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Copyright © 2008, New Age International (P) Ltd
...
, Publishers
All rights reserved
...
All inquiries should be
emailed to rights@newagepublishers
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...
B
...
SHIVANANDA

Principal
Al-Ameen College of Phar macy
Pharmacy
BANGALORE
For his Her culean effor ts in bringing
Herculean effor
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APTI to a high pedestal

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FOREWORD

Multiple choice questions (MCQs) test a candidates ability to apply his or her knowledge acquired during the
regular course of study
...
subjectiveness of the examiner associated with evaluation of essay type of answers is inherent in the evaluation
process & depends upon several variables such as hand writing, methods of presentation etc
...

I am of the opinion that for the examination system at the undergraduate level, the entire testing of theoretical
knowledge should be MCQ based since the evaluation can be computerized & human bias can be largely eliminated
...
A wide coverage of topics is given
...

PROF DR
...
S
...
V
...
In USMLE, GATE, AFMC,
AIIMS & other Medical, Paramedical entrance examinations for admissions to PG Programme, Microbiology is one of
the important component of the syllabus
...
A sound knowledge of Microbiology is essential for students of Medicine, Pharmacy, Dentistry &
Nursing for understanding the subject with logical reasoning
...
Thus the book can serve as a self assessment guide
...
A welcome trend in this direction is already discernible
Both the teachers & students of microbiology will find this book useful
...


G
...

•

Prof
...
B
...
Harish Padh
Director, Sri B
...
Patel PERD centre
Ahmedabad, Gujarat

•

Prof
...
Ajay K
...
R
...
E
...
K
...
Soumya Gupta, MD, Manager, New Age International (P) Limited, New Delhi,
for his encouragement and support
...
According to Pasteur statements which
one of the following is true
a
...
Fermentation is a aerobic process
c
...
Both a and b
2
...
These words are of
a
...
Pasteur

b
...
Jenner
d
...
The principle light- trapping pigment molecule in plants, Algae, and cyanobacteria
is
a
...
Porphyrin

b
...
Rhodapsin

4
...
The phenomenon is called as
a
...

c
...


Dissimilation
Immobilization
Decomposition
Neutralization

5
...

a
...
John Tyndall
c
...
Pasteur
6
...

b
...

d
...
The symptome “ general feeling of illness
and discomfort “ is called
a
...
Malaise
c
...
Arthritis
8
...

b
...

d
...
Who provide the evidence that bacteriophage nucleic acid but not protein enters the
host cell during infection
a
...

c
...


Alfred D
...

Alfred D
...

Alfred D
...

Alfred D
...


MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY
10
...
Xanthophyceae
c
...
Cyanophyceae
d
...
The first antibody to contact invading
microorganisms was
a
...
IgA

b
...
IgD

12
...

b
...

d
...
Pick out the vector using in human
Genome project
a
...

c
...


Phagemid vector
Yeast artificial chromosomes
Cosmid vectors
Yeast episomal plasmids

14
...

b
...

d
...
In a fluorescent microscope the objective
lens is made of
a
...
Polythene

b
...
None of these

16
...
Biological process b
...
Ultraviolet light
d
...
Which one of the following fungi is the
most serious threat in a bone marrow
transplant unit?
a
...
Aspergillus
c
...
Cryptococus
18
...
Neuberg chamber b
...
Mineral oil
d
...
The image obtained in a compound
microscope is
a
...
Real inverted

b
...
Virtual inverted

20
...
Ketolase
c
...
Zymase
d
...
Which type of spores are produced sexually?
a
...
Ascospores

b
...
None of these

22
...

b
...

d
...
Father of microbiology is
a
...
Lister
c
...
V
...
Robert Koch
24
...
Lwanowski
c
...
Lord Lister
d
...
Small pox vaccine was first discovered by
a
...
Lister

b
...
Edward Jenner

26
...
Pasteur
c
...
Darwin
d
...
Compound microscope was discovered by
a
...
Johnsen & Hans

b
...
None of these

28
...
Pasteur
c
...
Jenner
d
...
L
...
Disease that affects many people at
different countries is termed as
a
...
Epidemic

b
...
Endemic

!

HISTORY OF MICROBIOLOGY
30
...

b
...

d
...
In electron microscope, what material is
used as an objective lense?
a
...

c
...


Magnetic coils
Superfine glass
Aluminium foils
Electrons

Absence of locomotion
Absence of nuclear envelope
Absence of nuclear material
Absence of protein synthesis

33
...
Glyoxysomes
c
...
Peroxisomes
d
...
Antiseptic methods were first introduced
by
a
...
Beijernick

b
...
Edward Jenner

35
...
Bacteria
c
...
Viroides
d
...
A mutation that produces termination
codon is
a
...

c
...


Mis-sense mutation
Neutral mutation
Non-sense mutation
Reverse mutation

37
...
Cell wall
c
...
Medium
d
...
Antiseptic surgery was discovered by
a
...
Pasteur

a
...

c
...


Water borne disease
Air borne disease
Food borne disease
Atthropod borne disease

40
...
Louis Pasteur
c
...
Alexander Fleming
d
...
Meosomes are also known as

32
...

b
...

d
...
Tuberculosis is a

b
...
Beijerink

a
...

c
...


Mitochondria
Endoplasmic reticulum
Plasmids
Chondroids

42
...

a
...

c
...


Kohler and Milstein
Robert Koch
‘D’ Herelle
Land Steiner

43
...
LD50
c
...
ID
d
...
In Electron Microscope source of electrons
is from
a
...
both a and b

b
...
None of these

45
...
H
...
Pneumococci

b
...
E
...
The resolution power of the compound
microscope is
a
...
2 micron
b
...
2 millimeter
c
...
2 Angstrom units d
...
2 centimeter
47
...
Pathogen
c
...
Virulence
d
...
Monoclonal antibodies are associated
with the name of
a
...
Medwar

c
...
Owen

49
...
Conjunction

b
...
Mutation

d
...
Hanging drop method for motility study
was first introduced by
a
...
Jenner

b
...
Leeuwenhock

51
...
100 X
c
...
2000 X
d
...
Term vaccine was coined by
a
...
Needham

b
...
None of these

53
...
Galileo
c
...
Antony von
d
...
First Pasteur conducted fermentation
experiments in
a
...
Fruit juices

b
...
Both a and c

55
...
Paul Ehrlich
c
...
Joseph Lister
d
...
The role of phagocytosis was discovered
by
a
...
Elie Metchikoff

b
...
Pasteur

57
...
Klein Berger
b
...
Robert Koch
d
...
The causative organism of rocky mountain
spotted fever was first described by
a
...
Both a and b

b
...
Robert Koch

59
...
De’Herelle
c
...
F
...
Twort
d
...
Viral infection of bacteria was discovered
by
a
...
Beijernick

b
...
W
...
Jwanoksy

61
...
1ìm
c
...
2ìm
d
...
Compound Microscope was discovered by
a
...
V
...
Pasteur
c
...
None of these
63
...
Prof
...
Knoll and Ruska

b
...
None of these

64
...
1000x – 5000x
c
...
1000x – 2000x
d
...
Condensation of light in light Microscope
is by
a
...
Ocular

b
...
All of these

66
...
Numerical aperture b
...
Both a and b
d
...
If 10x and 40x objectives are used (air is
the medium), the numerical aperture is
a
...
5
c
...
0

b
...
0
d
...
8

68
...

a
...
N
...


b
...
None of these

#

HISTORY OF MICROBIOLOGY
69
...
0
...
5 ìm

b
...
1 mm
d
...
Source of light in fluorescence microscopy
is from
a
...
Both a and b

b
...
None of these

71
...
Gabor
c
...
Broglie
d
...
The magnefication power of electron
microscope developed by Knell and
Ruska is
a
...
15,000x

b
...
20,000x

73
...
Mercury lamp
c
...
Tungsten metal
d
...
The electron passed out from the
specimen are called
a
...
Secondary electrons
c
...
None of these
75
...
Funk
c
...
Frank
d
...
The transfer of genetic material during
transformation is proved basing on
Griffith’s experiment by
a
...

c
...


Avery Macleod & Mc
...
Phagocytic theory was proposed by
a
...
Behring

b
...
Widal

78
...
Parter & Richet
c
...
Coombs
d
...
Primary mediators in anaphylaxis
a
...
Heparin

b
...
All of these

80
...
Marrice Arthus
c
...
Von Perquit
d
...
Serum sickness reaction was discovered
by
a
...
Richet

b
...
Porter

82
...
Kochler & Milston b
...
Both a and b
d
...
Disease that effects many people at
different countries is termed as
a
...
Epidemic

b
...
Endemic

84
...

b
...

d
...
If a person can be infected by direct
contact with infected tissue of another
person, it is termed as
a
...

c
...


Indirect contact transmission
Attachment
Direct contact transmission
None of these

86
...
Exaltation
c
...
Attenuation
d
...
Enhancement of virulence is known as
a
...
Both a and b

b
...
None of these

88
...
LD
c
...
MLD
d
...
The lethal dose required to kill 50% of the
lab animals tested under standard called
a
...
ID50

b
...
MLD

90
...
Adhesions
c
...
All of the above

b
...
Enzymes

91
...
Adhesion
c
...
Invasiveness
d
...
Which is the following enzyme acts as a
spreading factor?
a
...
Catalase

b
...
DNase

93
...
Koch
c
...
Metchnikoff
d
...
E
...
Louis Pasteur
c
...
Escherich
d
...
Mycobacterium tuberculosis was first
discovered by
a
...
Louis Pasteur

b
...
None of these

96
...
Robert Koch
c
...
Hansen
d
...
Streptococcus pneumoniae was isolated
by
a
...

c
...


Robert Koch
Edward Jenner
Antony von Leewenhock
Louis Pasteur

98
...
anthracis was isolated by
a
...

c
...


Louis Pasteur
Robert Koch
Antonyvon Leewenhok
None of these

99
...

b
...

d
...
Pseudomonas aeruginosa was first
named
a
...

c
...


Schroeter and Gessard
Robert Koch
Louis Pasteur
Edward Jenner

101
...
pallidum was discovered by
a
...

c
...


Robert Koch
Schaudinn and Hoffman
Louis Pasteur
Edward Jenner

102
...
Neisser in 1879
c
...
Pasteur in 1878
d
...
Rh factor of the blood was discovered by
scientist
a
...

c
...

e
...
Trepanema pallidum was discovered by
a
...

c
...

e
...
Fluroscent substance used in fluorescent
microscopy are
a
...
Auramine
c
...
None of these

%

HISTORY OF MICROBIOLOGY

ANSWERS
1
...
b
13
...
b
25
...
a
37
...
c
49
...
a
61
...
c
73
...
d
85
...
b
97
...
b

2
...
d
14
...
b
26
...
b
38
...
b
50
...
c
62
...
a
74
...
a
86
...
a
98
...
a

3
...
c
15
...
c
27
...
b
39
...
c
51
...
a
63
...
b
75
...
b
87
...
b
99
...
c

4
...
b
16
...
a
28
...
a
40
...
a
52
...
c
64
...
a
76
...
c
88
...
b
100
...
b
11
...
b
23
...
b
35
...
d
47
...
b
59
...
b
71
...
b
83
...
b
95
...
b

6
...
c
18
...
b
30
...
c
42
...
a
54
...
b
66
...
b
78
...
b
90
...
b
102
...
Cold like symptoms are caused by which
bacteria

7
...
DNA replication

a
...
Protein synthesis

b
...
coli

c
...
Haemophilus influenza

d
...
Haemophilus streptococcus
2
...
Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that
a
...
Have a rigid cell wall

a
...
Cell membrane

c
...
Cell wall

d
...
Stain well with Gram’s stain

3
...
The etiologic agent of botulism is a

a
...
Niagri bodies

a
...
Endotoxin

c
...
Neisser bodies

c
...
All of the above

4
...
Mumps

b
...
Polio

d
...
Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to
a
...
Proteolytic organisms

10
...
Lag phase

b
...
Stationary

d
...
Protein particles which can infect are
called

c
...
Virons

b
...
Saccharolytic microbes

c
...
None of these

6
...
In most of purple bacteria, the light
harvesting centers are

a
...
Klebsiella

a
...
B 850 & B 875

c
...
Serratia

c
...
B 850 & B830



MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

13
...
Peptidoglycan
c
...
Lippolysacharide
d
...
Which one of the following was Gramnegative, chemolithotrophic bacteria?
a
...
Spirellum

b
...
coli
d
...
The mode of reproduction which occurs
in mycoplasma is
a
...
Binary fission

b
...
Binary fusion

16
...

b
...

