – Symbol 5
D – Symbol 6
Ref: all
Ans: C
25624
...
What amount and type of cloud is forecast for the
eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL 220?
A – Individual cumulonimbus
B – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
C – Scattered towering cumulus
D – Scattered castellanus
Ref: all
Ans: A
25625
...
(Refer to figure 050-13)
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper leel contour chart
...
2 hPa
...
(Refer to figure 050-46)
Which airport is most likely to have radiation fog in the coming night?
A – ESSA
B – ENGM
C – EKCH
D – LSZH
Ref: all
Ans: d
25629
...
Runway visual range can be reported in:
A – a TAF
B – a METAR
C – a SIGMET
D – both a TA and a METAR
Ref: all

Ans: B
9632
...
When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor?
A – When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
B – When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
C – With gusts of at least 25 knots
D – With gusts of at least 35 knots
Ref: all
Ans: A
9637
...
The follwing weather report EDDM 241332 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004
BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is
a:
A – METAR
B – 24 hour TAF
C – SPECI
D – 9 hour TAF
Ref: all
Ans: D

9642
...
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the
time they are observed?
A – TS
B – SA
C – DZ
D – SQ
Ref: all
Ans: C
9646
...
In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formatin in
the coming night the highest?
A – 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR=
B – 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG=
C – 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG=
D – 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO
1500=
Ref: all
Ans: A

9651
...
Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for
Ajaccio and Calvi for 16:00 UTC: Ajaccio: wind 360o/2 kt, visibility 2000m,
rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 ft, OVC altostratus at 8000 ft, QNH 1023
hPa,Calvi: wind 040o/2 kt, visibility 3000m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 ft, SCT
stratocumulus at 2000 ft, OVC altostratus at 9000 ft, QNH 1023 hPa
...
What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN?
A – 6 – 8 oktas
B – 3 – 4 oktas
C – 5 – 7 oktas
D – 8 oktas
Ref: all
Ans: C

9661
...
What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
A – kt
B – kt/100 ft
C – m/100 ft
D – m/sec
Ref: all
Ans: B
9665
...
What does the abbreviation “NOSIG” mean?
A – No significant changes
B – No report received
C – No weather related problems
D – Not signed by the meteorologist
Ref: all
Ans: A
9667
...
A SPECI is:
A – an aviation routine weather report
B – an aviation selected special weather report
C – a warning for special weather phenomena
D – a forecast for special weather phenomena
Ref: all
Ans: B
9673
...
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC
...
How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two
upper air chart levels? (eg
...
(Refer to figure 050-86)
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what conditions can you
expect at cruising altitude?
A – Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
B – Individual cumulonimbus
C – Scattered towering cumulus
D – Scattered castellanus
Ref: all
Ans: B

9678
...
(Refer to figure 050-46)
Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens
Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC?
A – 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG W001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800=
B – 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 RA=
C – 21002KT 5000 HZ SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG=
D – 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG=
Ref: all
Ans: C
9683
...
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?
SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd t sobs and fcst in w part of athinai
fir/mov e/inst nc =
A – Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms
...

The thunderstorm zone is moving east
...
Given the following METAR:
EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002
OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG
A – Visibility is reduced by water droplets
B – There is a distinct change in RVR observed
C – Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
D – RVR on runway 26R is increasing
Ref: all
Ans: A
9691
...
ATIS information contains:
A – operational information and if necessary meteorological information
B – only meteorological information
C – meteorological and operations information
D – only operational information
Ref: all
Ans: C
9693
...
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK?
(MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT,
LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
A – LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG=
B – LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 –RA=
C – LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG=
D – LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG=
Ref: all
Ans: B
9696
...
In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?
A – Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome
B – Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome
C – Severe mountain waves
D – A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR
Ref: all
Ans: C
9704
...
(Refer to figure 050-36)
What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550
UTC?
A – 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG=
B – 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA=
C – 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009
BECMG NSW=
D – 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG=
Ref: all
Ans: B

