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080 – PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT
081-01

SUBSONIC AERODYNAMICS
081-01-01 Basics, laws and definitions

2625
...
Assuming ISA conditions, which statement with respect to the climb is correct?
A – At constant TAS the Mach number decreases
B – At constant Mach number the IAS increases
C – At constant IAS the TAS decreases
D – At constant IAS the Mach number increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
3848
...
The point about which the wing pitching moment is independent of angle of
attack is called:
A – the pitching centre
B – the centre of gravity
C – the centre of pressure
D – the aerodynamic centre
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4184
...
The unit of density is:
A – Bar
B – psi
C – kg/cm2
D – kg/m3
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4199
...
The term angle of attack is defined as:
A – the angle that determines the magnitude of the lift force
B – the angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind
C – the angle between the relative airflow and the horizontal axis
D – the angle between the wing and tailplane incidence
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4202
...
At a constant IAS, induced drag is affected by:
A – aircraft weight
B – changes in thrust
C – angle between chord line and longitudinal axis
D – wing location
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4213
...
At a constant CAS when flying below sea level an aircraft will have:
A – a higher TAS than at sea level
B – a lower TAS than at sea level at ISA conditions
C – the same TAS as at sea level
D – the same TAS, but an increased IAS
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4232
...
The units of wing loading (i) W / S and (ii) dynamic pressure q are:
A – (i) N/m2; (ii) kg/m2
B – (i) kg/m; (ii) N/m2
C – (i) N/m; (ii) kg
D – (i) N/m2; (ii) N/m2
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4252
...
The units of the density of the air (i) and the force (ii) are:
A – (i) kg/m3; (ii) N
B – (i) kg/m3; (ii) kg
C – (i) N/m3; (ii) N
D – N/kg; (ii) kg
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7643
...
The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal
2
...
A symmetrical aerofoil section at CL = 0 will produce?
A – A negative (nose down) pitching moment
B – A positive (nose up) pitching moment
C – Zero pitching moment
D – No aerodynamic force
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7650
...
What is the SI unit that results from multiplying kg and m/s2?
A – Joule
B – Psi
C – Newton
D – Watt
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7658
...
What happens to total drag when accelerating from CL MAX to maximum
speed?
A – Increases
B – Increases then decreases
C – Decreases
D – Decreases then increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7689
...
4 times the lift
B - twice the lift
C – four times the lift
D – the same lift
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

7691
...
Which of the following is the correct description of the method for measuring
the dihedral angle?
A – The angle between the wing plane and the horizontal
B – The angle between a line which passes through the 25% wing chord and
the horizontal axis
C – The angle between the 25% chord line and the horizontal axis
D – The angle between 25% chord and the lateral axis
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7700
...
What phenomena causes induced drag?
A – Wing tip vortices
B – Wing tanks
C – The increased pressure at the leading edge
D – The spanwise flow, inward below the wing and outward above
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

7707
...
The following unit of measurement kgm/s? is expressed in the SI-system as:
A – Pascal
B – Newton
C – Joule
D – Watt
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7715
...
Which of the following is the speed that would activate the stick shaker:
A – 1
...
05 VS
C – 1
...
If the IAS is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor would the drag increase?
A–4
B–8
C – 12
D – 16
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7724
...
What are the correct SI units for density and force?
A – KG/N, Nm3
B – N/m3, Kg
C – Kg/m3, Newtons
D – KG/m3, Kg
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7738
...
At a given CAS an aircraft flying below sea level will have:
A – the same TAS as at sea level
B – a lower TAS than at sea level
C – a higher TAS than at sea level
D – the same TAS as at sea level but an increased IAS
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7751
...
A line connecting the leading and trailing edge midway between the upper and
lower surface of an aerofoil
...
In recovery from a spin:
A – ailerons should be kept neutral
B – airspeed increases
C – ailerons used to stop the spin
D – ruddeer and ailerons used against the direction of spin rotation
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

7761
...
What is the SI unit which results from multiplying kg and m/s squared?
A – Newton
B – Psi
C – Joule
D – Watt
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7775
...
The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the
airplane is known as the angle of:
A – attack
B – relative wind
C – incidence
D – dihedral
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

7793
...
In subsonic flight, which is correct for VMD?
A – Parasite drag greater than induced drag
B – CL and CD are minimum
C – Best glide range achieved
D – Best endurance speed for a piston engine
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7803
...
The aspect ratio of the wing:
A – is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord
B – is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord
C – is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span
D – is the ratio between chord and root chord
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7812
...
Bernoullis Theorem states:
A – dynamic pressure increase and static pressure increase
B – dynamic pressure increase and static pressure decrease
C – dynamic pressure is maximum at stagnation point
D – zero pressure at zero dynamic pressure
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7821
...
The true airspeed (TAS) is:
A – higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane
B – lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes
below sea level
C – equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level
D – lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7835
...
What effect on stall speed do the following have?
A – Increased anhedral increases stall speed
B – Fitting a T tail will reduce stall speed
C – Increasing sweepback decreases stall speed
D – Decreasing sweep angle decreases stall speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7839
...
In a symmetrical airfoil the mean camber line is?
A – A line joining points of mean camber along the wing
B – A line joining points of maximum camber along the wing
C – A curve co-incident with the top surface of the airfoil
D – A straight line co-incident with the chord line
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

7854
...
Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when Cl=0 is:
A – negative (pitch-down)
B – equal to zero
C – infinite
D – positive (pitch-up)
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7887
...
Longitudinal dihedral is:
A – the difference between the wing and tail angle of sweep
B - the difference between the wing and tail angle of incidence
C – when the wing has anhedral and the tail dihedral
D – the difference between the wing and tail dihedral angles
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7895
...
Which of the following statements are correct?
A – Drag acts in the same direction as the relative airflow and lift
perpendicular to it
B – Lift acts at right angles to the top surface of the wing and drag acts at right
angles to lift
C – Drag acts parallel to the chord and opposite to the direction of motion of
the aircraft and lift acts perpendicular to the chord
D – Lift acts perpendicular to the horizontal and drag parallel in a rearwards
direction
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7909
...
The velocity of the stream in the tube is V
...
Static pressure acts:
A – parallel to airflow
B – parallel to dynamic pressure
C – in all directions
D – downwards
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

7925
...
Dihedral of the wing is:
A – the angle between the 0
...
25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis
D – the angle between the 0
...
Which one of the following statements about Bernoullis theorem is correct?
A – The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point
B – The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases
C – The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero
D – The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7952
...
Its mean chord
would be:
A – 4 feet
B – 10 feet
C – 7
...
5 feet
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

7966
...
The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the
angle between the:
A – bottom surface and the chord line
B – chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow
C – bottom surface and the Horizontal
D – bottom surface and the relative airflow
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
15609
...
a
B – a = F
...
a
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
15610
...
The Cl – alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the
vertical axis of the Cl – alpha graph:
A – in the origin
B – below the origin
C – nowhere
D – above the origin
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
15695
...
Its flight Mach range between low-speed buffering
and high-speed buffering goes from:
A – M = 0
...
84
B – M = 0
...
84
C – M = 0
...
84
D – M = 0
...
84
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
15697
...
The correct drag formula is:
A – D = CD ½ RHO V? S
B – D = CD 2 RHO V? S
C – D = CD ½ RHO V S
D – D = CD ½ 1/RHO V? S
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

15736
...
The total pressure is:
A – can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream
B – static pressure plus the dynamic pressure
C – static pressure minus the dynamic pressure
D – ½ rho V2
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
15738
...
The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:
A – degrees cross section tail angle
B - % chord
C – camber
D – meters
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

15750
...
High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of:
A – increasing lift and drag
B – increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack
C – decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack
D – increasing lift and critical angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
15760
...
Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the:
A – horizon
B – relative wind/airflow
C – chord line
D – longitudinal axis
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