d
...
Which one of the following produce
typical fried egg appearance colonies on
solid media?
a
...
Mycoplasms

b
...
Bacteroides

18
...
Halophile
c
...
Basophile
d
...
A population of cells derived from a single
cell are called
a
...
Protoplasts

b
...
Sub culture

20
...

b
...

d
...
In which of the follwing microorganism,
conjunction tube was not produced
during conjunction process?
a
...
T
...
Tetrahymena thermophila
d
...
Which of the following is most similar to
Rickettsia and Chlamydia?
a
...
Clostridium

c
...
Mycoldaima

23
...
Gram staining
b
...
Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration
d
...
Which of the following is pathogenic to
humans?
a
...
Cephaleuros

c
...
Both b and c

25
...
Avirulent phases
b
...
Transgenic plants
d
...
The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are
a
...
Commensels

c
...
None of these

27
...
Cattle

b
...
Rats

d
...
The colonies produced by Pseudomonas
on Mac Conkey’s medium are
a
...
Pink colored

c
...
Green colored

29
...
Fast green

b
...
Crystal violet

d
...
The pigment present in red algae is
a
...
Fucoxanthin
c
...
Glycolysis

31
...
Telophase

b
...
Prophase

d
...
Which of the following change is a
transition?
b
...
None of these

33
...
Phytomonas
c
...
Salmonella
d
...
Bacteria that are responsible for
fermentation of dairy milk are
a
...
Lactobacillus

b
...
Electron Transport d
...
Chlorophyll + phycobilin

a
...
ATGC’!AGGC

39
...
Rhizobium
d
...
The fungal disease that affect the internal
organs and spread through the body are
called

40
...
Cell membrane

b
...
DNA

d
...
The bacterial pili mainly contain
a
...
Lipids

c
...
Minerals

42
...
Algae

b
...
Bacteria

d
...
Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is
a
...
Chemosynthesis
c
...
Assimilation of nitrogen compounds
44
...
Nucleoli are formed

a
...
Systemic mycoses

b
...
Mycotoxicosis

d
...
Chromatids are attached

36
...
Giemsa stain
b
...
Acid fast staining d
...
The orderly increase in all components
of protoplasm of a cell is called
a
...
Growth

b
...
All of the above

38
...
e
...
Gliding movement
b
...
Pseudopoidal movement
d
...
Naking occurs
45
...
Vertebrates

b
...
Fungi

d
...
Congential diseases are
a
...
Deficiency disease
c
...


Spread from one individual to another

47
...
Lyases

b
...
Polymerases

d
...
Meosomes are the part of
a
...
ER
c
...
Golgi
49
...
Mycoplasms
c
...
Sperochetes
d
...
Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall
a
...
Protease

b
...
Lysozyme

51
...

b
...

d
...
The nucleus controls protein synthesis in
the cytoplasm by sending
a
...
m RNA molecule

b
...
A pecialized protein

53
...
Micro body
c
...
Chromosome
d
...
Thylakoid is present in
a
...
ER

b
...
Golgi apparatus

55
...

b
...

d
...
Maximum application of animal cell
culture technology today is in the
production of
a
...
Vaccines

b
...
Edible proteins

57
...
Protein and DNA b
...
Protein and rRNA d
...
The potorespiration involves
a
...
Hatch-Slack cycle

c
...
Kreb’s cycle

59
...
Protozoa

b
...
Algae

d
...
Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are
called
a
...
Pascheur bodies
c
...
Guarnieri bodies

61
...
Vibrio

b
...
Torula

d
...
The major role of minor elements inside
living organisms is to act as
a
...
Building blocks of important amino acids
c
...
Binder of cell structure
63
...
Chemostat

b
...
Thermostat

d
...
The test used to detect the deamination
of the amino acids by bacteria
a
...
Proteolytic test
c
...
Rose aindole reagent test
65
...
Corynebacterium b
...
Streptococcus

d
...
Koplic spots observed in the mucous
membrane is characteristic feature of the
disease
a
...
Measles

c
...
Influenza

!

BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING
67
...
Lytic
c
...
Lysogen
d
...
The most infectious food borne disease is
a
...
Gas gangrene

b
...
Botulism

69
...
Influenza
c
...
Typhoid
d
...
Vrial genome can become integrated into
the bacterial genomes are known as
a
...
Bacteriophage

b
...
Metaphage

71
...

b
...

d
...
Virion means
a
...

c
...


Infectious virus particles
Non-infectious particles
Incomplete particles
Defective virus particles

73
...
Attenuation
c
...
A virulence
d
...
The test used for detection of typhoid fever
a
...
Rosewaller test

b
...
Westernblotting

75
...
Temperate
c
...
Avirulent
d
...
Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as
a
...
Kleb’s hofflers bacillus

c
...
Koch’s bacillus
77
...
Gram positive
c
...
Gram negative
d
...
In bacteria pigment bearing structures are
a
...
Protoplast

c
...
Chromatophores

79
...
A
...
Gram
c
...
C
...
H
...
Gram
d
...
A
...
Intermediate group of pathogen between
bacteria and viruses which are intracellular
parasites are called
a
...
Prions

b
...
Virusoides

81
...
Gram positive bacteria
b
...
Virus
d
...
Amoebic dysentery in humans is caused
by
a
...
Paramecium
c
...
Entamoeba histolytica
83
...
Prophage
c
...
Temperate phage
d
...
Cytochromes are
a
...
ATP acceptors
c
...
Protein acceptors
85
...
Hfr
c
...
F–
+
d
...
Recombination process occurring through
the mediation of phages is
a
...
Transformation

b
...
Transfection

87
...
Crystal violet
c
...
Iodine
d
...
Parasitic form must contain
a
...
Endospores

b
...
Flagella

89
...
Simple staining
b
...
Negative staining d
...
Following Cocci are non-motile except
a
...
Gonococcus

b
...
Rhodococcus agilis

91
...
Birds
c
...
Animals
d
...
Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning
is secreted by
a
...
Entamoeba histolytica
c
...
Straphylococci

b
...
Peroxisomes

94
...
Only grow anaerobically
b
...
Ordinarily an anaerobe but can grow with
O2
d
...
The percentage of O 2 required by
moderate anaerobe is
a
...
2 – 8%

b
...
5%
d
...
Interferon is formed by
a
...
Fibroblasts

a
...
Mitochondria

b
...
Chromophores

98
...
Gonococci
b
...
Treponema pallidum
d
...
Histones are found in
a
...
Eukaryotes

c
...
None of these

100
...
Thick
b
...
Teichoic acids are absent
d
...
Cytoplasmic streaming is present in
a
...
Eukaryotes

b
...
Both a and b

102
...
S
...
K
...
B
...
Shigella

103
...
Autolysis is done by
a
...
Golgi bodies

97
...
Lymphoblasts
d
...
Albert
b
...
Lactophenol cotton blue
d
...
Exotoxina are
a
...
Heat stable
c
...
Polymerized complexes
105
...
Bacterial viruses
c
...
Bacterial pathogens
d
...
The size of virus particle may range
a
...
02–0
...
0
...
2 ìm

b
...
5–10 ìm
d
...
1–100 ìm

#

BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING
107
...
Mitosis
c
...
Meiosis
d
...
Rod shaped bacteria are known as
a
...
Bacilli

b
...
Plemorphic froms

109
...
Mycobacteria
c
...
Mycoplasmas
d
...
Thickness of cell wall ranges from
a
...
10-25 nm

b
...
30-40 nm

111
...

b
...

d
...
Meosomes are
a
...

c
...


Kind of ribosomes
Formed during cell lysis
A part of cell wall
Principal sites of respiratory enzymes

113
...
Capsule
c
...
Cell wall
d
...
Bacterial capsule is chemically composed
of
a
...

c
...


Polypeptide
Polynucleotides
Polysaccharides
Polypeptides or polysaccharides

115
...
Mycoplasma
c
...
‘L’ form
d
...
Mesosomes are also known as
a
...
Golgi complex

b
...
Chondroids

117
...
Cell wall
c
...
Nucleus
d
...
Capsule formation occurs in the presence
of
a
...
Serum

b
...
Starch

119
...
Proteins and polysaccharides
b
...
Polysaccharide – Phospholipid – Protein
complexes
d
...
Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are
a
...
Lysosomes

b
...
Ribosomes

121
...
Fimbria
c
...
Flagella
d
...
Fimbriae are demonstrated by
a
...

c
...


Culture
Gram stain
Biochemical reactions
Haemaggulation test

123
...

b
...

d
...
Following cocci are non-motile except
a
...
Gonococcus

b
...
Rhodococcus agilis

125
...

b
...

d
...
Metachromatic granules can be stained
with

135
...
Saffranine

b
...
Allows the color

c
...
Pienic acie

b
...
Decolorises the cells

127
...
Spore formation

b
...
Conjugation

d
...
None of these
136
...
Gram negative bacteria

128
...
Weakly acid fast

b
...
Alcohol fast

d
...
Endospores can be stained with

b
...
Same in both
d
...
Cell-wall is

a
...
Crystal violet

a
...
Methylene blue

d
...
Thick in Gram negative than Gram positive

130
...
Pseudomonas pyocyaneus
b
...
Equal in both
d
...
The Lipid content present in Gram positive
bacterial cell-wall is

c
...
pneumoniae

a
...
1-5 %

d
...
2-8 %

d
...
The order of stains in Gram-staining
procedure is
a
...
Iodine solution, Crystal Violet, Saffranine,
Alcohol
c
...
Rickettsiae stained by this technique
responds as
a
...
Gram negative
c
...
None of these
140
...
Elementary bodies b
...
All of these
132
...
Complex structures d
...
Chlamydiae can be stained better with

a
...
90%

a
...
60%

d
...
Castaneda & Machiavello stains

133
...
Pink

b
...
both a & b

d
...
Gram negative bacteria appear as

c
...
Both b and c
142
...
Fresh water organisms
b
...
Pink

b
...
Fresh water weeds

c
...
None of these

d
...
The study of algae is known as
a
...
Phycology

c
...
Bacteriology

144
...
Phytoplankins

b
...
Sea weeds

d
...
Sexual reproduction of algae is carried by
a
...
Anisogamy

c
...
All the above

146
...
Isogamy

b
...
Oogamy

d
...
Alginic acids and its salts are obtained
from the wall of
a
...
Brown algae

c
...
Red and brown algae

148
...
Saphrophytes

b
...
Commensals

d
...
Most molds are capable of growing in
the temperature range between
a
...
10o – 25oC

b
...
10o – 35oC

150
...
Streptomyces
c
...
All of the above

b
...
Dermatophillia

151
...
Algae
c
...
Fungi
d
...
The Largest virus is
a
...
Rhabdo virus

b
...
None of these

153
...
Parvo virus
c
...
Rhabdo virus
d
...
The extra cellular infections virus particle
is called
a
...
Nucleocapsid

c
...
None of these

155
...
Brick shape
c
...
Bullet shape
d
...
If only one stain is used for staining a
specimen
a
...
Negative staining

c
...
None of these
157
...
Simple staining
b
...
Differential staining d
...
If more than one stain is used, such
staining is called
a
...
Negative staining
c
...
None of these
159
...
Kohler
c
...
Coons
d
...
By using fluorescence property fluorescent
antibody technique was developed by
a
...
Both and b

b
...
None of these

161
...
Positive staining
c
...
Negative staining
d
...
The inorganic forms of nitrogen, which
are accepted by bacteria are
a
...
Ammonium salts

b
...
All of these

163
...

b
...

d
...
Nitrite is converted into nitrate by the
bacteria
a
...
The algal part in Lichens

b
...
Nitrobacter

173
...
Azatobacter

b
...
Laustoria formation
d
...
Sulphur oxidizing bacteria is
a
...
Pseudomonas

c
...
Parasitic form must contain

d
...
Bacillus Schlegelli is
a
...
Sulphur – Oxydising bacteria

a
...
Endospores

175
...
of genes in the group of
same individuals is
a
...
Gene pool

c
...
Nitrite oxidizing bacteria

b
...
Heterotrophes

d
...
Majority of bacteria are
a
...
Symbionts

c
...
Parasites

169
...
Bacteria in symbiotic association
b
...
The groups participating in symbiotic
association
d
...
The best example for symbiotic association is
a
...
coli in intestine of man
b
...
Normal floraof skin
d
...
The enzymes responsible for decomposition is
a
...
Proteolytic

c
...
Both a and b

172
...
Micrococcus sps
...
Nitrosomonas sps
...
Proteus sps
...
Both a and c

b
...
None of these

176
...
The group of bacteria which deopends on
organic sources in nature for their energy
requirements
...
Chemotrophs

b
...
Flagella

a
...
λ –phage
177
...
Temperate phages
d
...
Virulent
c
...
A virulent
d
...
The bacterial cells participating in
conjugation are
a
...
Exconjugants

b
...
None of these

179
...
Monocytes
c
...
Macrophages
d
...
The microorganism engulfed by phagocyte resides in a vacuole is known as
a
...
both a and b

b
...
None of these

181
...

b
...

d
...
During destruction of antigen particle in
phagolysosome the product formed in
phagolysosome the product formed
during formulation is
a
...
Citric acid

b
...
None of these

'

BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING
183
...
Opsonisation
c
...
Aggulation
d
...
Attenuation means
a
...

c
...