9709
...
(Refer to figure 050-79)
Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at
FL 160?
A – Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layers
B – 4 oktas broken cumulus
C – Isolated cumulonimbus only
D – 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence
Ref: all
Ans: A
9714
...
(Refer to figure 050-71)
Flight Munich to London
...
What is a trend forecast?
A – An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
B – A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours
C – A route forecast valid for 24 hours
D – A routine report
Ref: all
Ans: B
9719
...
If CAVOK is reported then:
A – no low drifting snow is present
B – no clouds are present
C – low level windshear has not been reported
D – any CBs have a base above 5000 ft
Ref: all
Ans: A
9722
...
In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight
from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing
importance at the time:
EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn fir
blw ft 050 south of 53n wkn=
LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl
430 fcst limm fir stnr nc=
EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for London fir isol cb
embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn 52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb
ts also fcst move wkn=
Which decision is correct?
A – You show no further interest in these reports, since they do nt concern the
route to be flown
B – Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250
C – Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy
thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370)
D – You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions
along the route would demand too much of the passengers
Ref: all
Ans: B
10446
...
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC
...
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the
time they are observed?
A - +SHSN
B – VA
C – BR
D – MIFG
Ref: all
Ans: A
10454
...
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010
BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC
...
In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you
note:
TEMPO TS
What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone
instance?
A – 120 minutes
B – 60 minutes
C – 10 minutes
D – 20 minutes
Ref: all
Ans: B
10461
...
A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information
supplied in:
A – TAF and SIGMET
B – TAF and METAR
C – METAR and SIGMET
D – SWC and SIGMET
Ref: all
Ans: D
10470
...
5 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed
5 knots
Ref: all
Ans: D
10471
...
Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation VV001 mean?
A – RVR greater than 100m
B – RVR less than 100m
C – Vertical visibility 100 ft
D – Vertical visibility 100m
Ref: all
Ans: C
10479
...
(Refer to figure 050-108)
Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?
A – 340 kt
B – 145 kt
C – 95 kt
D – 140 km/h
Ref: all
Ans: B
10481
...
Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport:
FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA=
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC
...
SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to:
A – heavy aircraft only
B – light aircraft only
C – VFR operations only
D – all aircraft
Ref: all
Ans: D
10488
...
What is the consequence of
these reports?
A – The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
B – The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed
C – The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET
D – The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning
Ref: all
Ans: C

10490
...
What does the term TREND signify?
A – It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times
daily
B – It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at
half-hourly intervals
C – It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
D – It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
Ref: all
Ans: D
10492
...
The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above:
A – the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
B – mean sea level
C – the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
D – airfield level
Ref: all
Ans: D

10495
...
Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation PROB30 mean?
A – Probability of 30%
B – Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
C – The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 ft
D – Change expected in less than 30 minutes
Ref: all
Ans: A
10500
...
5 km but could be in excess of 10 km
B – a maximum of 5 km
C – a minimum of 1
...
On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and
distributed with intervals of:
A – 2 hours
B – 1 hour
C – 0
...
(Refer to figure 050-88)
Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter
moderate CAT at FL 300?
A – Zurich – Athens
B – London – Zurich
C – Zurich – Stockholm
D – Madrid – Bordeaux
Ref: all
Ans: A
10510
...
(Refer to figure 050-71)
If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 280, what conditions can
you expect at cruising altitude?
A – Out of cloud throughout the flight
B – Cloud most of the way; little chance of CAT
C – Scattered thunderstorms
D – Largely free of cloud; moderate turbulence half way along the route
Ref: all
Ans: D

10512
...
(Refer to figure 050-46)
Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming night?
A – ENFB
B – LSZH
C – EKCH
D – ESSA
Ref: all
Ans: B
10515
...
What does the term SIGMET signify?
A – A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
B – A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station
several times daily
C – A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
D – A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally
issued at half-hourly intervals
Ref: all
Ans: A

10521
...
(Reer to figure 050-109)
Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens – Geneva at FL
160:
A – 240/40
B – 210/25
C – 260/45
D – 050/35
Ref: all
Ans: A
10529
...
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the
next few hours?
A – 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000=
B – 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG=
C – 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000
D – 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG=
Ref: all
Ans: A
10536
...
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?
25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG
NSW=
A – Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18oC
B – Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1200 metres,
temperature 23oC
C – Broken, cloud base 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18oC
D – Wind 250o, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: A

10539
...
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR?
00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022
BECMG 0800=
A – Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar front,
RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres
B – Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres,
temperature -3oC, vertical visibility 100 metres
C – Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500
metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
D – RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm,
meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
Ref: all
Ans: D
10546
...
The wind directin in a METAR is measured relative to:
A – the 0-meridian
B – magnetic north
C – true north
D – grid north
Ref: all
Ans: C
10551
...
(Refer to figue 050-100)
What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt – Rome
route?
A – 10oC colder than ISA
B – 4oC warmer than ISA
C – 4oC colder than ISA
D – 10oC warmer than ISA
Ref: all
Ans: C
10553
...

What must you consider when making performance calculations?
A – Aquaplaning conditions
B – The braking action will be medium to good
C – The runway will be wet
D – The friction co-efficient is 0
...
Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the BECMG data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
A – The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
B – A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC
C – Many short term changes in the original weather
D – Many long term changes in the original weather
Ref: all
Ans: A
10578
...
Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport
...
What type of precipitation is
forecast on the approach to Bordeaux?
A – Light drizzle and fog
B – Moderate snow showers
C – Heavy rain showers
D – Continuous moderate rain
Ref: all
Ans: C

15819
...
The validity of a TAF is:
A – between 6 and 9 hours
B – 9 hours from the time of issue
C – stated in the TAF
D – 2 hours
Ref: all
Ans: C
15856
...
A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27
...