15775
...
For an aircraft in level flight, if the wing centre of pressure is aft of the centre
of gravity and there is no thrust/drag couple, the tailplane load must be:
A – upward
B – unknown-insufficient information has been provided
C – downward
D – zero
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
16659
...
In straight and level flight the centre of pressure is behind the centre of
gravity
...
The service ceiling of an aircraft is:
A – the altitude where rate of climb is zero
B – the highest altitude permitted for flight because of manoeuvre capability
C – the altitude where a low specific rate of climb is achieved
D – the altitude above which cruising speed cannot be maintained
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
16671
...
an aerofoil is cambered when:
A – the upper surface of the aerofoil is curved
B – the chord line is curved
C – the line, which connects the centres of all inscribed circles, is curved
D – the maximum thickness is large compared with the length of the chord
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21036
...
Bernoulli’s equation is:
(note: rho is density; pstat is static pressure; pdyn is dynamic pressure; ptot is
total pressure)
A – ptot + 1rho * TAS2 = constant
B – ptat + 1rho * IAS2 = constant
C – pdyn + 1rho * IAS2 = constant
D – pstat + 1rho * TAS2 = constant
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21039
...
an increase in temperature of the flow at a constant value of V
will:
A – increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the
flow
B – increase the mass flow
C – not affect the mass flow
D – decrease the mass flow
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21077
...
In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following
pressure changes will occur:
Ps = static pressure
Pdyn = dynamic pressure
Ptot = total pressure
A – Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, static temperature increases
B – Ps increases, Pdyn decreases, Ptot remains constant
C – Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, Ptot remains constant
D – Ps decreases, Ptot increases, static temperature decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21108
...
The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is the angle between the:
A – bottom surface and the chord line
B – bottom surface and the horizontal
C – bottom surface and the relative airflow
D – chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21116
...
The Sl unit of measurement for pressure is:
A – lb/gal
B – kg/m3
C – N/m2
D – bar/dm2
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21130
...
The unit of measurement for density is:
A – kg/m3
B – psi
C – kg/cm2
D – bar
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21165
...
Which of the following statements about a venture in a sub sonic airflow are
correct?
1
...
the total pressures in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal
A – 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect
D – 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23200
...
The input connections to an Air Speed Indicator are from:
A – a static source only
B – a pitot source only
C – both pitot and static sources
D – pitot and static sources and outside air temperature sensor
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23202
...
For a cambered aerofoil which of the following statements is correct:
A – it will give lift at small negative angles of attack
B – at negative angles of attack it will produce negative lift only
C – it will give lift at positive angles of attack only
D – it will give negative lift at small positive angles of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23205
...
As air flows into the converging section of a venture:
A – static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow decreases
B – static pressure increases, velocity decreases, mass flow is constant
C – static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow is constant
D – static pressure decreases, velocity decreases, mass flow decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23208
...
The chord line of an aerofoil is:
A – a line from wing tip to wing tip
B – a line from the leading edge to trailing edge equidistant from the upper
and lower surfaces
C – a straight line joining the centre of curvature of the leading and trailing
edges
D – a horizontal line tangential to the wing surface
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23210
...
A symmetrical aerofoil at zero degree angle of attack will, in level flight
produce:
A – most of its lift on the lower surface
B – most of its lift on the upper surface
C – the same amount of lift on the upper and lower surfaces
D – zero lift
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23227
...
At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed:
A – will be unchanged, but ground speed will be faster
B – will be higher, but ground speed will be unchanged
C – should be increased to compensate for the thinner air
D – to maintain the required dynamic pressure the indicated airspeed should
be increased
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23236
...
Effective angle of attack is the:
A – angle between the chord line and the mean direction of a non-uniform
disturbed air stream
B – angle between the relative airflow and the chord line
C – angle between the chord line and the fuselage horizontal datum
D – angle between the fuselage horizontal datum and the chord line of the
horizontal stabiliser
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23240
...
If the speed of an aircraft is 100 miles per hour, its speed in knots would be:
A – 87 kts
B – 115 kts
C – 70 kts
D – 65 kts
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23242
...
5 degrees C at 26
...
5 degrees F at 36
...
5 degrees C at 36
...
5 degrees C at 36
...
In ISA pressure decreases:
A – at a constant rate as altitude increases
B – at a rate of milibar per 30 ft at low altitudes
C – at a rate of 0
...
If an aircraft is descending at 500 ft/min from 5000 ft altitude, the rate of
pressure increase outside the aircraft is:
A – greater than the rate of pressure increase outside an aircraft descending at
500 ft/min from 15000 ft to 10000 ft
B – less than the rate of pressure increase outside an aircraft descending at 500
ft/min from 15000 ft to 10000 ft
C – equal to the rate of pressure increase outside an aircraft descending at
5000 ft/min at any altitude
D – the rate of change will be the same
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23248
...
A wing has a span of 64m and an area of 525 square metres
...
8 m
B – 0
...
2 m
D – 3
...
A wing would be said to be swept back if:
A – the wing tips were lower than the wing roots
B – the tip chord was less than the root chord
C – the quarter chord line was inclined backwards from the lateral axis
D – the tip incidence was less than the root incidence
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23253
...
A wing with a high thickness : chord ratio would be suitable for:
A – an aircraft with a high wing loading
B – an aircraft intended to operate at high speed
C – an aircraft intended to operate at low speed
D – an aircraft designed to operate at extremely high altitudes
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23272
...
The distance
in the moment is merely a leverage and no movement is involved
B – the product of a force and the distance through which it moves
C – the product of the application of a force
D – the vector quantity of a lever
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23275
...
The position error of an ASI results from:
A – mechanical differences in individual instruments
B – the difference in air density from sea level ISA ensity
C – the effects of the airflow around the static vent and pitot head
D – the fact that air becomes more compressible at high speeds
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23277
...
If the atmospheric pressure is less than standard:
A – take-off distance would be reduced
B – take-off distance would be increased
C – take-off distance would not be affected
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23281
...
The aspect ratio
is:
A – 3:1
B – 10:1
C – 30:1
D – 9:1
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23282
...
The most correct list of factors that affect the lift produced by an aerofoil are:
A – angle of attack, air density, velocity, wing area
B – angle of attack, air temperature, velocity, wing area
C – angle of attack, velocity, wing area, aerofoil section, air density
D – incidence, TAS, wing plan, leading edge radius and thrust
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23287
...
The aspect
ratio is:
A – 5 to 1
B – 30 to 1
C – 180 to 1
D – 6 to 1
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23289
...
A swept wing:
A – produces more lift at a given angle of attack than an equivalent straight
wing
B – reaches the critical angle of attack before an equivalent straight wing
C – produces less lift at a given angle of attack than an equivalent straight
D – produces zero lift at zero angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23310
...
87
B – divide the knots by 0
...
87 and divide by the relative density
D – divide the knots by 8
...
The aerodynamic centre is the point on the chord line where:
A – drag acts
B – the sum of all aerodynamic forces act
C – the geometric centre of the wing is located
D – the pitching moment remains constant throughout changes in angle of
attack within the normal range
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23313
...
Airflow, the product of the aircraft moving forwards, parallel to and in the
opposite direction to the flight path, its pressure, temperature and relative
velocity unaffected by the presence of the aircraft:
A – is known as static pressure
B – is known as dynamic pressure
C – is known as total pressure
D – is known as relative airflow
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

23316
...
The density of air may be measured in:
A – kg/square metre
B – milibars
C – kg/cubic metre
D – Newton’s per cubic metre
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23343
...
Density of the atmosphere will:
A – increase with rising humidity
B – decrease with rising humidity
C – remain unaffected by changes in humidity
D – decrease with reduced humidity
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23488
...
If air is assumed to be incompressible, this means:
A – there will be no change in pressure when the speed of the airflow is
changed
B – there will be no change of density due to change of pressure
C – the density will only change with speed at supersonic speed
D – pressure changes will only occur at very high speeds
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23579
...
What is the SI unit for density?
A – mV2
B – kg/cm2
C – kg-m
D – kg/m3
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

23611
...
Which of the following is the equation for power?
A – N/m
B – NM/s
C – Pa/s2
D – Kg/m/s2
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23734
...
The aerodynamic centre is:
A – the point where the CG meets the lateral axis
B – the point where all changes in the magnitude of the lift force effectively
take place
C – situated at about 50% chord
D – always to the rear of the neutral point
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

24077
...
Which of the following wing planforms will be least affected by turbulence?
A – straight, high aspect ratio
B – swept, low aspect ratio
C – straight, moderate aspect ratio
D – swept, high aspect ratio
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

081-01-02 The two-dimensional airflow about an aerofoil
4208
...
With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (i) and the point
of lowest pressure will move (ii)
...
Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack
...
Which of the following is the greatest factor causing lift?
A – Increased airflow velocity below the wing
B – Increased pressure below wing
C – Suction above the wing
D – Decreased airflow velocity above the wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7679
...
What is the purpose of a slat on the leading edge?
A – Decelerate the air over the top surface
B – Thicken the laminar boundary layer over the top surface
C – Increase the camber of the wing
D – Allow greater angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

7686
...
What is true regarding deployment of Slats/Krueger flaps?
A – Slats increase the critical angle of attack, Krueger flaps do not
B – Krueger flaps increase the critical angle of attack, Slats do not
C – Krueger flaps form a slot, Slats do not
D – Slats form a slot, Krueger flaps do not
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7742
...
Cambered wing sections give ____ maximum CL at a relatively ___ angles of
attack
...
At zero angle of attack in flight, a symmetrical wing section will produce:
A – some lift and drag
B – zero lift with some induced and profile drag
C – zero lift and drag
D – zero lift with some drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7901
...
The lift force, acting on an aerofoil:
A – is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil
B – increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees
C – is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil
D – is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7911
...
On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of
attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume
a conventional transport aeroplane):
A – move forward
B – move aft
C – remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre
D – remain unaffected
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7929
...
g
...
Which statement is correct?
A – The centre of pressure is the point on the wings leading edge where the
airflow splits up
B – As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wings profile
moves downwards
C – The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure
D – The stagnation point is always situated on the chord line, the centre of
pressure is not
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
15608
...
The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the
change of the:
A – point of lowest pressure
B – stagnation point
C – centre of pressure
D – centre of gravity
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
16677
...
A flat plate, when positioned in the airflow at a small angle of attack, will
produce:
A – both lift and drag
B – lift but no drag
C – drag but no lift
D – neither lift nor drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21040
...
If in a two-dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines
converge the static pressure in the flow will:
A – not change
B – increase
C – decrease
D – increase initially, then decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21093
...
The location of the centre of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil section
at increasing angle of attack will:
A – shift forward until approaching the critical angle of attack
B – not shift
C – shift aft until approaching the critical angle of attack
D – shift in spanwise direction
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21128
...
What is the stagnation point?
A – The intersection of the total aerodynamic force and the chord line
B – The point where the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero
C – The intersection of the thrust vector and the chord line
D – The point, relative to which the sum total of all moments is independent of
angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21186
...
The angle of attack of a positively cambered aerofoil has a negative value
when the lift coefficient equals zero
2
...
A symmetrical aerofoil set at zero angle of attack in an air stream will
produce:
A – lift and drag
B – no lift and no drag
C – lift but no drag
D – drag but no lift
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23211
...
If the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased slightly, the C of P will:
A – move forward slightly
B – move forward to the leading edge
C – move rearward
D – remain stationary
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23214
...
Due to the span wise pressure gradient, on an unswept wing at a low angle of
attack, producing lift, the airflow:
A – on the upper surface tends to flow towards the tip, on the lower surface
towards the root
B – on both upper and lower surfaces tends to flow towards the tip
C – on the upper surface tends to flow towards the root, on the lower surface
towards the tip
D – on both upper and lower surfaces tends to flow equally towards the root
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23216
...
For a typical wing the optimum angle of attack is approximately:
A - -3o
B – 0o
C – 4o
D – 15o
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23231
...
Of the total lift produced by the wing:
A – the lower surface produces the greater proportion
B – the upper and lower surfaces always give equal proportions of the lift
C – the upper surface produces the greater proportion at high speed, but the
lower surface produces the greater proportion at low speed
D – the upper surface produces the greater proportion at all speeds
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23251
...
Between approximately 8 and 15 degrees angle of attack an aerofoil produces
lift due to:
A – an increase in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a
decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past the
under surface giving a decrease in pressure
B – an increase in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a
decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past the
under surface giving an increase in pressure
C – a decrease in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a
decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past the
under surface giving an increase in pressure
D – a decrease in the speed of the airflow over the lower surface giving an
increase in pressure and a decrease in pressure over the upper surface
causing an increase in velocity
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23279
...
With a decrease in angle of attack:
A – the stagnation point moves forward
B – the separation point moves forward
C – form drag will increase
D – induced drag will increase
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23341
...
At positive angles of attack, a wing produces most lift at:
A – 4o angle of attack
B – wings level
C – just before the stall
D – just after the stall
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23351
...
If the CG is ahead of the wing CP and there is no thrust/drag couple, for level
flight:
A – the wing lift must be greater than the weight
B – the wing lift must be less than the weight
C – the wing lift must be exactly equal to weight
D – the aircraft could not be balanced
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23467
...
A symmetrical aerofoil section of a wing is set at zero AOA will produce:
A – most of the lift on the upper surface
B – most of the lift on the lower surface
C – depends on the aircraft’s speed
D – zero lift
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23585
...
Where does airflow separation begin?
A – upper surface/towards the leading edge
B – lower surface/towards the trailing edge
C – upper surface/towards the trailing edge
D – lower surface/towards the leading edge
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23668
...
Consider a positively cambered aerofoil section, the pitching moment when
Cl = 0 will be:
A – negative
B – infinite
C – positive
D – equal to zero
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
24539
...
An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled
...
25
B – x 2
...
5
D – x 4
...
A body is placed in a certain airstream
...
The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor:
A–4
B–2
C–8
D – 1
...
The aerofoil polar is:
A – the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed
B – a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack
C – a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient
D – a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given as a function
of the chord
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7714
...
The terms q and S in the lift formula are:
A – square root of surface and wing loading
B – dynamic pressure and the area of the wing
C – static pressure and wing surface area
D – static pressure and dynamic pressure
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7826
...
g
...
A body is placed in a certain airstream
...
The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor:
A–8
B–4
C – 16
D – 12
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7867
...
Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack:
A – CL is much greater than CD
B – CL has approximately the same value as CD
C – CL is lower than CD
D – CL is much lower than CD
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