185
...
Focal infection
b
...
Pyogenic infection d
...
Presence of viable bacteria in the blood
stream is called
b
...
Bactericidal

187
...
Viraemia
c
...
Bacteraemia
d
...
β-haemolytic bacteria is
a
...

c
...


Streptococcus pyogenes
Str
...
viridans
Str
...
The natural reservoir of infection for
cholera is
a
...
Man

b
...
None of these

191
...

b
...

d
...
1 – 3 months
c
...
3 – 6 months
d
...
Prophylaxis of cholera is
a
...

c
...


Protected water supply
Environmental sanitation
Immunisation with killed vaccines
All of these

195
...
dysenteriae is also known as
a
...

c
...


Sh
...
schmitzi
Both a and b
Sh
...
Acid fast bacteria are
a
...
Mycobacteria

b
...
All of the above

197
...
Opsonin is the
a
...

c
...


a
...

c
...


193
...
Viraemia
c
...
Vibrio cholera differs from vibrio eltor by

Poverty and insanitation
Mosquitoes
Toxin produced by pesticides
None of these

a
...

c
...


Gram’s staining
Simple staining
Both a and b
Ziehl – Neelsen’s staining

198
...

b
...

d
...
tuberculosis
M
...
avium

199
...

b
...

d
...
Streptococcus forms causes which type of
infections?
a
...
Pyogenic

b
...
None of these



MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

201
...
Protein M
c
...
Protein T
d
...
α-haemolytic streptococci are also known
as
a
...
pyogenes
c
...
Virulence group
d
...
Streptolysin O is inactivated by
a
...
Oxygen

b
...
Serum

204
...
Oxygen unstable b
...
Oxygen stable
d
...
Influenza virus is identified by using
a
...

c
...


Haemaggulutinin inhibition test
Tissue culture method
Embryonated eggs
Plaque formation

206
...
Cytopathic effects b
...
Both a and b
d
...
Glutamic acid is oxidized by the species
except
a
...
abortus
c
...
suis

b
...
melienasis
d
...
canis

208
...

b
...

d
...
Of the following, this is a capsulated
organism
a
...
Escherichia-coli
c
...
Brucella
210
...
Vector borne
c
...
Zoonotic infection
d
...
Mc Fadyean’s reaction is used to detect
a
...
Brucella
c
...
None of these
212
...

b
...

d
...
Coagulase test is used for
a
...

c
...


Salmonella
Staphylococcus
Bordetella
Pneumococcus

214
...

b
...

d
...
Special feature of Retro viruses
a
...

c
...


Reverse transcriptase
RNA directed DNA polymerases
Both a & b
Boils

216
...
RNA virus
c
...
DNA virus
d
...
AIDS is caused by
a
...
HTLV – III

b
...
All

218
...

b
...

d
...
pneumonia
Mycoplasma
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

219
...
3 weeks
c
...
6 weeks
d
...
Following is the marker of HIV infection
in blood:
a
...

c
...


Reverse transcriptase
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
None of these

221
...

b
...

d
...
The interval period between HIV infection
and appearance of antibodies in serum
is called
a
...
Window period

b
...
None of these

223
...
Western blot test
c
...
ELISA test
d
...
Confirmatory test for AIDS is
a
...
Karpas test

b
...
Fujerbio test

225
...
LGV
b
...
Pnemocystis carnii d
...
During AIDS, HIV infects
a
...
CD4 lymphocytes
c
...
Blymphocytes
227
...
CFT
c
...
Peripheral smear
d
...
Those fungi which do not have a sexual
stage are classified as
a
...
Basidiomycetes

b
...
Fungi imperfecti

229
...

b
...

d
...
Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be
made by
a
...
Isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates
or blood
c
...
None of these
231
...
Formation of acid in sucrose, dextrose
b
...
Strains are catalase positive
d
...
None of these
232
...
Endemic
c
...
None of these

b
...
all

233
...
R
...
R
...
None of these

b
...
quintana
d
...
A man is usually infected for tick typhus
by –
a
...

c
...


Drinking milk of sick animals
Tending cattle
Inhaling infected dust
All of these

235
...
8 : 1
c
...
1 : 2
d
...
Ziehl – Neelson stain is a ______
a
...
Differential stain

b
...
None of them

237
...

b
...

d
...


Size and shape of individual organisms
Characteristic arrangement or grouping of cells
Motility of the organism
All of these
None of these

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY
238
...
Invasion of mucous membrane

a
...
tuberculosis

c
...
Legionella pneumophila

d
...
M
...
None of these

d
...
Fungi differs with bacteria in that it –

e
...
Contain no peptidoglycan

239
...
Cytoplasm

b
...
Cell membrane

d
...
The properties common to Gram positive
and negative cell walls are
a
...
Peptide crosslinks between polysaccharides
c
...
Greater resistance to drying than vegetative
cell
...
Are prokaryotic
c
...
Have nuclear membranes
e
...
A polysaccharide capsule is present on
cryptococci which –
a
...
Is an aid to diagnose
c
...
All of these
247
...
Balantidium coli

e
...
The main difference in true bacteria and
mycoplasma is that it does not posses –
a
...
Cell wall

c
...
A capsule

242
...

a
...
pneumoniae

b
...
Trichomonus vaginalis
d
...
Premunition is particularly seen in –
a
...
Giardia

c
...
None of these

249
...
Rickettsia rickettsii

a
...
TAB

c
...
Polio

d
...
Chlamydia psitacci
243
...
has ability to cause urinary tract infection
b
...
susceptible to penicillin
d
...
None of these
244
...
Inhalation of conidia

250
...
Tranformation

b
...
Conjugation

d
...
Techoic acid is –
a
...
Provide receptors for phages
c
...
Influence the permeability of the membrane

!

BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING
252
...
Monotrichate
c
...
Amphitrichate
d
...
What is the function of bacterial capsule?
a
...
Helps in adherence of bacteria to surface in
its environment
c
...
None of these
254
...

b
...

d
...
Which of the following are acid fast
structures?
a
...
Nocardia

b
...
All of these

256
...
Clostridium
c
...
Bacterium spores
d
...
All of the following are energy source of
bacteria except
a
...

c
...


Oxidation of inorganic compounds
Oxidation of organic compounds
Absorption of heat
Utilisation of visible light

258
...
Salmonella
c
...
tetani

b
...
Sarcinae

259
...
Preptostreptococci b
...
Strepto hemolyticus d
...
Toxins or enzymes which are not
produced by streptococcus pyrogens
a
...
Hemolysin

b
...
Streptokinase

261
...
Sulphuric acid

b
...
Hydrochloric acid d
...
Diagnosis of carrier of salmonella typhi
may be shown by
a
...
Bile culture

c
...
All of these

263
...
M
...
C
...
Cl
...
None of these

264
...
Rickettsiae

b
...
Spirochaetes
periringens

d
...
All of the following are DNA viruses
except –
a
...
Paramyxo virus

c
...
Pix virus

266
...
Arbo virus

b
...
Entero virus

d
...
Dengue fever is caused by –
a
...
Virus

c
...
Rickettsia

268
...
No growth on inanimate culture media
b
...
No energy producing enzymes
d
...
Main causative organism of chiken pox is
a
...
Mumps virus

c
...
None of these

270
...
Giesna and Castaneda stains
b
...
Both a and b
d
...
c
7
...
b
19
...
c
31
...
c
43
...
a
55
...
c
67
...
a
79
...
a
91
...
d
103
...
b
115
...
d
127
...
b
139
...
d
151
...
b
163
...
c
175
...
d
187
...
b
199
...
a
211
...
d
223
...
c
235
...
b
247
...
c
259
...
b

2
...
c
14
...
d
26
...
d
38
...
c
50
...
c
62
...
d
74
...
b
86
...
d
98
...
a
110
...
d
122
...
a
134
...
d
146
...
b
158
...
c
170
...
b
182
...
c
194
...
d
206
...
b
218
...
a
230
...
c
242
...
c
254
...
b
266
...
c
9
...
c
21
...
d
33
...
a
45
...
a
57
...
a
69
...
a
81
...
b
93
...
b
105
...
a
117
...
a
129
...
c
141
...
b
153
...
a
165
...
b
177
...
a
189
...
c
201
...
d
213
...
c
225
...
c
237
...
b
249
...
d
261
...
b

4
...
b
16
...
c
28
...
c
40
...
a
52
...
c
64
...
b
76
...
d
88
...
d
100
...
c
112
...
c
124
...
c
136
...
b
148
...
c
160
...
a
172
...
a
184
...
c
196
...
c
208
...
a
220
...
b
232
...
e
244
...
d
256
...
d
268
...
a
11
...
c
23
...
c
35
...
c
47
...
d
59
...
a
71
...
a
83
...
d
95
...
c
107
...
b
119
...
c
131
...
a
143
...
b
155
...
b
167
...
a
179
...
c
191
...
d
203
...
a
215
...
b
227
...
a
239
...
e
251
...
c
263
...
d

6
...
b
18
...
c
30
...
b
42
...
a
54
...
c
66
...
c
78
...
c
90
...
d
102
...
c
114
...
c
126
...
b
138
...
a
150
...
a
162
...
d
174
...
a
186
...
d
198
...
c
210
...
c
222
...
d
234
...
d
246
...
a
258
...
a
270
...
The medium used in membrane filter
technique was
a
...
EMR-Vp medium

c
...
Endo agar

2
...
Sterilent

b
...
Antiseptic

d
...
Which of the following is a neutral stain?
a
...
Gmiemsa

c
...
Malachite green

4
...
Synthetic medium
b
...
Differential medium
d
...
The method in which the cells are frozen
dehydrated is called
a
...
Dessication

c
...
Lypophilization

6
...
Sterlization
b
...
Surgical sterilization
d
...
Thermal death time is
a
...
Temperature that kills all cells in a given time
c
...
All of the above
8
...
Simple
c
...
Complex
d
...
Elek’s gel diffusion test is used for the
detection of
a
...
Cholera toxin
c
...
Toxoid
10
...
Above 150oC
c
...
Below 100oC
d
...
Separation of a single bacterial colony is
calle
a
...
Pure culturing

b
...
All of these

12
...
U
...
rays
c
...
IR
d
...
Which of the following
dimerisation of thymine?

induces

a
...
U
...
rays

c
...
None of these

14
...

a
...
Pasteurisation

c
...
Frosting

15
...
Drying
c
...
Hot air oven
d
...
Treponema pallidum can be best
indentified using
a
...
Bright field microscope
c
...
Flourescence microscope
17
...
Dry heat
b
...
120oC
d
...
Temperature in pasteurization is
a
...
8oC
c
...
2oC

b
...
7oC
d
...
8oC

19
...
Inoculum
c
...
Suspension
d
...
Algae are rich in
a
...
Vitamins

b
...
All of these

21
...
Corynebacterium glutamicum
b
...
Mycobacterium sps
d
...
The orderly increase in the quantity of all
of the cellular components is known as
a
...
Binary fission

b
...
None of these

23
...
7
...
6
...
1
...
9
...
Slow freezing requires the conditions
a
...

c
...


0oC to 15oC for 15 min
...

– 15oC to 3 to 72 hrs
...
Discontinuous heating is called
a
...
Fermentation

b
...
Tindalisation

26
...

b
...

d
...
The condition required for autoclave
a
...

c
...


121oC temp
...
pressure for 20 min
...
and 20 lbs
...
for 1 hr
...


28
...

b
...

d
...
Blood agar medium is
a
...

c
...


Enrichment medium
Enriched medium
Selective medium
Differential medium

30
...
Dry heat
b
...
Chemical method d
...
Lyophilization means
a
...

c
...


Sterilization
Freeze-drying
Burning to ashes
Exposure to formation

32
...

b
...

d
...
Agar is obtained form
a
...
Green algae

b
...
Blue-green algae

36
...
Salmonella
c
...
Clostridium
d
...
Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is
known as
a
...
Exaltation

b
...
Toxigenicity

38
...
50oC
c
...
100oC
d
...
Spores are killed by
a
...
Autoclaving

b
...
None of these

41
...
Tyndall
c
...
Lab media
c
...
This is an agar plate method and is
commonly used for estimation of the
number of bacteria in milk
...

b
...

d
...
Autoclaving
c
...
Pasteur
d
...
Viruses can be cultivated in

33
...

b
...

d
...
Glassware are sterilized by

b
...
Both b and c

b
...
None of these

43
...

b
...

d
...
The temperature required for pasteurization is
a
...
100oC

b
...
None of these

45
...

b
...

d
...
Example for indicator medium is
a
...

c
...