The wind just above the inversion is 090/30
...
The heights of cloud bases in TAFs are reported as being:
A – AGL
B – AMSL
C – AAL
D – Pressure altitude
Ref: all
Ans: C
16551
...
(Refr to figure 050-115)
At Lyon (LFLY, N4545 E00500), at 1200 UTC, the sky is overcast with
Stratocumulus and Altostratus and it is raining
...
(Refer to figure 050-36)
At which airport, is the following weather development taking place?
TAF 060600Z 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200
BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA
SCT030 OVC050=
A – LFPO
B – EDDL
C – LOWW
D – LEMD
Ref: all
Ans: B
24187
...
Below is the forecast for the destination of a flight whose ETA is 2030 UTC
...
Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2123 0500 FG VV001
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
A – 500 m
B – 2000 m
C – Between 5000m and 2000m
D – Between 0m and 1000m
Ref: all
Ans: A
24316
...
TAF EHAM 142300Z 150009 33005KT 9999 SCT025 BKN100 BECMG
0002 27015KT 4500 –SN SCT008 OVC015 TEMPO 0206 0400 +SN VV002
BECMG 0406 01008KT 9999 NSW SCT030 TEMPO 0709 03015G25KT
1200 SNSH SCT006 SCT015CB=
What is the expected visibility at 0300 UTC?
A – 4500m
B – Between 400m and 10 km or more
C – Between 4500m and 10 km or moe
D – Between 400m and 4500 m
Ref: all
Ans: D

24323
...
5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
D – Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
Ref: all
Ans: C
24333
...
The TAF weather messages are:
A – airport forecasts
B – hourly or semi-hourly weather observations
C – special weather observations
D – landing forecasts of the “trend” type
Ref: all
Ans: A

24354
...
The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in
percentage, of phenomena described during a specific period
...
What does the code TAF AMD mean?
A – Revised TAF
B – No change compared with the previous TAF
C – Weather conditions expected to affect the safety of normal operations
D – Delayed issue of a TAF
Ref: all
Ans: A
24376
...
What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200
UTC)?
TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG
1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT
TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
A – 500 ft
B – 500 m
C – 1000 ft
D – 1000 m
Ref: all
Ans: A
24380
...
What is the lowest visibility forecast for approach into Geneva (ETA 1200
UTC)?
TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG
1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT
TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB=
A – 8 NM
B – 8 km
C – 6 NM
D – 10 km
Ref: all
Ans: B

24383
...
What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into
Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC?
TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CABOK BECMG 0103 7000
TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA=
A – 4000 yards
B – 10 km or more
C – 7 km
D – 4 km
Ref: all
Ans: D
24388
...
What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC?
EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG
1314 9000 SHRA OVC 015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600
TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122
CAVOK
A – 260o / 10 kt
B – Variable / 05 kt
C – Variable / 15 to 25 kt
D – Calm
Ref: all
Ans: A
24390
...
What type of meteorological hazard to safe flight is most likely to be
experienced during the final approach to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)?
TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG
1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT
TSRA
A – Anabatic winds
B – Roll cloud associated with standing waves
C – Radiation fog
D – Low level wind shear
Ref: all
Ans: D

24392
...
What visibility is most likely to be experienced during an approach into
Madrid at 2300 UTC?
TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000
SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40
TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008
A – 6000 metres
B – 8000 metres
C – 10 kilometres or more
D – Greater than 10 kilometres
Ref: all
Ans: C
24416
...
Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET?
A – Strong inversion
B – Heavy duststorm
C – Thick fog
D – Snow and ice on the runway
Ref: all
Ans: B
25577
...
(Refer to figure 050-36)
Which weather situation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC?
A – 23015KT 8000 SCT100 BKN200 21/07 Q1002 NOSIG=
B – 32002KT 3000 OBC006 16/12 Q1024 TEMPO 8000=
C – 28006KT 4000 =TSRA SCT012 BKN030CB 19/14 Q1022 BECMG
NSW=
D – 17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 12/10 Q0994 BECMG
8000=
Ref: all
Ans: D

25591
...
(Refer to figure 050-36)
On which airport do you expect the development of the following most likely
weather situation?
TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OCT 180 BECMG 1013 OVC090
TEMPO –RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020 OVC030 TEMPO
3000 +RA BKN012 OVC020
A – LFPO
B – EGLL
C – EDDL
D – LOWW
Ref: all
Ans: C
25593
...
(Refer to figure 050-46)
The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC
on May 23
...
(Refer to figure 050-44)
The attached chart shows isobars and fronts at 1200 UTC on October 10

---