7920
...
Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the following effect on the drag
of an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant):
A – the drag decreases
B – this has no effect
C – the drag increases
D – the drag is only affected by the ground speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7949
...
The shape will not alter
...
5
B–9
C–6
D–3
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21021
...

What will be the new value of CL after the speed has doubled, whilst still
maintaining the original condition of flight?
A – 1
...
50
C – 0
...
00
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

21035
...
In straight and level flight at a speed of 1
...
Which of the following parameters can be read from the parabolic polar
diagram of an aeroplane?
A – The aspect ratio of the wing and the induced drag coefficient
B – The minimum rate of descent and the induced drag
C – The induced drag and the parasite drag
D – The minimum glide angle and the parasite drag coefficient
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21178
...
For a given angle of attack the lift/drag ratio:
A – decreases with increase of density
B – is unaffected by density changes
C – increases with increase of density
D – decreases with decrease of density
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23288
...
The take-off distance required for a swept wing aircraft compared to the same
aircraft without sweep would be:
A – less because the acceleration would be better
B – the same because the take-off speed will be the same
C – greater, because Cl will be less for a given IAS
D – less because the take-off speed will be lower
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23352
...
Which is the coefficient for minimum glide angle?
A – (Cl/Cd) min
B – (Cl/Cd) max
C – Cl2/Cd
D – Cl3/Cd2
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23635
...
When considering the coefficient of lift and angle of attack of aerofoil
sections:
A – a symmetric section at zero angle of attack will produce a small positive
coefficient of lift
B – an asymmetric section at zero angle of attack will produce zero coefficient
of lift
C – a symmetric section at zero angle of attack will produce zero coefficient of
lift
D – aerofoil section symmetry has no effect on lift coefficient
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23695
...
Which of the following formulae is correct for JAR25?
A – VA = VS1G x √CNMax
B – VS1G = VA x √CNMax
C – VA = VS1G x √n2
D – VA = VS1G x n
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4192
...
Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes the airflow that
causes wing tip vortices?
A – From the tip to the root on the top surface and from the root to the tip on
the bottom surface over the wing tip
B – From the tip to the root on the top surface and from the root to the tip on
the bottom surface over the trailing edge
C – From the root to the tip on the top surface and from the tip to the root on
the bottom surface over the trailing edge
D – From the root to the tip on the top surface and from the tip to the root on
the bottom surface over the wing tip
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4223
...
Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDI) is the ratio of:
A – CL2 and S (wing surface)
B – CL2 and AR (aspect ratio)
C – CL and CD
D – CL and b (wing span)
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4258
...
An increase in aspect ratio will:
A – have no effect on a wing or airfoil section
B – cause VIMD to be reduced
C – cause induced drag to increase
D – cause VIMD to be increased
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7669
...
With flaps deployed, at a constant IAS in straight and level flight, the
magnitude of tip vortices:
A – increases
B – increases or decreases depending upon the initial angle of attack
C – decreases
D – remains the same
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7712
...
Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced rag?
A – Wing root junction
B – Engine cowling
C – Wing tip
D – Landing gear
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7829
...
The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with:
-

A – CL2
B – CL
C – square root (CL)
D – CLmax
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

7876
...
3 aspect ratio value
D – an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7904 – Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by:
A – engine thrust
B – aeroplane weight
C – aeroplane wing location
D – angle between wing chord and fuselage centre line
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7913
...
A function of vortex generators in the transonic regime is to:
A – reduce boundary layer separation drag when shock waves form
B – prevent the rearward shift of CP on swept wing stalls
C – reduce wing root compression effects
D – increase directional static stability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7946
...
How do vortex generators work?
A – Re-direct spanwise flow
B – Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer
C – Reduce kinetic energy to delay separation
D – Reduce the adverse pressure gradient
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
15614
...
An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1
...
What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane’s wing on induced drag?
A – It is unaffected because there is no relation between aspect ratio and
induced drag
B – It is increased because high aspect ratio produces greater downwash
C – It is reduced because the effect of wing-tip vortices is reduced
D – It is increased because high aspect ratio has greater frontal area
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
15751
...
Winglets:
A – create an elliptical lift distribution
B – decrease the induced drag
C – decrease the static lateral stability
D – increase the manoeuvrability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

15778
...
An aeroplane enters a horizontal turn with a load factor n=2 from straight and
level flight whilst maintaining constant indicated airspeed
...
An aeroplane in straight and level flight is subjected to a strong vertical gust
...
An aeroplane transitions from steady straight and level flight into a horizontal
co-ordinated turn with a load factor of 2, the speed remains constant and the:
A – lift increases by a factor of 4
B – angle of attack increases by a factor of ¼
C – induced drag increases by a factor of 4
D – total drag increases by a factor of 4
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

21090
...
Interference drag is the result of:
A – separation of the induced vortex
B – downwash behind the wing
C – aerodynamic interaction between aeroplane parts (eg
...
Minimum drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight occurs at the:
A – maximum CL-CD ratio
B – minimum speed
C – minimum CD value
D – minimum angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21119
...
The span-wise flow on an unswept wing is from the:
A – lower to the upper surface via the wing tip
B – upper surface via the trailing edge to the lower wing surface
C – lower surface via the trailing edge to the upper wing surface
D – upper surface via the leading edge to the lower wing surface
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21148
...
Which statement concerning the local flow pattern around a wing is correct?
A – Slat extension, at a constant angle of attack and normal extension speeds,
will increase the lift coefficient, which will also increase the induced drag
coefficient
B – By fitting winglets to the wing tip, the strength of the wing tip vortices is
reduced which in turn reduces induced drag
C – Sweepback reduces drag since, compared with a straight wing of equal
area, the span increases
D – Vortex generators on the wing partially block the spanwise flow over the
wing leading to a reduction in induced drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

21179
...
The calibration for the ASI is based on density:
A – at the normal cruising altitude
B – at the tropopause
C – at sea level, ISA temperature
D – at sea level, ISA+15oC
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23220
...
For an aircraft in level flight, induced drag:
A – would be less if the aspect ratio was increased
B – would be greater if the aspect ratio was increased
C – would be less if the weight was increased
D – would be independent of aspect ratio
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23224
...
An aircraft at an IAS of 150kts at sea level, then flies at 10,000ft, the drag
will:
A – be greater at sea level than at 10,000 ft
B – be greater at 10,000 ft than at sea level
C – be the same
D – depends on the angle of incidence
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23232
...
A swept wing compared to the same wing without sweep will give:
A – the same lift at a given angle of attack but a lower Cl max
B – more lift at a given angle of attack
C – less lift at a given angle of attack
D – the same lift at a given angle of attack and a higher Cl max
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23238
...
An aerofoil which is producing lift will have:
A – upwash ahead of the wing and downwash behind it
B – upwash ahead of the wing but no deflection of the airflow behind it
C – no deflection of the airflow ahead of the wing but downwash behind it
D – no deflection of the airflow either ahead or behind the aerofoil
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23247
...
Which condition reduces the required runway for take-off?
A – higher than recommended airspeed before rotation
B – lower than standard air density
C – increased headwind component
D – increased TAS
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23258
...
If speed is reduced from 300 kt to 150 kt the form drag will be:
A – double
B – half
C – a quarter
D – a third
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23284
...
On a high wing aircraft, when the undercarriage is lowered:
A – a nose up pitch moment will occur
B – a nose down pitch moment will occur
C – the CP will move aft
D – the CG will more aft
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23294
...
For a rectangular wing at constant speed and angle of attack, induced drag:
A – will be uniform across the wing span
B – will be greatest at the wing tip
C – will be greatest at the wing root
D – will be greatest at the inboard end of the wing root
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23304
...
The principal cause of hazardous conditions associated with the wake
turbulence of large aeroplanes is the:
A – high speeds at which large aircraft operate
B – vortices generated at the wing tips
C – propeller or jet wash
D – laminar flow aerofoil
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23324
...
During a take-off made behind a departing large aircraft, the pilot can
minimise the hazard of wake turbulence by:
A – extending the take-off roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet’s
rotation point
B – maintaining extra speed on take-off and climb out
C – remaining below the jet’s flight path until able to turn clear of its wake
D – being airborne prior to reaching the jet’s rotation point and climbing
above its flight path
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23353
...
Increased downwash from the wing:
A – reduces the effective angle of attack of the tail plane
B – increases the effective angle of attack of the tail plane
C – reduces the effective angle of attack of the tail plane if it has a positive
camber, and increases the effective angle of attack of the tail plane if it
has a negative camber
D – does not affect the effective angle of attack of the tail plane
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23381
...
Which of the following would occur if an aircraft in level flight maintaining a
constant TAS, flew into an area of lower pressure?
A – total drag decrease
B – parasite drag decrease
C – lift increase
D – induced drag increase
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23536
...
As altitude increases the excess thrust at a given IAS:
A – decreases because drag increases and thrust decreases
B – increases because drag decreases and thrust is constant
C – decreases because thrust decreases and drag is constant
D – increases because drag decreases and thrust increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23602
...
Which of the following is the correct definition of aspect ratio?
A – span divided by tip chord
B – chord divided by span
C – span divided by mean chord
D – chord divided by span, measured at the 25% chord position
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23701
...
Parasite drag is linearly proportional to:
A – speed
B – angle of attack
C – speed2
D – weight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