Nutrient Agar
Nutrient broth
Wilson and Blair
Czapeck-dox medium

47
...

b
...

d
...
The differentiate lactose and non-lactose
fermentors, the medium used is
a
...

c
...


Wilson & lair
Blood Agar
Tetra thionate broth
Mac-Conkey’s Agar

&

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

49
...
Streak-plate
c
...
Agar slant
d
...
To transfer cultures from one place to
another, the device used is

58
...
Formaldehyde

b
...
Glutamal aldehyde d
...
Accridine dyes are more effective against

a
...
Needle

a
...
Gram negative

c
...
Autoclave

c
...
Rickttsiae

51
...
Inoculum

b
...
Dilution

d
...
Separation of a single colony is
a
...
Isolation

c
...
Both a and b

53
...
Inoculation
c
...
Incubation
d
...
At the temperature 160oC for one hour,
complete sterilization occurs in
a
...
Hot air oven

c
...
Incubator

55
...
Dry heat
b
...
Steam under pressur
d
...
The spores of th bacteria which can
withstand the moist heat effect also
a
...
Coxiella burnetti
c
...
Pseudomonas
57
...
Concentration of the substance
b
...
pH of the medium and temperature suitable
for the chemical
d
...
The sterilizing agent is
a
...
Oxygen

c
...
Carbon tetrachloride

61
...
Thiomersal
nitrate

b
...
Mercurochrome

mercury

d
...
Cultures are prepared by penetrating the
inoculation loop with suspension into the
medium, they are
a
...
Stabcultures

c
...
None of these

63
...
Separation

b
...
Isolation

d
...
Culture media for fungi are
a
...
Sabouraud’s agar
c
...
All of the above
65
...
52oC for 30 min
...
65oC for 30 min
...
70oC for 30 min
...
43oC for 30 min
...
The term that is used for the bacteria
which can withstand pasteurization but
does not grow at higher temperatures
a
...
Extreme thermophiles
c
...
Facultative thermophiles

'

STERILISATION, CULTURE MEDIA & PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES
67
...
Gas pack system
b
...
Pyrogallic acid over the cotton
d
...

b
...

d
...
C
...
Alkaliphiles grow at pH value between
a
...
6 to 9

c
...
7 to 12

69
...
Osmophiles

b
...
Both a and b

d
...
Non-lactose fermenting colonies seen on
Mac Conkey’s medium are
a
...

b
...

d
...
Culture medium for Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
a
...

c
...


L J medium
Mac Conkey’s medium
Wilson blair medium
None of these

79
...
Escherichia coli
c
...
Shigella shigae
71
...
Staphylococci

b
...
Vibrio cholerae

d
...
Laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever is
based on
a
...

b
...

d
...
Culture medium for clostridia spp
...

b
...

d
...
Clsotridium welchii is positive for

b
...
Widal test
d
...
Shigella was first isolated by
a
...
Schmitz

c
...
Robert Koch

74
...
S
...
S
...
S
...
S
...
Kauffmann white scheme is used to detect
a
...

c
...
coli

76
...
Coli forms

b
...

d
...

b
...

d
...
Nagler’s reaction detects
a
...
Lecithinase

b
...
None of these

83
...
welchii is
a
...
5-7 hours

b
...
2-4 hours

84
...
2-3 days
c
...
7-10 days
d
...
Salt agar is used for
a
...
Staphylococcus

c
...
Shigella

92
...


Schick test

A
...


Mantoux test

B
...
Sabousand’s medium

3
...
Diphtheria toxin

b
...


Potency test

D
...


Usefulness of immunological
products

86
...
Wilson Blair medium
d
...
A simple asexual spore which develops
by budding is known as
a
...
Blastospore

c
...
Conidia

88
...
Match the following equipments with
their respective methods of sterilization
A to E:
1
...


Glass syringes

A
...


Chemical

instrument

a
...
Nutrient agar

3
...
Dry heat

c
...


Dialysis machine

D
...


Chicken pox in children

d
...
For sterilization of fermentation
equipment the method followed is
a
...
Chemicals

c
...
All of these

90
...
Match them correctly:
1
...
P
...


Pasteurella pestis

2
...
P
...


Bacillus cerus

3
...
P
...
Micrococcus luteus

4
...


Lactobacillus aureus

E
...
Bacillus subtillus

91
...


Lysol

A
...


Black fluids

B
...


White fluids

C
...


Iodophores

D
...


Basic molecules has varying
numbers of amino groups
Iodine combined with complex
organic chemicals

94
...


Coomb’s test

A
...


Coagulase test

B
...
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D
...
D
...

b
...

d
...


Glucose broth
Serum broth
Agar and blood agar
Chocolate agar
All of these

96
...
pneumoniae can be identified by
a
...

c
...

e
...
The diagnosis of tuberculosis is carried
out by
a
...
Petroff’s method
e
...
Antiformin method
d
...
The size of the virus can be determined
by
a
...

c
...


Micrography
Ultra-centrifugation at high speed
Ultra-filteration
All of these

a
...
Capsule

99
...

b
...

d
...
Electron microscope studies does not help
in identifying the section of bacterial
spore
b
...
All of these

101
...
Salmonella typhi
c
...
Shigella dysenteriae
d
...
coli

102
...
Lactobacilli
c
...
Streptobacillus
d
...
b
2
...
b
8
...
b
14
...
a
20
...
d
26
...
b
32
...
c
38
...
b
44
...
c
50
...
d
56
...
d
62
...
c
68
...
c
74
...
b
80
...
b
86
...
1
...
c, 3
...
e
93
...
c, 2
...
e, 4
...
e
98
...
c
4
...
c
10
...
a
16
...
a
22
...
c
28
...
a
34
...
d
40
...
a
46
...
a
52
...
d
58
...
d
64
...
c
70
...
a
76
...
b
82
...
b
88
...
1
...
a, 3
...
e
94
...
d, 2
...
c
100
...
d
6
...
a
12
...
c
18
...
b
24
...
b
30
...
b
36
...
a
42
...
a
48
...
b
54
...
a
60
...
b
66
...
b
72
...
c
78
...
a
84
...
d
92
...
c, 2
...
b, 4
...
e 96
...
a
102
...
When a bacterial cell and mitochondria
are treated with cyanide and carbon
monoxide what happens initially?
a
...

c
...


Respiration inhibits
Photosynthesis inhibits
Protein synthesis inhibits
No effect occurs

2
...

b
...

d
...
The most important energy-yielding
reaction for an aerobic organism is
a
...
KDPG

b
...
Both b and c

4
...
Epidemic
c
...
Pandemic
d
...
Cell cycle regulated by
a
...
Cdks
c
...
None of these
6
...
Putrification bacteria

b
...
Nitrification bacteria
d
...
A cell becomes flaccid when placed in a
a
...

c
...


Isotonic solution
Hypertonic solution
Hypotonic solution
Normal solution

8
...
Point mutation
b
...
Missence mutation d
...
The formation spindle fibres in the process
of cell division is prevented by
a
...
Hydrazine

b
...
All of these

10
...
NAD
c
...
Cytochromes
d
...
The primary mode of transmission of
poliomyelitis virus:
a
...
Person to person

b
...
Food and water

12
...
Phenotype
c
...
Genotype
d
...
The primary mode of transmission of
poliomyelitis is
a
...
Milk

a
...
Both a and b

b
...
Person to person

14
...

b
...

d
...
The following organisms lack definite cell
wall

Plasmodium vivox
P
...
falsiparum
P
...
The following disease are caused by
Mycoplasma except
a
...

c
...


15
...
Puccinia
c
...
Rhizopus
d
...
Which of these is a trace element for
bacteria?
a
...
Ca+2

b
...
Mn+2

18
...

b
...

d
...
The Bacteria move in response to
magnetic field is
a
...

c
...


Spirochets
Treponema
Aquaspirillum Magnetotacticum
None of these

20
...

b
...

d
...
Mycotoxins are produced by
a
...

c
...


16
...

b
...

d
...
L-forms
d
...
Size, shape and mode of arrangements
is typical of certain microorganisms
...

2
...

B
...
Multiples of eight

3
...


Vibrios and Spirilla D
...
Gram negative cocci
F
...
Match the following microorganisms with
their respective characteristic A to E :
1
...


Rickettsia

3
...


Bacteriophages

A
...
Parasites on bacteria, highly
specific to one type of
C
...
Grows in atmospheric oxygen,
visible without microscope,
produces, disease
E
...
a

2
...
d

4
...
c

6
...
b

8
...
c

10
...
d

12
...
c

14
...
c

16
...
b

18
...
c

20
...
c

22
...
b

24
...
b, 2
...
d, 4
...
1
...
e, 3
...
b

This page
intentionally left
blank

CHAPTER 5
BACTERIAL NUTRITION

1
...
Pyruvate
c
...

b
...

d
...
Lactate
d
...
The protein moiety of an enzyme is
known as
a
...
Co enzyme

6
...
Apo enzyme
d
...
The following organisms have been
proposed as sources of single cell protein
a
...
Algae

3
...
A Vitamin
c
...
Proteins
d
...
Yeasts
d
...
Nitrites are oxidized to nitrates by a
microorganism
a
...
Nitrobacter

4
...

b
...

d
...
Nitrosococcus
d
...
The major constituents in agar are
a
...
Polysaccharides

5
...
Industrial wastes poured into water bodies
b
...
Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably
combined with haemoglobin
d
...
Aminoacids
d
...
Match the following expressions with
their respective bacteria A to E:
1
...


2
...
Watson’s expression

3
...
Concentration of
bactericide

4
...
Film coefficient
E
...
a

2
...
c

4
...
a

6
...
d

8
...
c

10
...
b,2
...
a,4
...
Multiple antibiotic resistance is mediated
by
a
...
Plasmid

c
...
Both b and c

2
...
Lag phase

b
...
Log phase

d
...
the first phase of a growth curve is
a
...
Lag phase

c
...
Both a and b

4
...
Naphthquinone

b
...
Ubiquinone

d
...
Growth in a closed system, affected by
nutrient limitation and waste product
accumulation is called
a
...
Ascus

c
...
Sporangiosphore

6
...
This stage of growth is called
a
...
Stationary phase

c
...
All of these

7
...
Liver
c
...
Muscle
d
...
B
...
Which one of the following mineral
elements play an important role in
biological nitrogen fixation
a
...
Zinc

b
...
Molybdenum

9
...
Log
c
...
Lag
d
...
Clostridium welchii spore formation can
be induced only on specified media such
as
a
...

c
...


Wilson-Blair medium
Macconkey medium
Ellner medium
Thayee-Martion medium

11
...
Lag phase
c
...
Log phase
d
...
Bacteria which need oxygen for growth
are called
a
...

c
...


Thermophilic bacteria
Microaerophilic bacteria
Facultative anaerobic bacteria
Mycobacteria

"

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

13
...
6
...
2
c
...
0 – 6
...
5
...
2
d
...
0 – 14
...
Drug resistance in bacteria is mainly
determined by factor:
a
...
Col

b
...
Lysogenic factor

15
...
Calcium
c
...
Magnesium
d
...
The most important vitamin for the
growth of bacteria is
a
...
Vitamin D

b
...
Vitamin C

17
...
At certain range the concentration of growth
factor will bear a linear relationship to the
amount of nutrients added
b
...
Both a and b
d
...
If the source of energy for bacteria is from
chemical compounds they are said to be
a
...

c
...


Phototrophs
Autotrophs
Chemotrophs
Chemolithotroph

b
...
Oxygen

20
...
Nitrogen
c
...
Oxygen
d
...
For the synthesis of amino acids cysteine,
cystine and methionine the element
required is
a
...
Nitrogen

a
...

c
...


Organic compounds
Inorganic compounds
Elemental compounds
All of the above

23
...

b
...

d
...
Trace elements are
a
...

c
...


Zn+2, Cu+2, Mn+2
MO6+, Ni2+, B3+ and CO2+
Both a and b
None of these

25
...
Mg2+
c
...
Ca2+
d
...
Vitamin function as
a
...

c
...


Co-enzymes
Co-melecules
Building blocks of cell
None of these

27
...
In the synthesis of cell components the
major element required is
a
...
Carbon

22
...
Oxygen
d
...
Riboflavin
c
...
Niacin
d
...
Vitamin K is necessary for the species
a
...

c
...