24483
...
An aircraft flying at 150 kt EAS at 10
...
(Refer to figure 081-01)
Which point on the whole aeroplane polar diagram will give minimum sink
rate?
A – Point A
B – Point C
C – Point B
D – Point D
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4163
...
(Refer to figure 081-04)
Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane?
A – Line B
B – Line A
C – Line C
D – Line D
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
4196
...
Which of the following is the cause of wing tip vortices?
A – Air spilling from the top surface to the bottom surface at the wing tip
B – Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the wing tip
C – Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the left wing tip
and from the top surface to the bottom surface at the right wing tip
D – Spanwise flow vector from the tip to the root on the bottom surface of the
wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4222
...
If a horizontal flight is
considered the axis X shows:
A – the total drag
B – the induced drag
C – the lift force
D – the parasite drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

4223
...
At an aeroplane minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag
Di and profile drag Dp (Di/Dp)?
A – 1/1
B – It varies between aeroplane types
C – 2/1
D–½
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4257
...
How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from stalling speed (VS) to
maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight and level flight at constant weight?
A – Decreasing, then increasing
B – Decreasing
C – Increasing
D – Increasing, then decreasing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

4262
...
The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics
of an aeroplane are:
A – decrease of CLmax and increase of drag
B – decrease of CLmax and decrease of drag
C – increase of CLmax and increase of drag
D – increase of CLmax and decrease of drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7671
...
For a constant aircraft weight at constant IAS and in level flight:
A – VIMD will increase with increased altitude
B – VIMD will constantly vary regardless of altitude
C – VIMD will remain the same regardless of altitude
D – VIMD will reduce with increased altitude
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

7776
...
How does aerodynamic drag vary when airspeed is doubled? By a factor of:
A–2
B–1
C – 16
D–4
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7840
...
In straight and level flight, which of the following would cause induced drag to
vary linearly if weight is constant:
A – 1/V
B–V
C – 1/V2
D – V2
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

7922
...
(Refer to figure 081-01)
Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate?
A – Point A
B – Point B
C – Point C
D – Point D
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
15706
...
Which of the following will reduced induced drag?
A – Elliptical lift distribution
B – Low aspect ratio
C – Flying at high angles of attack
D – Extending the flaps
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

15762
...
The interference drag is created as a result of:
A – separation of the induced vortex
B – the addition of induced and parasite drag
C – interaction between aeroplane parts (eg
...
(Refer to figure 081-01)
Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in horizontal flight?
A – Point B
B – Point C
C – Point D
D – Point A
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21072
...
Increasing dynamic pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an
aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant):
A – drag increases across the whole speed range
B – none
C – drag decreases across the whole speed range
D – at speeds greater than the minimum drag speed, drag increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23219
...
The minimum total drag of an aircraft in flight occurs:
A – at the stalling speed
B – at the speed where parasite drag and induced drag are equal
C – at the speed where induced drag is least
D – at the speed where parasite drag is least
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23257
...
For an aircraft in level flight, as indicated air speed increases:
A – both parasite and induced drag increase
B – parasite drag decreases, induced drag increases
C – parasite drag increases, induced drag decreases
D – both parasite and induced drag decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23261
...
At high speed an aircraft will have:
A – more profile drag than induced drag
B – more induced drag than profile drag
C – about the same profile drag as induced drag
D – only induced drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23315
...
Both lift and drag of an aerofoil are:
A – proportional to the square of the velocity of the relative airflow
B – proportional to increases and decreases in the velocity of the relative
airflow
C – inversely proportional to the air density
D – inversely proportional to the area of the wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23327
...
As the weight decreases
the IAS must be:
A – decreased, and the angle of attack decreased
B – decreased, and the angle of attack remain constant
C – increased, and the angle of attack decreased
D – kept the same, and the angle of attack kept the same
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23329
...
For an aircraft flying at a speed above Vmd:
A – a speed increase causes a drag increase which will cause a deceleration
B – a speed increase causes a drag decrease causing further acceleration
C – a speed increase causes a drag increase causing an acceleration
D – a speed decrease causes a drag increase causing a deceleration
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23609
...
When an aircraft selects its undercarriage and flaps down in flight, its VIMD
will (i) ___ and if it maintained the clean configuration VIMD its speed
stability would (ii) ___
...
What is the effect on induced drag on entering the ground effect?
A – Induce drag increases, but profile drag decreases
B – Induced drag remains the same
C – Induced drag decreases
D – Induced drag increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
4212
...
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
A – Deep stall
B – Hard landings
C – Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed
D – Inability to et airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal
takeoff needs
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7763
...
What will happen in ground effect?
A – an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices
B – The wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases
C – The induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases
D – A significant increase in thrust required
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7777
...
On entering ground effect, maintaining flight at the same speed:
A – ground effect has no effect on power
B – less power is required
C – more power is required
D – lift decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7827
...
If EAS is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor would profile drag increase?
A – 16
B – 12
C–8
D–4
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7863
...
Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur:
A – at a speed approaching the stall
B – when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the
surface
C – when a higher than normal angle of attack is used
D – when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the
surface
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21153
...
The effect of changes of aspect ratio on total drag will be:
A – greatest at low speed
B – greatest at high speed
C – the same at all speeds
D – no effect at any speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23318
...
Floating caused by ground effect will be most realized during an approach to
land when:
A – at a higher than normal angle of attack
B – at twice the length of the wing span above the surface
C – at less than the length of the wing span above the surface
D – at target threshold speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23320
...
This is
the result of:
A – a cushioning effect of the air as it is trapped between the ground and the
descending aircraft
B – ground interference with the static pressure system which produces false
indications on the ASI
C – interference of the ground surface with the airflow patterns about the
aircraft in flight
D – the ASI giving a false reading due to lower TAS at low pressure altitudes
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23321
...
An aeroplane is usually affected by ground effect at what height above the
surface?
A – twice the aeroplane’s wing span above the surface
B – 3 to 4 times the aircraft’s wing span
C – less than half the aircraft’s wing span above the surface
D – only after the main wheels touch the ground
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23647
...
When an aeroplane is in ground effect:
A – drag and lift are both increased
B – drag is increased, lift is decreased
C – drag is decreased, lift is increased
D – drag and lift
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

081-01-07 The relation between the lift coefficient and
the speed for constant lift
4188
...
What must happen to the CL when flaps are deployed while maintaining a
constant IAS in straight and level flight?
A – Increase then decrease
B – Remain constant
C – Decrease
D – Increase
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7869
...
25
B – 0
...
0
D – 4
...
To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased the speed must be:
A – reduced
B – increased in the same ratio as the lift/drag ratio decreases
C – kept constant
D – increased
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7921
...
When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1
...
Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the:
A – lift coefficient and the drag
B – stall speed
C – lift and the drag
D – maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

081-01-08 The stall
2628
...
0-10
...
The speed range between high and low speed buffet:
A – decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number
B – is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO
C – increases during a descent at a constant IAS
D – increases during climb
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3834
...
When entering a stall, the CP of a straight wing will (i) and of a strongly swept
wing will (ii):
A – (i) not move, (ii) not move
B – (i) move aft, (ii) not move
C – (i) move aft, (ii) move aft
D – (i) move aft, (ii) move forward
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4209
...
At a weight of 356103 N
it would stall at:
A – 88 kt
B – 162 kt
C – 108 kt
D – 172 kt
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4214
...
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1, in a turn with a
load factor of n=2, the stall speed is:
A – 70 kts
B – 282 kts
C – 141 kts
D – 200 kts
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

4239
...
Which stall has the greatest angle of attack?
A – Low speed stall
B – High speed stall (shock stall)
C – Deep stall
D – Accelerated stall
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
4248
...
A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant
turbulence
...
The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the
location of the:
A – stagnation point
B – centre of lift
C – transition region
D – centre of gravity
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7656
...
When the
aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1
...
Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct?
A – Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed
B – Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed
C – Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed
D – Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7681
...
Dangerous stall characteristics include:
A – pitch down and minor wing drop
B – pitch down and yaw
C – excessive wing drop and deep stall
D – pitch down and increase in speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

7698
...
Which of the following is the correct designation of stall speed in the landing
configuration:
A – VSL
B – VS0
C – VS1
D – VS1g
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7716
...
The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as:
A – the CAS exceeds the power-on stall speed
B – the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed
C – the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs
D – there is a nose-down attitude
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

7728
...
2 VS1G
C – 1
...
5VS1G
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7729
...
6
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7732
...
Stick shaker stall warnings should be activated at:
A – 1
...
05 VS
C – 1
...
If angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the lift
coefficient ___ and the stagnation point moves ___
A – decreases; rearward
B – increases; rearward
C – decreases; forward
D – increases; forward
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7762
...
The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:
A – suction at the upper wing side
B – the normal shock wave at transonic speeds
C – a turbulent stream pattern around the wing
D – a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free
stream velocity, due to friction
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7773
...
Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is
correct?
A – The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing
B – Buffeting is the result of low separation on the tail plane
C – The nose down effect is the result of increasing downwash, due to flow
separation
D – Just before the stall the aeroplane will have a nose-down tendence
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7782
...
During an erect spin recovery:
A – the ailerons are held in the neutral position
B – the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank
C – the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank
D – the control stick is pulled to the most aft position
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7810
...
Which of the following statements about the spin is correct?
A – In the spin, airspeed continuously increases
B – An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the wing root
C – During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position
D – Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7818
...
Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall:
A – Swept back wings and wing mounted engines
B – Straight wings and a T-tail
C – Swept back wings and a T-tail
D – Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7824
...
Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall?
A – A canard wing
B – A T-tail
C – Swept wings
D – A low horizontal tail
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7842
...
At the
stall:
A – wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
B – tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment
C – tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
D – leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7848
...
The following factors increase stall speed:
A – a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting
B – a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c
...
shift
C – increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension
D – an increase in load factor, a forward c
...
shift, decrease in thrust
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

7855
...
5g turn?
A – 122 kts
B – 150 kts
C – 81 kts
D – 100 kts
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7870
...
The stall speed:
A – increases with the length of the wingspan
B – decreases with an increased weight
C – does not depend on weight
D – increases with an increased weight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7891
...
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
A – increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c
...

location
B – decrease in a forward c
...
location, higher altitude and due to the slip
stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing
C – increase during turn, increased mass and forward c
...
location
D – increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to
the bank angle in a turn
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7903
...
Further
data are:
A: W=1500 kg Bank=20o TAS=130 kt
B: W=1500 kg Bank=20o TAS=200 kt
Which of the following statements is correct?
A – The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B
B – The load factor A is larger than the load factor B
C – The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B
D – The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7914
...
What is the standard stall recovery for a light aircraft:
A – Pitch down, stick neutral roll, correct for bank with rudder
B – Pitch down, stick neutral roll, correct for bank with aileron
C – Pitch down, stick neutral, wait for neutral tendency
D – Pitch down, stick neutral roll, do not correct for bank
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7926
...
Which of the following aircraft designs would be most prone to super stall?
A – T-tail
B – Swept forward wing
C – Swept back wing
D – Pod mounted engines beneath the wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7941
...
The stalling speed in a 45s bank
level turn will be:
A – 60 kts
B – 85 kts
C – 70 kts
D – 83 kts
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

7948
...
g
...
g
...
What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall:
A – Negative camber at the root
B – Separated airflow at the root
C – Spanwise flow
D – Rearward movement of the CP
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
15611
...
What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane
in a glide?
A – The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack
B – The wind and the aeroplane’s mass
C – The wind and CLmax
D – The wind and weight together with power loading which is the ratio of
power output to the weight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

15718
...
The function of the stick pusher is:
A – to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle
of attack
B – to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker
C – to vibrate the controls
D – to pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
15742
...
Increase of wing loading will:
A – decrease the minimum gliding angle
B – increase CLmax
C – decrease take off speeds
D – increase the stall speeds
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

15746
...
20 VS
B – 1
...
12 VS
D – greater than VS
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
15748
...
After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer:
A – the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases
B – the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases
C – the mean speed and friction drag increases
D – the boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
15753
...
41
B – 1
...
30
D – 2
...
An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6
...

What is the stall speed when the weight is 5
...
With the centre of gravity on the forward limit, the stalling speed would be:
A – independent of the centre of gravity position
B – lower than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
C – higher than with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
D – the same as with the centre of gravity on the aft limit
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
16657
...
As the centre of gravity is changed, recovery from a stall becomes
progressively:
A – more difficult as the centre of gravity moves aft
B – more difficult as the centre of gravity moves forward
C – less difficult as the centre of gravity moves aft
D – is unaffected by centre of gravity position, only by all up weight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

16660
...
A low wing loading (aircraft weight has been reduced):
A – increases stalling speed
B – increases take-off run, stalling speed and landing speed
C – decreases stalling speed and landing speed
D – does not affect any of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
16670
...
When an aircraft with a typical aerofoil is in level flight at low speed and high
angle of attack, the normal axis is:
A – vertical
B – horizontal from side to side
C – horizontal from front to rear
D – nearly vertical
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

21022
...
If the mass is
increased to 2000 kg, the new value of the stall speed will be:
A – 141 kt
B – 200 kt
C – 150 kt
D – 123 kt
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21033
...
During a steady horizontal turn, the stall speed:
A – increases with the square root of the load factor
B – increases linearly with the load factor
C – increases inversely with the load factor
D – increases with the square of the load factor
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21049
...
Given an initial condition in straight and level flight with a speed of 1
...

The maximum bank angle attainable without stalling in a steady co-ordinated
turn, whilst maintaining speed and altitude, is approximately:
A – 32o
B – 44o
C – 60o
D – 30o
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21073
...
When considering a swept back wing, with no corrective design features, at
the stall:
A – leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down pitching
moment
B – wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
C – tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down pitching moment
D – tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-up pitching moment
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

21169
...
The critical angle of attack at which a given aircraft stalls is dependent on the:
A – gross weight
B – attitude and airspeed
C – design of the wing
D – altitude
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23234
...
An aircraft is said to stall when:
A – the lift force from the wings is greater than the weight
B – the airflow over the top surface of the wing separates which results in a
large increase in drag and a large loss of lift
C – the angle of attack of the wings is greater than 10 degrees
D – it flies too slowly at low altitude
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23254
...
What affects indicated stall speed?
A – Angle of attack, weight, and air density
B – Load factor, angle of attack and power
C – Weight, load factor, CG position and Mach number
D – Humidity, air density and temperature
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23263
...
With the CG on the forward limit, compared to the aft limit, the stalling speed
would be:
A – higher
B – lower
C – the same
D – depends on the length of MAC
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23265
...
The ratio between the total air load imposed on the wing and the gross weight
of an aircraft in flight is known as:
A – load factor and directly affects stall speed
B – load factor and has no effect on stall speed
C – aspect ratio and directly affects stall speed
D – load factor and is inversely proportional to the square root of the stall
speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23267
...
The TAS of an aircraft at the stalling angle of attack at a given weight:
A – is constant at all altitudes
B – increases as altitude increases
C – decreases as altitude increases
D – increases as altitude decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23286
...
If the stalling speed of an aircraft is 75 kts, the approximate stalling speed in
mph is:
A – multiply 75 by 0
...
87
C – dividing 75 by 0
...
7
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23297
...
A fixed spoiler on the leading edge of the wing at the root will:
A – prevent the stall commencing at the root
B – induce a root stall
C – give a shorter landing run
D – maintain a laminar boundary layer at the stall
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23301
...
A rectangular wing, compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to
stall:
A – first at the leading edge, with progression outward toward the wing root
and tip
B – first at the wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root
C – first at the wing root, with the stall progression toward towards the wing
tip
D – first at the semi-span centre, giving good aerodynamic stall warning
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23334
...
A stall warning vane on an aircraft wing is fitted:
A – on the lower surface
B – on or at the leading edge
C – just above the leading edge
D – just below the leading edge
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

23336
...
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
A – neither
B – only the left
C – both
D – only the right
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23338
...
A decrease in weight due to fuel consumption in flight will:
A – reduce the stalling speed, but the stall angle remains the same
B – reduce the stalling speed and the stalling angle
C – reduce the stalling angle and increase the stalling speed
D – have no effect on the stall speed or angle
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23354
...
If the clean 1G stall speed for an aircraft is 151 kt, Vs during a 45o bank turn
will be:
A – 151 kt
B – 122 kt
C – 141 kt
D – 180 kt
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23372
...
In a turn the stalling speed will be:
A – less than in level flight
B – more than in level flight but at a lower angle of attack
C – the same as in level flight
D – more than in level and at the same angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

23537
...
When considering the approach to an airframe icing induced stall, which of
the following statements is most correct?
A – can easily be detected by the flight crew
B – will give the same indications as any other stall
C – can be so insidious that the pilot may be unaware that the aircraft has
stalled
D – will cause a nose down pitching moment due to the rearward movement of
the CP at the stall
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23541
...
Which of the following is the speed that would activate the stick shaker?
A – 1
...
15Vs
C – 1
...
Which of the following wing characteristics would be least affected by
turbulence?
A – straight wing
B – swept back wing
C – winglets
D – dihedral wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23584
...
With a swept wing the nose up phenomena is caused by:
A – deploying lift augmentation devices
B – wing fences
C – wing sweep prevents the nose up phenomena
D – tip stall
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23643
...
Which of the following is true?
A – a turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy
B – a turbulent boundary layer is thinner
C – less skin friction is generated by a turbulent layer
D – a laminar flow boundary layer is less likely to separate
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23661
...
What happens to stall speed with flaps down?
A – increases
B – decreases
C – remains constant
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23685
...
Which of the following increases the stall angle?
A – slats
B – flaps
C – spoilers
D – ailerons
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23699
...
If a jet is at 60o bank angle during a constant altitude turn, the stall speed will
be:
A – 1
...
19 greater
C – 1
...
0 greater
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23713
...
The angle of attack at the stall:
A – increases with forward CG
B – decreases with aft D
C – decrease with decrease in weight
D – is not affected by changes in weight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23716
...
Which list of configurations gives an increasing critical angle of attack?
A – clean wing/flaps extended/slats extended
B – flaps extended/clean wing/slats extended
C – slats extended/clean wing/flaps extended
D – clean wing/slat extended/flaps extended
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
24462
...
Which of the following aircraft designs would be most likely to have poor
recovery characteristics from a deep stall?
A – high aspect ratio straight wing
B – straight wing, T tail turboprop
C – swept wing, T tail
D – low aspect ratio straight wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
24465
...
At an AUW of 241030 N an aircraft stalls at 133 kt in level flight
...