Lactobacillus spp
...
The bacteria which are able to grow at
0°C but which grow at 20°C to 30°C, are
known as
a
...

c
...


Psychrophiles
Facultative psychrophiles
Average psychrophiles
Mesophiles

"

BACTERIAL GROWTH
30
...
Acids
c
...
Alkali
d
...
The orderly increase in the quantity of all
the cellular components is known as
a
...
Binary fission

b
...
None of these

32
...

b
...

d
...
How much time a bacterium take for the
complete duplication?
a
...

c
...


b
...

d
...


34
...

b
...

d
...
of cells formed
None of these

35
...

b
...

d
...
Physiologically the cells are active and
are synthesizing new protoplasm in
which stage of the growth in bacteria
a
...
Stationary phase

b
...
None of these

37
...
Lag phase
c
...
Stationary phase
d
...
Log-phase is also known as
a
...
Lag-phase

b
...
None

39
...
of generations per hour in a bacteria is
a
...
Sigmoid curve

b
...
None of these

40
...
3
c
...
4
d
...
The reproduction rate is equal to death
rate in which stage
a
...
Lag phase

b
...
Log phase

42
...
The growth of organisms at lowest temperature
b
...
The maximum temperature at which the
growth is stable
d
...
Optimum growth temperature is greater
that 45oC is
a
...
Psychrophiles

b
...
None of these

44
...

b
...

d
...
The organisms which can grow best in
the presence of a low concentration of
oxygen
a
...
Aerobic

b
...
Anaerobic

46
...
Sodium Thioglycollate
b
...
Citrate
d
...
The utilization of light energy to drive the
synthesis of ATP is called as
a
...

c
...


Photolysis
Photophosphorylation
Photosynthesis
Respiration

48
...

a
...

c
...


No NADP formation
No NADP utilization
NADP is converted into NADPH
All are correct

49
...
Cyanobacteria
c
...
Algae
d
...
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is also
known as
a
...

c
...


Oxygenic photosynthesis
Photosynthesis
Anoxygenic photosynthesis
Photophosphorylation

51
...
One
c
...
Two
d
...
Artificial transformation in laboratory is
carried out by treating the cells with
a
...
NaCl

b
...
HCl

53
...
Meromixis
c
...
Exozygote
d
...
Which of the following or ganisms
requires tryptophan for growth?
a
...
influenza
c
...
Vibrio
d
...
typhi

55
...
Absence of O2
c
...
Presence of CO2
d
...
Mycotoxins are formed during the end of
a
...
Death phase

b
...
Stationary phase

57
...


Psychrotrophs

A
...


Mesophils

B
...


Thermophils

C
...


vegetable bacteria D
...


Grow below 25oC
Multiply slowly at 0-4oC

58
...


Achrommobacter
...


Bread

spp
2
...


3
...
Meat

Water supply

4
...


Salad

E
...
Match the following microorganisms with
their respective appearance of colonies
on bismuth Sulphite agar from A to E:
1
...


Brown

2
...


No growth

choleraesuis
3
...
Green

4
...


Yellow

E
...
The suitable temperature to transport
viral culture is –
a
...
25oC
e
...
5oC
d
...
Growth curve does not include following
phases of bacteria –
a
...
Lag phase

b
...
Synchronous growth

62
...
Decline phase
c
...
Stationary phase
d
...
b

2
...
b

4
...
a

6
...
b

8
...
a

10
...
a

12
...
a

14
...
c

16
...
b

18
...
c

20
...
d

22
...
d

24
...
c

26
...
b

28
...
c

30
...
b

32
...
c

34
...
a

36
...
d

38
...
b

40
...
d

42
...
a

44
...
b

46
...
c

48
...
a

50
...
d

52
...
a

54
...
b

56
...
1
...
c, 3
...
a

58
...
e,2
...
b,4
...
b

62
...
1
...
c,3
...
b

61
...
A peculiar cytochrome is observed in
bacteria and it can react with molecular
oxygen, what is it?
a
...
Cyt d

b
...
Cyt o

2
...
ds DNA
c
...
ss DNA
d
...
Which one of the following mutagens act
only on replicating DNA?
a
...

c
...


Ethidium bromide
Nitrosogeranidine
Acridine orange
None of above

4
...
Histone in RNA
c
...
Bacterial RNA
d
...
Which of the following is an example of
RNA virus?
a
...

c
...


SV 40
T4 phage
Tobacco mosaic virus
Adeno virus

6
...
The cloned fragments
are called
a
...
mRNA

b
...
None of these

7
...
MT gene
c
...
GH
d
...
In which medium the hydridoma cells
grow selectively?
a
...
Hypoxanthine aminopterin thyminine
c
...
Both b and c
9
...

b
...

d
...
A successful hybridoma was produced by
fusing
a
...

c
...


Plasma cells and plasmids
Plasma cells and myeloma cells
Myeloma cells and plasmids
Plasma cells and bacterial cells

"$

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

11
...

b
...

d
...
Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene
cloning as
a
...
They can be multiplied in the laboratory using
enzymes
c
...
They are self replicating within the bacterial
cell
13
...
How many autosomes
would be expected in a kidney cell?
a
...
47

b
...
44

14
...
Change from aerobic to anaerobic
b
...
Rapid utilization of ATP
d
...
A mechanism that can cause a gene to
move from one linkage group to another
is
a
...
Crossing over

b
...
Duplication

16
...
Gene
c
...
Cistron
d
...
The two chromatids of metaphase
chrosome represent
a
...
Homologous chromosomes of a diploid set
c
...
Maternal and paternal chromosomes joined
at the centromere
18
...
Transferase
c
...
Hydrolase
d
...
In E
...

b
...

d
...
The best vector for gene cloning
a
...

c
...


Relaxed control plasmid
Stringent control plasmid
Both a and b
None of these

21
...
Structural gene
c
...
Regulator gene
d
...
DNA replicates during
a
...
G2 – phase

b
...
M – phase

23
...

b
...

d
...
Crossing-over most commonly occurs
during
a
...
Anaphase I

b
...
Telophase II

25
...
Conservative
c
...
Semiconservative
d
...
Production of RNA from DNA is called
a
...
Transcription

b
...
Transposition

27
...
Alanine
c
...
Adenine
d
...
What are the structural units of nucleic
acids?
a
...
Nucleotides

b
...
Histones

29
...
Enzymes
c
...
Hormones
d
...
One of the genes present exclusively on
the X-chromosome in humans is
concerned with
a
...

c
...


Baldness
Red-green colour baldness
Facial hair/moustache in males
Night blindness

31
...

b
...

d
...
RNA – (+) type
d
...
Rabies virus is
a
...

c
...


Nake RNA virus
Naked DNA virus
Enveloped RNA virus
Enveloped DNA virus

34
...
Polio virus
c
...
Adeno virus
d
...
In genetic engineering breaks in DNA are
formed by enzymes known as
a
...

c
...


Restriction enzymes
Ligases
Nucleases
Hydralases

36
...
Transduction
c
...

b
...

d
...
The method of DNA replication proposed
by Watson and Crick is
a
...

c
...


Semi conservative
Conservative
Dispersive
Rolling loop

39
...
20 Ao
c
...
34 Ao
d
...
Self-replicating, small circular DNA
molecules present in bacterial cell are
known

32
...
DNA
c
...
Microorganisms usually make acetyl
CO-A by oxidizing

b
...
Infection

a
...
Plasmomeros

b
...
plastides

41
...
RNA
c
...
DNA
d
...
m RNA synthesis from DNA is termed
a
...
Translation

b
...
Replication

43
...
DNA
c
...
RNA
d
...
Building blocks of Nucleic acids are
a
...
Nucleotides

b
...
Nucleo proteins

45
...

b
...

d
...
The enzyme required for DNA from RNA
template:
a
...

c
...


RNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
DNA polymerase
Terminal transferase

47
...
Reo virus
c
...
Rhabdo virus
d
...
Example for DNA viruses:
a
...

c
...

e
...
The following are the RNA viruses, except
a
...

c
...

e
...
The two strands of DNA are joined noncovalently by
a
...

c
...


Ionic bonds
Covalent bonds
Hydrogen bonds between bases
Polar charges

51
...

b
...

d
...
The no
...
5
c
...
2
d
...
The length of each coil in DNA strand is
a
...
34 Ao

c
...
5 Ao

54
...
There is phosphodiester bond between 5’hydroxyl of one ribose and 3’–hydroxyl of
next ribose
b
...
Nucleotides are charged structures
d
...
The best studied example for specialized
transduction is
a
...
P22 phage

c
...
Both a and c

56
...
of genes in DNA is
a
...
Gene map

c
...
Chromatin

57
...
Large amound of DNA is transferred
b
...
of genes are transferred
c
...
None of these
58
...
Endogenate

b
...
Mesozygote

d
...
Genetic information transfer DNA to RNA
is called –
a
...
Transduction

c
...
Recombination

60
...
Transformation

b
...
Conjugation

d
...
d

2
...
c

4
...
c

6
...
a

8
...
a

10
...
b

12
...
d

14
...
a

16
...
a

18
...
a

20
...
a

22
...
b

24
...
b

26
...
b

28
...
a

30
...
b

32
...
c

34
...
b

36
...
a

38
...
b

40
...
b

42
...
a

44
...
b

46
...
a

48
...
e

50
...
a

52
...
b

54
...
c

56
...
b

58
...
a

60
...
Which of the following is called serum
Hepatitis?
a
...
HBV

b
...
HIV

2
...
HEPV
c
...
Card vaccine
d
...
Which type of antibodies will associate
in blood cell coagulation?
a
...
IgM

b
...
IgG

4
...
Immunogenic
c
...
Non-immunogenic
d
...
The antibody that is first formed after
infection is
a
...
IgD

b
...
IgE

6
...
B-lymphocytes
c
...
T-lymphocytes
d
...
The points at which crossing over has
taken place between homologus chromosomes are called
a
...
Synaptonemal complex

c
...
Protein axes
8
...
8%
c
...
12%
d
...
The substance which acts as antimetabolites are called
a
...
Inhibitor

b
...
Cofactor

10
...
Lipids
c
...
Proteins
d
...
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by
a
...

c
...


Hybridoma technology
Biotechnology
Fermentation Technology
None of these

12
...

b
...

d
...
What is the strength of the bond between
antigen and antibody?
a
...
Covalent

b
...
None of these

#

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY
22
...
Syphillis is caused by
a
...
B cells
c
...
Yersinia psdtis
c
...
Streptococcus syphilitis
15
...
Basophilic

b
...
Neutrophilic

d
...
The widely used yeast for the production
of single cell protein is
a
...
Candida utilis
d
...
Analysis of protein antigen is by
a
...
Northern blot

c
...
None of these

18
...

a
...
IgG

c
...
IgM

19
...
IgG
c
...
IgA
d
...
Reagenic type antibody is
a
...
IgM

b
...
IgE

25
...
Isospecific
d
...
The reaction of soluble antigen with
antibody is known by
a
...
Agglutination

b
...
Complement fixation

27
...
Lipids
c
...
Lipoprotein
d
...
Agglutination reaction is strongest with
the immunoglobulin:
a
...
IgA

b
...
IgD

29
...
Retro virus group

a
...
Gene therapy
c
...
Organ transfusion

b
...
Hepatitis virus group
d
...
Hybridoma technique is used for

20
...
Haem agglutination
b
...
Conglutination

a
...

c
...


Monoclonal antibodies
Polyclonal antibodies
Both a and b
None of these

31
...
Schultz Dale Phenomenon
21
...
DNA

23
...
Species specific
c
...
Rhizopus

b
...
Endothelial cells

b
...
m-RNA from DNA d
...
Widal test
c
...
ELISA
d
...
Antibody having high valency is
a
...
IgD

b
...
IgM

#!

IMMUNOLOGY
33
...
Affiniy
c
...
Avidity
d
...
Hfr-Strain

Infection
Placental transfer of antibodies
Injection of antibodies
Injection of gamma- globulins

a
...
Bonemarrow

b
...
Anaphylaxis

a
...

c
...


for

the

Freezing (–20°C–70°C)
Lyophilization
Ether
Formaldehyde

38
...

b
...

d
...
Local immunity is important in
a
...
Polio

b
...
All of these

40
...
Adjuvant
c
...
Stabilizer
d
...
Immunity is life long following
a
...
Measles

d
...
T-cells are produced from

b
...
All of the above

37
...
Syppressed

c
...
Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen
in
a
...
Arthus reaction

d
...
The character acquired by the cell due to
recombination is

35
...
Anthrax
c
...
F+-Strain

c
...
Active immunity is induced by
a
...

c
...