A – 89 kt
B – 163 kt
C – 110 kt
D – 180 kt
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
24467
...
An aircraft with a take off weight of 10000 kg has a basic stalling speed VS of
240 kts
...
(Refer to figure 081-15)
...
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps
...
The trailing edge flaps when extended:
A – increase the zero lift angle of attack
B – worsen the best angle of glide
C – significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
D – significantly lower the drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4229
...
An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0o, 15o, 30o and 45o
...
Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative
influence on the CL/CD ratio?
A – Flaps from 15o to 30o
B – The slats
C – Flaps from 0o to 15o
D – Flaps from 30o to 45o
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4241
...
Which statement is correct?
A – Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of
descent, but increases the minimum descent angle
B – Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD) max, causing the minimum rate
of descent to decrease
C – Extension of flaps has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as
only the TAS has to be taken into account
D – Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum
glide distance also reduces
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4269
...
Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will
produce:
A – a nose-down pitching moment
B – no pitching moment
C – a nose-up pitching moment
D – a force which reduces drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7663
...
Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle
of attack:
A – flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended
B – clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended
C – slats only extended, clean wing, flaps only extended
D – slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7687
...
An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge
(L
...
One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on
the wings is?
A – Wing roots: L
...
flaps Wing tips: no devices
B – Wing roots: slats Wing tips: L
...
flaps
C – Wing roots: slats Wing tips: no devices
D – Wing roots: L
...
flaps Wing tips: slats
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7706 – The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the
wing is to:
A – allow space for vibration of the slat
B – cause a venture effect which energizes the boundary layer
C – reduce the wing loading
D – slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the
wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7739
...
In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the
flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will:
A – increase
B – decrease
C – remain constant
D – increase or decrease depending on type of flap
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
7779
...
A deployed slat will:
A – decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the
slat, so that CLmax is reached at lower angles of attack
B – increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the
fixed part of the wing, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of
attack
C – increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed
part of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles
of attack
D – increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of
attack, so that CLmax is reached at higher angles of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

7785
...
During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane
starts to: (all other factors of importance being constant)
A – sink suddenly
B – bank
C – climb
D – yaw
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7802
...
What increases the stalling angle of attack? Use of:
A – flaps
B – slats
C – spoilers
D – fuselage mounted speed-brakes
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7838
...
Lower the inboard flaps causes the wing Centre of Pressure:
A – to move forward
B – to move outboard towards the wing tips
C – to move inboard towards the wing root
D – to move inward and forward
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7880
...
During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant
IAS and weight:
A – the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase
B – the centre of pressure moves aft
C – the stall speed increases
D – the total boundary layer becomes laminar
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7890
...
A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by:
A – increasing the critical angle of attack
B – decreasing the skin friction
C – increasing only the camber of the aerofoil
D – increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
7917
...
During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane
starts to (all other factors of importance being constant):
A – bank
B – sink suddenly
C – climb
D – yaw
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7958
...
On a wing fitted with a fowler type trailing edge flap, the Full extended position
will produce:
A – an unaffected wing area and increase in camber
B – an increase in wing area and camber
C – an unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack
D – an increase in wing area only
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
15612
...
If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude
of tip vortices will eventually: (flap span less than wing span)
A – increase
B – remain the same
C – increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack
D – decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

15724
...
Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps
and slats is correct?
A – Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying
a slat does not
B – Deploying a slat will form a slot deploying a Krueger flap does not
C – Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not
D – Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger
flap does not
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
15726
...
When spoilers are used as speed brakes:
A – at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected
B – at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased
C – CLmax of the polar curve is not affected
D – they do not affect wheel braking action during landing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

15754
...
g
...
(Refer to figure 081-15)
Which type of flap is shown in the picture?
A – Plain flap
B – Split flap
C – Fowler flap
D – Double slotted flap
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
15769
...
(Refer to figure 081-13)
The high lift device shown in the figure is a:
A – Krueger flap
B – Slat
C – Fowler flap
D – Slotted flap
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

15771
...
If the flaps are lowered but the airspeed is kept constant, to maintain level
flight:
A – the nose must be pitched down
B – the nose must be pitched up
C – the altitude must be held constant
D – soilers must be deployed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
16681
...
The lift coefficient C of a wing at a given angle of attack:
A – is dependent on the surface area of the wing
B – is increased by the use of high lift devices
C – is constant and not affected by high lift devices
D – is reduced when high lift devices are used
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

16684
...
CLmax may be increased by the use of:
A – flaps
B – slats
C – boundary layer control
D – A, B and C
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
16688
...
Slats:
A – increase CLmax
B – decrease the minimum angle of attack
C – both A and B
D – neither A or B
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

21014
...
An aeroplane has the following flap positions: 0o, 15o, 30o, 45o
Slats can also be selected
...
Compared with the clean configuration, the angle of attack at CLmax with
trailing edge flaps extended is:
A – smaller or larger depending on the degree of flap extension
B – larger
C – unchanged
D – smaller
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21051
...
Flap extension at constant IAS whilst maintaining straight and level flight will
increase the:
A – stall speed
B – lift coefficient and the drag
C – maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag
D – lift and the drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21057
...
Clean wing
2
...
Flaps only extended
Place these configurations in order of increasing critical angle of attack:
A – 2, 1, 3
B – 1, 3, 2
C – 3, 1, 2
D – 2, 3, 1
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21097
...
Slat extension will:
A – increase the critical angle of attack
B – reduce tip vortices
C – create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles
D – decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upper side of the wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21117
...
Trailing edge flaps once extended:
A – degrade the best angle of glide
B – increase the zero lift angle of attack
C – significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
D – significantly lower the drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21138
...
When Fowler type trailing edge flaps are extended at a constant angle of
attack, the following changes will occur:
A – CL increases and CD remains constant
B – CL increases and the centre of pressure moves forward
C – CL and CD increase
D – CD decreases and the centre of pressure moves aft
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21161
...
When trailing edge flaps are extended whilst maintaining straight and level
flight at constant IAS:
A – the centre of pressure moves aft
B – the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase
C – the stall speed increases
D – the total boundary layer becomes laminar
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23269
...
If flaps are slightly asymmetric this would cause:
A – a roll to a given bank angle which may be correctable with rudder
B – a steady rate of roll which may be correctable with ailerons
C – a steady rate of pitch which may be correctable with elevators
D – a roll to a given bank angle which may be correctable with ailerons
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23271
...
The purpose of vortex generators is:
A – to delay stall by reducing boundary layer separation
B – to increase the lift of the wing
C – to counteract the effect of the wing tip vortices
D – to delay the stall by reducing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23306
...
Split flaps have the characteristic of:
A – increasing the lift and decreasing the drag for take-off
B – increasing the drag without appreciable increase in lift when moved from
intermediate to fully down
C – changing the main plane area and thus reducing the wing loading
D – allowing optimum wing flexing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23308
...
A slat is:
A – a leading edge high lift device, hinged at its forward edge, which increases
the camber and leading edge radius of the main aerofoil when deployed
B – a trailing edge device which is automatically deployed by movement of
the stagnation point at high angles of attack
C – an auxiliary, cambered aerofoil positioned forward of the main aerofoil so
as to form a slot
D – a fixed slot in the leading edge of some older types of aircraft
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23333
...
A Krueger flap is:
A – part of the upper surface of the leading edge, which moves forward
B – part of the lower surface of the leading edge, hinged at its forward edge
C – a flap which extends rearward from the trailing edge
D – a flap which extends from the upper surface of the wing, to increase drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23346
...
A low wing monoplane has its tail plane mounted on the top of the fin
...
Because of the reduction in Cl when the flaps are raised in flight to maintain
level flight, the angle of attack:
A – would have to be decreased
B – would have to be increased
C – would be required to remain the same
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23349
...
The type of flap that increases wing area is:
A – a split flap
B – a fowler flap
C – a Plain flap
D – a Slotted flap
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23364
...
One of the main functions of flaps during an approach andlanding is to:
A – decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
B – provide the same amount of lift at a slower speed
C – decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper than normal approach to be made
D – increase lift more than drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23420
...
When considering a high speed jet, if flaps are selected down at a speed
greater than Vfe:
A – the flaps will move to the selected position, causing structural damage
B – flap movement will be prevented by the flap load relief system
C – the flap selector lever cannot be moved because it is locked in position by
a solenoid at these speeds
D – the flaps will stall and a violent nose up pitch will result
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23538
...
When flaps are lowered, the downwash behind the wing:
A – decreases and gives a decrease of tailplane effective AOA
B – increases and gives an increase of tailplane effective AOA
C – decreases and gives an increase of tailplane effective AOA
D – increases and gives a decrease of tailplane effective AOA
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

23617
...
What effect has a plain flap on Cl?
A – increase camber
B – increases angle of attack
C – changes position of CP
D – decreases the aspect ratio
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23698
...
On a highly swept back wing with leading edge flaps and leading edge slats,
which device would be fitted in the following locations?
A – slats inboard/flaps outboard
B – slats outboard/flaps inboard
C – alternating slats and flaps
D – no preferred positions
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

24542
...
Spoiler deflection causes:
A – an increase in lift and drag
B – an increase in lift only
C – an increase indrag and decrease in lift
D – decrease in lift and drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7792
...
Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing:
A – only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected)
B – CD is increased and CL is decreased
C – both CL and CD are increased
D – CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

20883
...
Spoiler extension causes:
A – an increase in drag and decrease in lift
B – an increase in lift and drag
C – an increase in lift only
D – decrease in lift and drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21159
...
This causes a difference in lift between both wings, which
generates the desired rolling moment
B – experiences extra drag, which generates a yawing moment
...
In addition there is a local increase in drag, which suppresses
adverse yaw
D – is forced downwards as a reaction to the increased drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

21180
...
When airbrakes are deployed:
A – the minimum drag speed will reduce
B – the minimum drag speed will remain the same
C – the lift/drag ratio will remain constant
D – the minimum drag speed will increase
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23461
...
The primary purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease:
A – landing speed
B – the lift of the wing
C – the drag
D – lift and drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23710
...
The transition point located on the wing is the point where…
A – airflow starts separating from the wing
B – the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow
C – the static pressure reaches its highest value
D – the airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic flow
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
7674
...
The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent:
A – Just in front of the transition point
B – Between the transition and separation points
C – Just aft of the separation point
D – Just in front of the centre of pressure
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

7875
...
One important
advantage the turnbulent boundary layer has over the laminar type is that:
A – skin friction drag is less
B – it is thinner
C – it has less tendency to separate from the surface
D – energy is less
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
7955
...
Which boundary layer, when considering its velocity profile perpendicular to
the flow, has the greatest change in velocity close to the surface?
A – No difference
B – Laminar boundary layer
C – Turbulent boundary layer
D – The boundary layer in the transition between turbulent and laminar
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23610
...
When comparing the properties of laminar and turbulent boundary layers,
which of the following statements is correct?
A – the separation point is further aft in the laminar layer
B – friction drag is the same in both layers
C – friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer
D – friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

081-01-12 Special circumstances
2629
...
Which is the most critical phase regarding ice on a wing leading edge?
A – During the take off run
B – The last part of rotation
C – Climb with all engines operating
D – All phases are equally important
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21188
...
If the static pressure prot iced over while descending from altitude, the ASI
would read:
A – zero
B – high
C – low
D – correctly
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23382
...
Reducing the thickness/chord ratio on a wing will:
A – reduce the transonic variations in drag coefficient
B – reduce the transonic variations in lift coefficient
C – delay the onset of shockwave formation
D – all of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3768
...
Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below
the critical Mach number?
A – Dutch roll
B – Tuck under
C – Mach buffet
D – Shock stall
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3777
...
The speed of sound is affected by the:
A – pressure of the air
B – density of the air
C – temperature of the air
D – humidity of the air
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3788
...
An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350
...
The two areas of speed instability in transonic aircraft are:
A – above VDmin, above M 0
...
89 to 0
...
75 to 0
...
0
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B

3809
...
The Mach number:
A – increases at a given TAS when the temperature rises
B – is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at
sea level
C – is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound
D – is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3812
...
Shock stall is:
A – separation of the flow behind the bow wave
B – separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave
C – separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high Mach Numbers
D – separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high Mach
Numbers
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B

3814
...
Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach number than the buffet-onset
Mach number?
A – Yes, but only during approach
B – Yes, this causes no problems
C – No, this is not acceptable
D – Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3817
...
Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will:
A – decrease
B – first increase, then decrease
C – increase
D – remain constant
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A

3821
...
The Mach trim system will:
A – pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach Number
B – keep the Mach Number automatically constant
C – adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number
D – adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3826
...
8 and the TAS is 400 kts
...
On a typical symmetrical airfoil, as the free stream Mach number approaches M
1
...
On a typical transonic airfoil the transonic rearward shift of the CP occurs at
about:
A – M 0
...
98
B – M 0
...
4
C – M 0
...
89
D – M 0
...
98
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3839
...
A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number, that provides a
buffet margin of 0
...
In order to increase the buffet margin to
0
...
Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct?
A – Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature
B – Increases always if the density of the air decreases
C – Is independent of altitude
D – Doubles if the temperature increases from 9o to 36o Centigrade
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A

21034
...
During a climb at a constant IAS, the Mach number will:
A – remain constant
B – decrease initially and increase subsequently
C – increase
D – increase initially and remain constant subsequently
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
21124
...
Transonic speed is:
A – a speed at which locally around the aeroplane both supersonic and
subsonic speeds exist
B – a speed at which locally an oblique shock wave has developed in the flow
along the aeroplane
C – a speed at which compressibility effects are first noticeable
D – the speed range between Mcrit and MMO
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A

23274
...
5M would be flying at:
A – half the speed of sound at ground level only
B – half the speed of sound at the tropopause only
C – half the speed of sound under all conditions in the atmosphere
D – half the speed of sound at sea level only
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
23503
...
For a constant flight level and IAS, if the OAT increases, the Mach number
will:
A – increase
B – decrease
C – remain constant
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
23552
...
Vmo can be exceeded in a descent at a constant mach number because:
A – Vmo is an IAS and descending at a constant mach will require a decrease
in TAS which will reduce dynamic pressure
B – as altitude is reduced the speed of sound will increase which increases IAs
C – as altitude decreases the ASI will start to under-read due to the increasing
air density
D – Vmo is an IAS and descending at a constant mach will require an increase
in TAS which will increase dynamic pressure
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
23604
...
The speed of sound is affected by the:
A – density
B – humidity
C – pressure
D – temperature
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
23680
...
The local speed of sound:
A – is independent of altitude
B – will double if temperature varies from 9o to 36o
C – is dependent on the square root of the absolute temperature
D – decreases with increasing density
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
24459
...
Shockwaves at MFS above MDET will be:
A – Sufficient to slow the local airflow to subsonic values
B – Normal
C – Oblique
D – Detached
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3593
...
When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is:
A – decreased or increased, depending on Mach Number
B – decreased
C – increased
D – unchanged
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
3769
...
Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal
shock wave has a:
A – smaller compression
B – higher expan sion
C – higher compression
D – smaller expansion
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3779
...
The buffet margin:
A – increases during a descent with a constant IAS
B – is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed
C – decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number
D – is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3783
...
Tuck under is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the
wing and (ii) which change of the downwash angle at the location of the
stabilizer
A – (i) forward (ii) increasing
B – (i) forward (ii) decreasing
C – (i) aft (ii) increasing
D – (i) aft (ii) decreasing
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3789
...
0 M
B – just above 1
...
0 M
D – exactly 1
...
When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is?
A – Higher than before
B – Loer than before but still greater than 1
C – Equal to 1
D – Less than 1
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3796
...
Shock induced separation results in:
A – constant lift
B – decreasing lift
C – increasing lift
D – decreasing drag
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
3801
...
For minimum wave drag, an aircraft should be operated at which of the
following speeds?
A – Mach 1
...
What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?
A – The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes
B – The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet
occur at different weights and altitudes
C – The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes
D – The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and shock-stall occur
at different weights and altitudes
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
3806
...
Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave?
A – The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil
B – The airflow changes direction
C – The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic
D – The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D

3815
...
Tuck under will happen:
A – only above the critical Mach number
B – only at the critical Mach number
C – only below the critical Mach number
D – above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3827
...
Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will:
A – decrease the shock wave induced separation
B – decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps
C – decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the
swept wing
D – increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A

3843
...
Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest angle of attack?
A – shock stall
B – high-speed stall
C – low-speed stall
D – deep stall
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3851
...
A normal shock wave:
A – is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops
suddenly
B – is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops
suddenly
C – can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight
D – is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the
surface
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C

3855
...
Air passes a normal shock wave
...
(Refer to figure 081-19)
In 1G level flight at FL340 and at an aircraft weight of 110
...
54; M 0
...
60; M 0
...
49; MMO
D – M 0
...
84
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3860
...
000 lbs your aerodynamic ceiling in 1G level flight
will be:
A – FL320
B – FL390
C – FL420
D – FL440
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C

3864
...
When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will:
A – decrease and beyond a certin Mach number start increasing again
B – decrease
C – stay constant
D – increase
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3866
...
Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen at Mach Numbers
above the critical Mach Number?
A – Elevator stall
B – Mach buffet
C – Dutch roll
D – Speed instability
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B

15731
...
When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing Mach
Number the centre of the pressure of the wing will move aft
...
A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at constant high altitude
...
A normal shock wave is a discontinuity plane:
A – across which the pressure drops suddenly
B – across which the temperature drops suddenly
C – that is always normal to the local flow
D – that is always normal to the surface
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C

21041
...
From the buffet onset graph of a given jet transport aeroplane it is determined
that at FL 310 at a given mass buffet free flight is possible between M = 0
...
88
...
Mach buffet occurs:
A – directly after exceeding Mcrit
B – when the Mach number has increased to Mcrit
C – at the Mach number at which shock wave indiced boundary layer
separation occurs
D – when the stall angle of attack is exceeded
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
21101
...
This is
done to:
A – increase the strength of the wing root junction
B – apply area rule
C – fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage
D – improve the low speed characteristics
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B

21114
...
To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil should:
A – have a low thicknedss to chord ratio
B – have a large camber
C – be used with a high angle of attack
D – have a large leading edge radius
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
21160
...
Which statement is correct regarding a shock wave on a lift generating wing?
A – It is located at the greatest wing thickness when the aeroplane reaches the
speed of sound
B – It reaches its highest strength when flying at the critical Mach number
C – It moves forward when the Mach number is increased
D – It moves slightly aft when an aileron is deflected downward
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D

21189
...
What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local
sonic flow?
A – the transonic mach number
B – the critical mach number
C – M 1
...
At Mcrit, a shockwave will appear first:
A – at the leading edge
B – near to the point of maximum wing thickness
C – at the trailing edge
D – on the underside of the wing
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
23506
...
At speeds just above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient:
A – will start to increase
B – will start to decrease
C – will remain constant
D – is inversely proportional to the Mach number
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23510
...
The effect of a shock wave on control surface hinge moment will be:
A – none on powered flying controls, reversal on manual controls
B – none, the shock wave forms forward of the flying control surfaces
C – stalling of the control surfaces
D – rapid fluctuation of hinge moments, causing a high frequency ‘buzz’
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
23519
...
The local airflow after passing through a normal shockwave is:
A – more than mach 1
B – less than mach 1
C – exactly mach 1
D – initially more than mach 1 then decreasing to mach 1
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
23595
...
In the transonic range, lift will decrease when shock stall occurs, because:
A – of the separation of the boundary layer at the shock wave
B – of the attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wing
C – of the appearance of the bow wave
D – Mcrit is reached
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23606
...
What is the effect of weight on Mcrit at a constant IAS?
A – increase
B – decrease
C – increase with decreasing angle of attack
D – decrease with increasing angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
23613
...
How does an aircraft with swept wings behave due to shock stall?
A – nose down
B – nose up
C – nose remains in neutral position
D – it depends on the OAT
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23618
...
Which of the following is the correct definition of the free stream Mcrit?
A – when the local velocity reaches mach 1
B – when shock stall first occurs
C – when the shock wave on the top surface and the bottom surface both reach
the trailing edge
D – equal to the local speed of sound
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23638
...
In the transonic speed range, what affects the flight handing characteristics?
A – IAS
B – CAS
C – TAS
D – Mach number
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
23642
...
Which of the following combinations would result in the lowest value of
Mcrit?
A – small camber/thin aerofoil
B – large camber/thick aerofoil
C – small camber/thick aerofoil
D – large camber/thin aerofoil
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
23649
...
What is determined by the buffet onset chart?
A – values of low speed and mach buffet at different weights and altitudes
B – values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes
C – values of stall and shock stall
D – values of stall
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23659
...
Tuck under occurs at:
A – all mach numbers
B – above and below Mcrit
C – mach numbers above Mcrit
D – mach numbers below Mcrit
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
23665
...
Which of the following will give an increase in Mcrit?
A – low thickness/chord ratio
B – large leading edge radius
C – cambered surface
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23678
...
What is normal shock wave perpendicular to?
A – angle of attack
B – angle of incidence
C – aircraft longitudinal axis
D – the relative airflow
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
23688
...
Critical mach number is the highest speed at which:
A – highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO)
B – speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraft
(Mach number < 1)
C – speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane
D – highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
23712
...
The mach buffet margin:
A – increases as altitude decreases at constant IAS
B – decreases as altitude decreases at constant mach number
C – remains constant at Mmo
D – is better using a step climb technique
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23722
...
An aircraft accelerates in the transonic region, the CP moves aft
...
As mach number increases at transonic speed, tuck under is caused by the CP
moving ___ and downwash at the tail ___
...
(Refer to figure 081-19)
What are the low and high buffet onset speeds given the following conditions:
FL 350
Mass: 110 000 Kg
Bank angle: 50o
A – M0
...
84
B – M0
...
84
C – M0
...
83
D – M0
...
83
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
25568
...
000 kg, CG at
35% MAC and at 45o bank your low speed and high speed buffet boundaries
will be:
A – M0
...
64
B – M0
...
60; M0
...
54; M0
...
When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing
area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of:
A – Lower stalling speed
B – Greater strength
C – Increased longitudinal stability
D – Higher critical Mach number
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D