43
...
Tetanus
d
...
To prepare vaccine for small pox, the
material used by Edward Jenner is
a
...
Chicken pox material
c
...
Measles material

b
...
Spleen

d
...
Antibodies are produced from
a
...
â-cells

c
...
Eosinophils

47
...
Immunogens

b
...
Haptens

d
...
To be antigen, the chemical molecule
(protein) needs
a
...
Chemical complexity
c
...
None of these
49
...
Lymph nodes

b
...
Thymus

d
...
The primary cells involved in immune
response are
a
...
K-cells

c
...
None of these

51
...
T-cells

b
...
Killer cells

d
...
Basophils have receptors for antibodies
a
...
IgA

c
...
IgE

#"

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

53
...

b
...

d
...
Capacity of antigen to breakdown into
small fragments eachwith a single
epitopic region is known as
a
...
Denaturation

b
...
None of these

55
...

b
...

d
...
Antibodies are
a
...
Phospholipids

b
...
None of these

57
...
IgA
c
...
IgG
d
...
Antibody present in colostrums is
a
...
IgM

b
...
IgE

59
...
IgA
c
...
Counter immunoelectrophoresis is useful
for detection of
a
...

c
...


One antigen/antibody
Two antigens/antibody
More than two
None of these

65
...
Precipitation
c
...
Agglutination
d
...
Toxins and viruses can be detected by
a
...
Neutralisation

b
...
None of these

67
...
Exotoxins
c
...
Endotoxins
d
...
Shick test is used for the detection of
a
...
Cholera

b
...
B
...
Typhoid

b
...
None of these

70
...
Irreversible
d
...
Serological reactions are useful for
a
...

c
...


Immunoelectrophoresis
Flocculation
Agglutination
None of these

69
...
Antigen-antibody reactions are
a
...
Specific

a
...

c
...


b
...
IgD

60
...
Ishizaka
c
...
For the separation of antigens the method
used is

Detection of antigens
Detection of antibodies
Both a and b
None of these

a
...
Both a and b

a
...
Neutralization

b
...
None of these

b
...
Agglutination

71
...

b
...

d
...
Anthrax vaccine is prepared by

72
...
Specific
c
...
Non-specific
d
...
Innate immunity is developed by
a
...

c
...


Mechanical barriers
Chemical barriers
Both a and b
None of these

74
...
Natural
c
...
Artificial
d
...
Acquired immunity can be developed by
a
...
Both a and b

b
...
None of these

76
...
Type-I
c
...
Type-II
d
...
Immediate type of hypersensitivity
reactions are mediated by
a
...
β-cells

c
...
Macrophages

78
...
Tuberculin type
c
...
Contact dermatitis
d
...
Mountax reaction is used for detection
of
a
...
B
...
Diphtheria

c
...
None of these

80
...
Similar specificity b
...
Similar size
d
...
Hybridoma formation in hybridoma
technique is from
a
...
Spleen cell – Spleen cell
c
...
None of these

a
...

c
...


Attenuated bacilli
Killing the bacilli
Live bacilli
None of these

83
...

b
...

d
...
Killed, polio vaccine is
a
...
BCG

b
...
TAB

85
...

b
...

d
...
Pertussis vaccine is
a
...
Attenuated

b
...
live

87
...
Triple vaccine
c
...
Double vaccine
d
...
DPT, is used as vaccine for
a
...
Tetanus toxoid

b
...
All of these

89
...

b
...

d
...
5 ml at intervals of 4 weeks
A booster dose of 0
...
If more than one kind of immunizing
agent is included in the vaccine, it is
a
...

c
...


Cellular vaccine
Recombinant vaccine
Mixed vaccine
Toxoid vaccine

#$

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

91
...

b
...

d
...
Match the following terms with their
respective definitions A to E used in
virology :
1
...


2
...


Virus interference

4
...
Vaccines used against viral infections are
a
...

c
...


Measles and Mumps vaccine
Cholera vaccine
Typhoid vaccine
Anti-rickettsial vaccine

93
...

b
...

d
...
Vaccines prepared from toxins and
chemicals are
a
...

c
...


Cellular vaccines
Sub-cellular vaccines
Attenuated vaccines
Heterologous vaccines

95
...

b
...

d
...
DPT is given for the prevention of
a
...

c
...


Diphtheria, Tetanus
Diphtheria, Pertusis
Diphtheria, Tetanus & pertusis
None of these

97
...
Influenza
c
...
Measles
d
...
HIV can be transmitted through
a
...
Vaginal fluid

b
...
All of these

A phenomenon of acquiring
resistance to infection by a
infection by a second virus
B
...
Determination of the number
of infective units in the virus
suspension
D
...
Substance used to destroy virus

100
...

2
...

4
...

B
...

D
...


Killed rickettsia
Killed bacteria
Attenuated viruses
Killed viruses
Attenuated bacteria

101
...

2
...


IgA

4
...

B
...
Synthesized during secondary
response
D
...
Serum

102
...


Influenza

2
...


Smallpox

4
...


Fluid from cultures of human
diploid cells
B
...
Allantoic fluid from fertile hen’s
eggs
D
...
Aqueous homogenate of chick
embryo

103
...
V
...
Both a and b

b
...
typhosa
d
...
The immunity acquired by inoculation of
living organism of attenuated virulence
is
a
...

c
...


Artificial active immunity
Passive immunity
Natural active immunity
Local immunity

105
...
Growing it at a temperature higher than
optimum
b
...
By continous cultivation in presence of
antagonistic substance
d
...
None of these
106
...

b
...

d
...
The markers helpful in detecting antiimmunity are
a
...

c
...

e
...
Following substance may act as an
antigen
a
...

c
...

e
...
H antigen are present in
a
...

c
...


Motile organ
Non-motile organ
Both a & b
None of these

110
...

a
...
Passive

c
...
None of these

111
...
Identification of isolated bacteria
b
...
Study of antigenic structure of bacteria
d
...
None of these
112
...
Blood of hologous group should always be
same
b
...
Both a & b
d
...
To be anaphylactic, the sensitizing
substance should be
a
...
Should have a large molecular weight
c
...
All of the above
e
...
The basics of pathology in asthama,
allergic rhinitis, urticaria are
a
...
Increased capillary secretion
c
...
All of these
115
...
Schick tests

b
...
V-P test

d
...
Syndromes associated with Human T
lymphotropic virus type I(HTLV-I) are
a
...
Hairy cell leukemia
c
...
All of these

#&

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

117
...
Chemical fraction of the causative bacteria
b
...
Formalin inactivated suspension of virulent
bacteria
d
...
All of these
118
...
Pneumocystisis carinii

a
...

c
...

e
...
Immunoglobulin which cannot activate
complement
a
...
IgA

b
...
IgG

125
...
Cryptospodidium

a
...
Casoni test

c
...
pneumoniae
d
...
Statements applicable to human lice:
a
...

b
...
Transmit epidemic typhus, relapsing fever
and Trench fever
d
...
All of these

b
...
Freis test

126
...
IgA
c
...
IgE
d
...
Immunoglobin which are found in asthma
at elevated level:
a
...
IgM

b
...
IgD

128
...
Natural killer cells
a
...
Belongs to T-cell lineage
c
...
Require previous antigen exposure for
activation
121
...
IgE

b
...
IgD

d
...
IgG
122
...
IgA – 1

b
...
IgG – 2

d
...
IgG – 4

123
...
A compliment fixation
b
...
Heat stability at 56oC
d
...
What is the technique for quantitative
estimation of immunoglobulin?
a
...
Single diffusion in two dimension
c
...
Double diffusion in two dimension
130
...
Sheep bred blood corpuscles roasette
formation
b
...
Skin test for delayed hyper sensitivity
d
...
Out of the following which are the
examples of autoimmune disease?

133
...

b
...

d
...
Acquired Haemolytic anaemia
b
...
Hashiomoto disease
d
...
Which of the following is a true statement
regarding Purified Protine Derivative
(PPD) used in tuberculin test?
a
...
Antigenic variation is most extensive in
a
...
Measles virus

b
...
Herpes virus

135
...
It is inferior to old tuberculin
c
...
None of these

a
...
Reo viruses

b
...
Retro viruses

ANSWERS
1
...
a
7
...
a
13
...
c
19
...
a
25
...
a
31
...
d
37
...
d
43
...
d
49
...
c
55
...
b
61
...
c
67
...
a
73
...
d
79
...
a
85
...
b
91
...
a
97
...
d
101
...
b, 2
...
a, 4
...
c
104
...
a
110
...
a
116
...
a
122
...
b
128
...
d
134
...
c
9
...
a
21
...
b
33
...
d
45
...
b
57
...
a
69
...
c
81
...
a
93
...
1
...
c,
102
...
c, 2
...
d
111
...
e
123
...
b
135
...
b
10
...
c
22
...
a
34
...
b
46
...
d
58
...
a
70
...
d
82
...
d
94
...
b, 4
...
b, 4
...
a
112
...
d
124
...
d

5
...
a
11
...
b
17
...
b
23
...
d
29
...
a
35
...
b
41
...
c
47
...
c
53
...
a
59
...
a
65
...
c
71
...
b
77
...
d
83
...
a
89
...
c
95
...
c
100
...
b, 2
...
d, 4
...
e
113
...
e
125
...
d

108
...
e
120
...
b
132
...
Food poisoning is caused by
a
...

c
...


Clostridum tetani
Clostridum Welchi
Diptheria
Clostridium botulinum

2
...
HIV
c
...
Measles
d
...
Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host
cell because it contains
a
...
5’-CHM

b
...
5’MHC

4
...
pertusis
c
...
mumps
d
...
Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection
against
a
...

c
...


Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
Whooping cough, cancer and T
...


6
...
They have 30 S ribosomes
b
...
They have 70 S ribosomes
d
...
AIDS is caused by
a
...
Prion

c
...
Retroprison

8
...
Primary metabolite b
...
Tertiary metabolite d
...
The rejection of an organ transplant such
as a kidney transplant, is an example of
_____ Hypersensitivity
...
Immediate

b
...
Allergy

d
...
Listeriosis was ______ disease
...
Food borne

b
...
Milk borne

d
...
Pus-forming forms are called as
a
...
Pyogenic

c
...
None of the above

12
...
Acridine orange

b
...
Neutral red

d
...
_____ is a genetic disease charachterized
by a total or partial inability to synthesize
globulins
...
Apitososis
b
...
Gammaglobulinemma
d
...

14
...
Genetic Engineering
b
...
Genetic drift
d
...
Viral antigens are likely
a
...
Glyco proteins

c
...
Both a and b

16
...
Enzymatic assay
b
...
End point determination assay
d
...
ELISA test is used for the identification of
a
...
AIDS

c
...
Diabetis

18
...
45 – 80 days

b
...
35 – 50 days

d
...
All of the following are bacteriostatic
chemotherapeutic agents except
a
...
Chloramphenicol

c
...
Tetracycline

20
...
Algae

b
...
Protozoa

d
...
β-lactum ring is present in
a
...
Penicillin

c
...
Chromphenical

22
...
Streptomycin
c
...
Penicillin
d
...
The drug of choice for dermal, oral and
vaginal candidiasis is
a
...
Gentian violet

b
...
Nystatin

24
...

b
...

d
...
Chloramphenicol is obtained from
a
...

c
...


Streptomyces griseus
Streptomyces venezuelae
Streptomyces pyrogenes
None of these

26
...

b
...

d
...
The treatment required for small bodies
of water is
a
...
Purification

b
...
All of these

28
...

b
...

d
...
Septicaemia is
a
...

c
...


Bacteria in blood
Toxin in blood
Pus in blood
Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood

30
...

b
...

d
...
Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
a
...
RNA synthesis
c
...
DNA gyrase
32
...
Bacteria

b
...
Spirochaete

d
...
Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
a
...
albus

b
...
aureus

c
...
viridana

d
...
Black water fever is caused by
a
...
vivax
c
...
ovale

b
...
falciparum
d
...
Mantoux test detects
a
...
tuberculosis
c
...
Cynaobacteria
d
...
The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a
...
Cyclosporine

b
...
All of these

37
...
Aspergillus sps
c
...
Penicillium sps
d
...
Penicillin is discovered by
a
...
Koch

b
...
None of these

39
...
Synergism
c
...
Antaginism
d
...
The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock
is
a
...
Epinephrine

b
...
None of these

41
...
Tetracyclines
c
...
Erythromycin
d
...
A number of viruses are known to infect
mycoplasmas, called
a
...

c
...


Bacteriophages
Mycoplasma phages
Virions
Tiny strains

43
...

a
...

c
...

e
...
The causative agent of scrub typhus:
a
...
Quintana
c
...
orinetalis

b
...
rickettsii
d
...
prowazekii

45
...
Copthalmia
c
...
pneumonias

b
...
trachomatis
d
...
psittasi

46
...
Frei test
c
...
Mantoux test
d
...
Which algae is pathogenic to human?
a
...
Macrocystis

b
...
Prototheca

48
...
S
...
S
...
S
...
S
...
Common cold is caused by
a
...
Hepatitis virus

b
...
Pox virus

50
...
Adeno virus
c
...
Corono virus
d
...
Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera
are
a
...
Streptomycines

b
...
None of these

$"

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

52
...
Undulent fever
c
...
Remittent fever
d
...
Which of the following Salmonella
paratyphi is the commonest in India?
a
...
C

b
...
None of these

54
...
Liver
c
...
Gall bladder
d
...
True about Enteric fever is
a
...

c
...


Bacteraemia in first week
Carrier in 90%
All serotypes cause the disease
Rosy spots on 18th day

56
...

b
...

d
...
cholerae
V
...
typhi

57
...
coli produces the following toxins:
a
...
Verocytotoxins

b
...
Hemolysins

58
...

Coli, except
a
...

c
...

e
...
Diphtheria is caused by
a
...

c
...


Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C
...
Jeikeium
C
...
Causative organism of diphtheria was
first demonstrated by
a
...
Lois Pasteur

c
...
Volhard and Fahr

61
...
Gram positive
b
...
Gram negative
d
...
C
...
Startch granules
b
...
Lipid granules
d
...
The incubation period of diphtheriae is
a
...
2–4 weeks

b
...
None of these

64
...
Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test
b
...
C
...
P test
d
...
R
...
test
65
...
Aldehyde
c
...
Formalin
d
...
Diphtheria is an example of
a
...
Pyaemia

c
...
Toxaemia

67
...
Tubercle formation b
...
Both a and b

d
...
BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
a
...
Diphtheria

c
...
Tuberculosis

69
...
0
...
5 ml

b
...
1 ml

c
...
05 ml

d
...
2 to 0
...
Negative Mantoux test is important in
a
...
Sarcoidosis
c
...
Lymphoma

$#

MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY
71
...

b
...

d
...
Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
a
...

c
...


Refampicin, Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
Both a and b
None of these

73
...

b
...

d
...
Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
a
...

c
...


Tuberculoid Leprosy
Borderline tuberculoid
Borderline lepramatous
Lepronmetous leprosy

75
...

b
...

d
...
Causative agent of Scarlet fever:
a
...

c
...


Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus viridans
Stre
...
Rheumatic fever is most commonly
caused by
a
...
viridans
c
...
aures

b
...
pyogenes
d
...
Penicillin is the drug of choice for
a
...
Brucellosis

b
...
Cholera

79
...
pneumoniae causes
a
...
Pneumomnia

b
...
None of these

80
...
pneumoniae:
a
...

c
...


Capsular polysaccharide
Specific soluble substance
Vi-antigen
Forsmann antigen

81
...
Streptococcus
c
...
Pneumococcus
d
...
Influenza is belonging to
a
...
Retroviridae
c
...
None of these
83
...

b
...

d
...
‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by
a
...
pneumoniae
c
...
St
...
None of these

85
...

b
...

d
...
The commonest cause of rubella in new
bornes
a
...

c
...


Congential rubella
Post natal rubella
Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)
Both a and c

87
...
Retroviriae
b
...
Orthomyxo viridae d
...
Measles is characterized by
a
...

c
...


Negribodies
Babes-Ernest granules
Koplik’s spots
Fever

$$

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

89
...
Pertusis

b
...
Brucellosis

d
...
Mediterranian fever is caused by
a
...
tuberculosis

b
...
typhi

c
...
neoformans

d
...
Which of the following test is specific for
Brucellosis?

99
...
Chick embryo vaccine
b
...
Semple vaccine
d
...
Which anti rabic vaccine has been
recommended by WHO as the most
effective?

a
...
Weil

a
...
Castaneda strip

d
...
HDCS vaccine

92
...
Anthrax

b
...
Diphtheria

d
...
The commonest form of anthrax in man
is
a
...
Cutaneous

c
...
Hepatic

94
...
Sheep

b
...
Goats

d
...
Virus causing Rabies is
a
...
Paramyxo virus
c
...
Toga viruses

96
...
Rhabdo viridae

b
...
Paramyxo viridae d
...
Rabies Virus isolated from natural human
or animal infection is termed as
a
...
Fixed virus

c
...
None of these

98
...
The central nervous system only
b
...
Sheep brain vaccine
d
...
The causative agent of tetanus is
a
...
Cl
...
Cl
...
Cl
...
The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin
from blood to brain is
a
...
Arterial blood
c
...
None of these
103
...
Exotoxin in sympathetic system
b
...
Endotoxin in sympathetic system
d
...
The first symptom of tetanus is
a
...
Trismus

c
...
Dyspagia

105
...
Cl
...
Cl
...
Cl
...
Cl
...
Toxin produced by C
...
Muscle tissues

a
...
Tetanospasmin

d
...
Tetanolysin

d
...
“Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the
toxin of
a
...

c
...


Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyoge
Vibrio cholerae
Candida

108
...
T
...
T
...
T
...
T
...
Spirochaelis are sensitive to
a
...
Chloramphenicols
c
...
Tetracyclins

a
...
ELISA

c
...
None of these

a
...
Slide flocculation test
c
...
None of these
112
...
Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria
b
...
Oxidase positive organisms
d
...
Gonorrhoea is
Air borne disease
Water borne disease
Sexually transmitted venereal disease
Both a and c

114
...
Streptococcus
d
...
Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
a
...
Arthritis

117
...
Toga Viruses
b
...
Para myxo Viruses d
...
In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first
isolated from the mosquitoes of the
a
...

c
...


Culex tritaeriorhynchus
Culex annulirostris
Culex vishnui
None of these

a
...
Aedes aegypti

b
...
All of the above

b
...
Culex

120
...
Bunya virus
c
...
VDRL test is a

a
...
Staphylococcus

a
...
Cell membrane
c
...
Cyclic enzymes

119
...
Specific test for syphilis is

a
...

c
...


116
...
Calci virus
d
...
Vector for leishmaniasis is
a
...
Sand fly

b
...
Tsetse fly

122
...
Kala-agar
c
...
Typhoid
d
...
Which of the following is most severly
affected in Kala-azar?
a
...

c
...


Liver
Spleen
Adrenal gland
Bone marrow

124
...

b
...

d
...
Man is intermediate host for
a
...
Malaria

b
...
Kala-azar

$&

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

126
...
P
...
P
...
P
...
P
...
In which type of material parasite in the
exoerythrocytic stage absent?
a
...
ovale
c
...
falciparum

b
...
vivax
d
...
malariae

128
...
Ring stage
c
...
Schizont
d
...
Sporozite vaccine in malaria has
a
...

c
...


Induces antibodies
Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction
No effects on clinical illness
None of the above

130
...
P
...
P
...
P
...
P
...
Thin blood smear for malaria is used to
identify
a
...
Type of parasite

b
...
Schizont

132
...

b
...

d
...
Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis
a
...

c
...


Osteogenic sarcoma
Lymphatic leukemia
Malaise & Anorexia
Both a and b

134
...

b
...

d
...
Penicillic acid is produced by
a
...
ochraceus
c
...
P
...
None of the above

136
...
Moulds
c
...
Filamentous fungi
d
...
Candidiasis is caused by
a
...
Aspergillus spp
...
E
...
M
...
Candida albicans is capable to form
a
...
Pseudomonas
c
...
None of these
139
...
A
...
A
...
A
...
A
...
A
...
Endotoxins
c
...
Exotoxins
d
...
The drug of choice for dermal, oral and
vaginal candidiasis is
a
...
Gentian violet

b
...
Nystatin

142
...
P
...
P
...
P
...
P
...
Tinea versicolor is caused by
a
...
Malassezia furfur
c
...
None of these
144
...

b
...

d
...
Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
a
...

c
...


Histoplasma capsulatum
Histoplasma duboissi
Aspergillus niger
Aspergillus flavus

$'

MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY
146
...

b
...

d
...
bacitracin sensitivity test is done for

Actinomyces irraeli
Chromoblastomycosis
Streptomyces griseus
Cryptococcosis

147
...
Bacteriostatic
c
...
Bactericidal
d
...
Griseofluvin is obtained from
a
...

c
...


Penicillium notatum
Streptomyces griseus
Penicillium griseofluvin
None of these

149
...
Erythromycin
c
...
Penicillin
d
...
All of the following drugs act on cell
membrane, except
a
...
Chloromycetin

b
...
Colicins

151
...
Serine
c
...
Aspergine
d
...
In Tuberculosis therapy mainly used
antibiotic is
a
...
Chloramphenol

b
...
Cycloserine

153
...

b
...

d
...
The antibiotic produced from Bacillus
subtilis is
a
...
Both a and b

b
...
None of these

a
...
Group ‘A’ Streptococci
c
...
Staphylococci
156
...
Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
b
...
Inhibition of nucleic acid and protein
synthesis
d
...
The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
a
...
Bacitracin

c
...
All of the above

158
...
â-lactose

b
...
Macrolides

d
...
Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is
transmitted by
a
...
Transformation

c
...
Plasmids

160
...
Attaching to 30 S ribosome unit
b
...
By the attachment to t-RNA
d
...
The function of (THFA) Tetrahydrofolic acid
coenzyme include
a
...
Thymidine synthesis
c
...
Both a and b
162
...
Transduction

b
...
Conjugation

d
...
Which of the following is penicillinase
resistang acid labile penicillin?

a
...
Thermal death point (TDP)

a
...
Cloxacillin

c
...
Carbenicillin

d
...
None of these

164
...
Penicillin

b
...
Amikacin

172
...
Vancomycin

a
...
The anti tumor antibiotics act by inhibiting

b
...
Cell wall synthesis

c
...
RNA synthesis

d
...
Cell membrane synthesis
d
...
Bacitracin is obtained from
a
...
subtilis

a
...
Folic acid synthetase

b
...
anthracis

c
...
cereus

166
...
B
...
Vancomycin is obtained from
a
...
Drug alteration

b
...
Low affinity for drug synthesis by bacteria

c
...
Amoxycillin is combined with clavulanic
acid to inhibit
a
...
â-lactum antibiotics are

b
...
Protein synthesis

d
...
β-lactamase enzymes

168
...
Aureus is
a
...
Neomycin

b
...
Vancomycin

a
...
Cephalosporin

c
...
None of these

176
...
P microbiological assay of antibiotics
match them correctly:
1
...


Escherichia Coli

169
...


Tetracyclin

B
...
The inhibition of DNA synthesis

3
...
Micrococcus luteus

b
...
The inhibition of cell wall synthesis

4
...


Bacillus subtilis

E
...
Both b and c
170
...
Tube-dilution test

b
...
Both a and b

d
...
The smallest amount of chemotherapeutic
agents required to inhibit the growth of
the organism in Vitro is known as

177
...

Match them correctly :
1
...


Streptomyces griseus

2
...


Bacillus polymyxa

3
...
Streptomyces mediterranei

4
...


Streptomyces nodosus

E
...
Match the correct method of sterilization
listed A to E for the following drugs :

183
...


Tetracyclin injection A
...


Oxytetracycline

Insulin injection

B
...


A
...


2
...
Sterilised by aseptic method

Streptomyces
aureofaciens

B
...

4
...


Prepared by aseptic method

3
...
Viomycin

Sterilised by heating in an
autoclave

4
...

purpurea

D
...


E
...
Match the following rickettsial disease
with their respective organisms:

Chlortetracycline
Streptomycin

184
...


Epidemic typhus

A
...


Scrub typhus

B
...


Trench typhus

C
...


Streptomycin

A
...


Murine typhus

D
...


Cycloserine

B
...


Rickettsia typhus

3
...
Fungal tuberculosis

4
...


Pulmonary tuberculosis

E
...
Match the following antimicrobial with
their respective side effects A to E:
1
...


Showed adverse effects on
proteins

2
...


exhibit synergism and
unsuitable for preservative in
eye drops

3
...
Haemolytic

4
...


Very toxic

E
...
Match the following antibiotics with their
respective modes of administration A to E:
1
...


Intramuscular suspension

2
...


Oral

3
...
Both as oral and injection

4
...


1
...


Damages 8th cramial nerve

2
...


Damages CNS

3
...
Damages
system

4
...


Skin rashes

E
...


Tetracyclines

A
...


Erythromycin

B
...


Novobiocin

C
...


Griseofulvin

D
...


Influences mitosis

Intramuscular injection

182
...
Match the following antibiotics with their
modes of action A to E:

Locally applied

E
...
Match the following antibiotics with their
respective side effects A to E:

187
...


Tablets

A
...


Tetracyclin

A
...
Intravenous injection B
...


Chloramphenicol

B
...


Capsules

C
...


Erythromycin

C
...


Gentamycin

Cycloserine

D
...


4
...


Streptomyces venezuelae

E
...
Match the following side effects with their
respective antibiotics A to E:
1
...

3
...


Nephrotoxic
Rashes
Hypersensitivity
Gastric irritation

A
...

C
...

E
...
Match the following antibiotics with their
respective activity spectra A to E:
1
...

3
...


Bacitracin
Gentamycin
Sodium fusidate
Framycetin

A
...

C
...


Gram negative
Mainly staphylococci
Mainly Ps
...
Match the following enzymes with their
activities A to E:
1
...


Collagenase

3
...


Leucocidins

A
...
Reversibly catalyzes the
breakdown of a major
component
C
...
Haemolysis of erythrocytes
and the necrosis of other cells
E
...
Match the following aggresins with their
respective modes of action from A to E:
1
...


Haemolysis

3
...


Lecithinase

A
...
Breaks down connective
tissues, increases permeability
of tissue space
C
...
Digest the fibrin of blood
E
...
Match the following terms with their
respective effects A to E:
1
...

3
...


A
...

species
Chlamydia
C
...

icterohaemorrhagiae
E
...
Virus causing mumps is also responsible
for
a
...
Hepatitis A

c
...
Variola

194
...
Group B cox sack virus
b
...
Polyomavirus
d
...
Human papillomavirus causes following
tumors:
a
...
Cervical cancer
c
...
Plantar wart
196
...
Acute self limited illness
b
...
Chronic infection with persistent viral shedding
d
...
Viruses which do not carry enzymes for
DNA synthesis as a part of their virion are
a
...
Poxyviruses
c
...
Retroviruses
e
...
Following virus is known to establish
latent infections:
a
...
Varicella-zoster virus

c
...
Hepes simplex virus

e
...
Viruses which have teratogenic property
are
a
...
Cytomegalovirus
c
...
All of these

%!

MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY
200
...
Most prevalent in Japan and Hawaii
b
...
Strain involved may be propionibacterium
d
...
Mode of action of quinolone antibiotics
on growing bacteria was thought to be
a
...
Prevention of the cross linking of glycine
c
...
Inhibition of reverse transcriptase
202
...
Secondary reservoir
b
...
Primary host
d
...
None of these
203
...
To take rest at home
b
...
To Gram stain the chancre fluid
d
...
Perform dark field microscopy for treponemes
204
...
Trepanema Pallidum
b
...

d
...


M
...
Diphtheria toxins are produced from the
strains of C
...
Encapsulated
b
...
Of the mitis and strain
d
...
Lysogenic for β prophase

206
...

b
...

d
...


Enterobacteriaceae
Aerobic diphtheria bacilli
Anaerobic diphtheriae bacilli
Nonhemolytic staphylococci
All of these

207
...

b
...

d
...


Trichinella spiralis
Taenia saginata
Taenia solium
Diphyllobothrium latum
Both a and c

208
...

b
...

d
...
Which of the following amoeba does not
live in large intestine ?
a
...

c
...


Entamoeba coli
Entamoeda histolytica
Endolimax nana
Entamoeba gingivalis

210
...
Aneurysm
c
...
Saddle nose
d
...
Streptococcus pyogens produce infection –
a
...

c
...


Streptococcal sore throat
Acute glomerulo nephritis
Rheumatic fever
None of these

212
...

a
...

c
...


Salmonella anetum
Salmonella cholerasuis
Salmonella typhimurium
Salmonella entritidis

%"

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

213
...
coli produce which type of toxins?
a
...
Leucocidin

b
...
Both a and b

214
...
B
...
Cl
...
Clostridium tetani
d
...
perfringens

215
...

b
...

d
...
VDRL test
b
...
Kahn’s test
d
...
Sporadic summer diarrhea may be
caused by
a
...
coli
c
...
Enterobacter
d
...
Biological false reaction in VDRL is related
to
a
...
Pfeiffer phenomenon is related to
a
...
Rickettsial pox

217
...
B
...
All of these

b
...
Cl
...
None of these

ANSWERS
1
...
a
13
...
a
25
...
d
37
...
d
49
...
a
61
...
a
73
...
c
85
...
c
97
...
a
109
...
d
121
...
b
8
...
d
20
...
a
32
...
a
44
...
a
56
...
b
68
...
d
80
...
d
92
...
d
104
...
a
116
...
d

3
...
a
15
...
b
27
...
b
39
...
b
51
...
b
63
...
b
75
...
a
87
...
b
99
...
c
111
...
b
123
...
c
10
...
c
22
...
d
34
...
c
46
...
d
58
...
b
70
...
c
82
...
b
94
...
b
106
...
d
118
...
a

5
...
b
17
...
d
29
...
a
41
...
d
53
...
a
65
...
c
77
...
b
89
...
c
101
...
a
113
...
c
125
...
b
12
...
d
24
...
c
36
...
b
48
...
b
60
...
d
72
...
a
84
...
d
96
...
c
108
...
d
120
...
b

MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY

127
...
b
129
...
a
131
...
c
133
...
d
135
...
a
137
...
b
139
...
a
141
...
d
143
...
b
145
...
a
147
...
c
149
...
d
151
...
d
153
...
b
155
...
d
157
...
c
159
...
b
161
...
d
163
...
c
165
...
b
167
...
d
169
...
c
171
...
b
173
...
c
175
...
1
...
e, 3
...
a
177
...
c, 2
...
d, 4
...
1
...
c, 3
...
b
179
...
b, 2
...
d, 4
...
1
...
c,3
...
a
181
...
b, 2
...
e, 4
...
1
...
e, 3
...
b
183
...
e, 2
...
a, 4
...
1
...
d,3
...
c
185
...
d, 2
...
b, 4
...
1
...
c, 3
...
e
187
...
b, 2
...
e, 4
...
1
...
c,3
...
e
189
...
e, 2
...
d, 4
...
1
...
c, 3
...
a
191
...
b, 2
...
d, 4
...
1
...
b,3
...
e
193
...
a
195
...
d
197
...
e
199
...
d
201
...
d
203
...
d
205
...
e
207
...
b
209
...
a
211
...
b
213
...
d
215
...
a
217
...
a
219
...
The best medium for the production of
Penicillin is
a
...
Corn steep liquor
c
...
Whey
2
...

b
...

d
...
Industrial alchohol will be produced by
using starter culture
a
...
Bottom yeast

b
...
Feeder yeast

4
...

b
...

d
...
The pyruvate, dehydrogenase → multienzyme complex does not occur in
a
...

c
...


Aerobic bacteria
Microphilic bacteria
Facultative anaerobic bacteria
Strictly anaerobic bacteria

6
...
Corn meal

b
...
Cane steep liquor d
...
the outstanding example of traditional
microbial fermentation product is
a
...
Penicillin

c
...
Tetracyclin

8
...
Ammonification

b
...
Nitrification

d
...
First genetically engineered and biotechnologically produced vaccine was against
a
...
Small pox

c
...
Hepatitis B
...
one of the standard cloning vector widely
used in gene cloning is
a
...
EMBL 3

c
...
EMBL 4

11
...
Decarboxylatin of pyruvic acid
b
...
Oxidation of acetaldehyde
d
...
In the industrial production of streptomycin, the secondary metabolite or byproducts is
a
...
Vitamin – B6

b
...
Ethanol

13
...
This type of
fermentation is known as
a
...

c
...


Alcohol fermentation
Curing
Degradation
Lactic acid fermentation

14
...
Yeasts only
b
...
Yeasts with acetic acid bacteria
d
...
Carcinoma refers to
a
...
Malignant tumors of the skin or mucous
membrane
c
...
Malignant tumors of the connective tissue
16
...
Riboflavin
c
...
Penicillin
d
...
Transgenic animals are for improvement
of the quality of
a
...
Eggs

b
...
All of the above

18
...
Freezing
c
...
Canning
d
...
The fungus used in the industrial production of citric acid:
a
...

c
...


Rhizopus Oryzac
Fusarium moniliformae
Rhizopus nigricans
Aspergillus nigricans

20
...
P
...
P
...
P
...
P
...
The most commonly used microorganism
in alchohol fermentation is
a
...

c
...


A spergilus niger
Bacillus subtilis
Sacharomyces cerevisiae
Escherichia coli

22
...

b
...

d
...
Coli

23
...

b
...

d
...
To differentiate lactose and non-lactose
fermentors the medium used is
a
...

c
...


Mac Conkey’s medium
Stuart’s medium
Sugar medium
Citrate medium

25
...
Bacteria
c
...
Yeast
d
...
Industrial microbiology, mainly depends
on the phenomenon
a
...
Vaccination

b
...
Both b and c

27
...
Fibrionolysin
c
...
Catalase
d
...
Streptokinase is produced by
a
...

c
...


Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Str
...
pyogenes

%'

INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY
29
...
Bio reactor
c
...
Auto reactor
d
...
Basic principle in industrial microbiology
is
a
...

c
...


Suitable growth conditions
Fermentation
Providing aseptic conditions
All of these

31
...
Shaft
c
...
Headspace
d
...
Infermentor the top portion left without
broth is called
a
...
Impeller

b
...
Sparger

33
...
Cooling jacket
c
...
Steam
d
...
Silicon compounds b
...
Soyabean oil
d
...
The capacity of laboratory fermentors is
b
...
10000 gallons

36
...

b
...

d
...
Different methods of strain improvement
are
a
...

c
...


a
...

c
...


Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Both a & b
None of these

39
...

b
...

d
...
The purification and recovery of the
production after fermentation is called
a
...

c
...


Upstream process
Downstream process
Surface fermentation
None of these

41
...

b
...

d
...
Submerged fermentations are

34
...
12–15 liters
c
...
Protoplasts can be prepared from

Protoplast fusion
Recombinant DNA technique
Genetic recombination
All of these

a
...

c
...


Batch fermentation
Continuous fermentation
Both a and b
None of these

43
...
Closed system
c
...
Open system
d
...
If more than one microorganism is used
to obtain the required product, that type
of fermentation is called
a
...
Dual

b
...
Fed-batch

45
...
lysine is produced from
a
...

c
...


Coryne bacterium glutamicum
Corynebacterium sps
...

None of these

&

MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY

46
...
Adsorption
b
...
Covalent bonding d
...
Raw-material used for the production of
alcohol is
a
...

c
...


Molasses
Starch
Sulphite waste water
All of these

48
...

b
...

d
...
For streptomycin production the microorganisms required are
a
...

c
...


Streptomyces griseus
Streptomyces niger
Saccharomyces cereviceae
All of these

50
...
Vitamin A
c
...
Proline
d
...
For acetic acid production the methods
followed are
a
...

c
...


Orleans process
Rapid process
Submerged process
All of these

52
...
B
...
A
...
S
...
None of these

53
...
S
...
A
...
Trichoderma Koningi
d
...
Cellulose are produced from
a
...
cereviceae
c
...
nigar

b
...
None of these

55
...
Propionibacterium sps
...
Pseudomonas sps
...
Both a and b
d
...
Clostridium acetobutylicum is used for the
production of
a
...
Ethanol
c
...
None of these

57
...
K
...
Kluyreromyces fragilis

c
...
cerevisiae

d
...
Citric acid is used as
a
...
As an antioxident
c
...
All of the above
59
...
Aspergillus

b
...
Mucor

d
...
The raw material for citric acid production
is
a
...
Molasses

c
...
None of these

61
...
Ethanol

b
...
Citric acid

d
...
In the citric acid production, the pH to be
maintained in the fernmenter is
a
...
0

b
...
0 to 6
...
8
...
0

d
...
0 to 6
...
The required temperature for the
production of citric acid is
a
...
30oC – 50oC

c
...
25oC – 30oC

&

INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY
64
...
Penicillin-A
c
...
Penicillin-D
d
...
The strain of fungi used for the large scale
production of penicillin is
a
...

c
...


Penicillium chrysogenum
P-notatum
Streptomyces Aurecus
Saccharomyces sps

ANSWERS
1
...
a
13
...
d
25
...
c
37
...
a
49
...
c
61
...
b

2
...
c
14
...
b
26
...
b
38
...
c
50
...
b
62
...
6-amino penicillic acid is prepared from
penicillin sps by
a
...

c
...


Acylase
Punicillin acylase
Penicillinone
None of these

67
...
7
...
8
...
c
9
...
d
21
...
a
33
...
b
45
...
d
57
...
d

4
...
c
16
...
b
28
...
d
40
...
d
52
...
d
64
...
6
...
5
...
b
11
...
d
23
...
a
35
...
b
47
...
c
59
...
a

6
...
a
18
...
a
30
...
c
42
...
a
54
...
a
66

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