3780
...
3 is called:
A – hypersonic range
B – supersonic range
C – transonic range
D – subsonic range
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3785
...
The critical Mach number can be increased by:
A – an increase in wing aspect ratio
B – positive dihedral of the wings
C – a T-tail
D – sweepback of the wings
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3791
...
0
C – the bow shock wave attaches to the wing leading edge
D – the centre of pressure is at its most rearward point
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B

3808
...
The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be:
(assume no corrective devices, straight and level flight)
A – buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up
B – an increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up
C – engine unbalance and buffeting
D – buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3820
...
What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at n=1, when
flying at constant IAS? The value of Mcrit:
A – increases
B – remains constant
C – is independent of the angle of attack
D – decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A

3825
...
What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at constant IAS?
A – Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack
B – Mcrit increases as a result of compressibility effects
C – Mcrit decreases
D – Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a greater angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3837
...
154; half
C – sine 30; half
D – 1,414; twice
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
3838
...
Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the
lowest Mcrit values?
A – (1) thick and (2) small
B – (1) thick and (2) large
C – (1) thin and (2) large
D – (1) thin and (2) small
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
3842
...
Critical Mach-number is the:
A – highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO)
B – speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraft
(Mach number < 1)
C – speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane
D – highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3847
...
An aeroplane should be equipped with a Mach trimmer, if:
A – stick force stability is independent of the airspeed and altitude
B – at transonic Mach numbers the aeroplane demonstrates unconventional
elevator stick force characteristics
C – stick force per g strongly decreases at low Mach numbers
D – at high airspeed and low altitude the aeroplane demonstrates
unconventional elevator stick force characteristics
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
23283
...
Vortex generators on an aircraft’s wings:
A – re-energise the boundary layer by making it more turbulent
B – re-energise the boundary layer by making it more laminar
C – delay the transition from laminar to turbulent flow
D – delay the separation by decreasing the kinetic energy of the boundary
layer
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23413
...
What is the principal advantage of sweepback?
A – accelerates the onset of compressibility effect
B – the Mcrit will increase
C – increases changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to
compressibility
D – lateral stability is reduced
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
23482
...
For a wing of low thickness/chord ratio the critical mach number will be:
A – higher than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
B – lower than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
C – the same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio
D – higher only if the wing has a supercritical section
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23572
...
The mach trip system operates:
A – operates at all mach numbers
B – at low mach numbers only
C – at high mach numbers only
D – operates at supersonic speeds only
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
23597
...
If mach trim is unsereviceable you should:
A – limit the mach number at which you fly
B – fly at a constant speed
C – move pax to the rear of the aeroplane
D – move pax to the forward of the aeroplane
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23658
...
Mach trim is used to correct for:
A – increased drag
B – movement of the CP
C – pitching up
D – changes in the position of the CG at speeds greater than Mcrit
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
23721
...
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will?
A – decrease
B – increase
C – stay constant
D – decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3584
...
In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency
(low loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the
shock is:
A – high (supersonic)
B – small but still supersonic
C – lower than 1
D – exactly 1
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B

3587
...
When airflow over a wing becomes supersonic, the pressure pattern over the
surface will become:
A – the same as subsonic
B – irregular
C – rectangular
D – triangular
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3591
...
When a supersonic airflow passes through an oblique shockwave static pressure
will ___ and temperature will ___
A – rise; rise
B – fall; rise
C – fall; fall
D – rise; fall
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A

3595
...
Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow:
1
...
The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it
A – 1 and 2 are incorrect
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct
D – 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3598
...
6
B – M=Mcrit
C – M=1
...
3
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3601
...
The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach
Number is due to:
A – increased angle of attack
B – wave drag
C – increased interference drag
D – increased skin friction
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
3604
...
Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow?
1
...
The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind
A – 1 and 2 are correct
B – 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect
C – 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct
D – 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3610
...
How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a
position in front of a shock wave to behind it?
A – Density will increase, temperature will increase
B – Density will increase, temperature will decrease
C – Density will decrease, temperature will increase
D – Density will decrease, temperature will decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3613
...
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will:
A – decrease
B – increase
C – stay constant
D – decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
3615
...
When an aircraft is flying at speeds above Mach 1, pressure disturbances from
the aircraft will be felt only:
A – in front of the normal shock wave
B – in front of the Mach cone
C – within the Mach cone
D – in front of the oblique shock wave
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3617
...
In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are:
A – in front of the aeroplane
B – very weak and negligible
C – in between a conical area, depending on the Mach Number
D – outside the conical area depending on the Mach Number
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
23295
...
A bow wave develops:
A – just below mach 1
B – equal to mach 1
C – above mach 1
D – only if the leading edge is very sharp
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
23511
...
The velocity behind a (1) normal and an (2) oblique shock wave is:
A – decreased to subsonic/decreased but still supersonic
B – increased to supersonic/decreased to subsonic
C – decreased but still supersonic/increased to supersonic
D – increased to supersonic/increased but still subsonic
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23554
...
What movement of the centre of lift occurs when accelerating an aircraft with
a symmetrical aerofoil to supersonic speed?
A – forward to the leading edge
B – irregular, but in an overall rearward direction towards the centre of the
chord
C – aft to the trailing edge
D – no movement occurs
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: B
23556
...
When an aircraft is flying at supersonic speed, where will be the area of
influence of any pressure disturbance due to the presence of the aircraft be
located?
A – within the mach cone
B – in front of the mach cone
C – in front of the normal shock wave
D – in front of the oblique shock wave
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
23560
...
0
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A

23561
...
What happens to the static pressure and temperature of supersonic flow
through an oblique shock wave?
A – temp increases and static pressure decreases
B – static pressure increases and temp is constant
C – static pressure remains constant and temp decreases
D – static pressure increases and temp increases
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
23577
...
What happens to the Mach number of the airflow as it passes through an
expansion wave?
A – increases
B – decreases
C – remains constant
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A

23675
...
When an aeroplane accelerates from subsonic to supersonic speed, the
Aerodynamic Centre:
A – moves from 25% to 50% chord
B – moves forward
C – is unchanged
D – no longer exists
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A

081-04

STABILITY

081-04-01 Condition of equilibrium in stable horizontal flight
3676
...
An aircraft is placed in a level balanced turn and the controls released
...
A statically unstable aeroplane is:
A – always dynamically stable
B – never dynamically stable
C – sometimes dynamically stable
D – sometimes dynamically unstable
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3887
...
An aeroplane, with a C
...
location behind the centre of pressure of the wing
can only maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is:
A – zero
B – upwards
C – downwards
D – upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3891
...
If the total moments about an axis are not zero, what will be the result around
that axis?
A – Equilibrium
B – Constant angular velocity
C – Angular acceleration
D – Constant angular displacement
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3919
...
If the aircraft is properly loaded the CG, the neutral point and the manoeuvre
point will be in the order given, forward to aft:
A – manoeuvre point, neutral point, CG
B – manoeuvre point, CG, neutral point
C – CG, neutral point, manoeuvre point
D – CG, manoeuvre point, neutral point
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3935
...
If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the zero plane will rotate about:
A – the aerodynamic centre of the wing
B – the neutral point of the aeroplane
C – the centre of gravity
D – the centre of pressure of the wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23330
...
An aircraft is said to have speed stability:
A – if it recovers from displacements about any of the three axes at all speeds
B – if it can be trimmed to fly at any speed between stalling speed and Vne
C – when the speed is disturbed from its trimmed value, it tends to return to
the original speed
D – if it can fly a 3 degree glide slope without the need to adjust the thrust
setting
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23544
...
If an aircraft has positive static stability:
A – It is always dynamically stable
B – it is always dynamically unstable
C – it can be dynamically neutral/stable or unstable
D – it is always dynamically neutral
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

081-04-02 Methods of achieving balance
3878
...
The distance between the CG Datum and the CG Neutral Point in straight and
level flight is called the:
A – CG forward limit
B – CG aft limit
C – CG static margin
D – CG manoeuvre margin
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3927
...
Which elevator deflection will be
required to maintain the pitching moment zero?
A – Down
B – UP
C – No elevator movement will be required because the thrust line of the
engines remains unchanged
D – It depends on the position of the centre of gravity
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21070
...
If an aircraft is stable, this means that:
A – it is in a state of balance
B – all the stick forces have been trimmed out
C – if it is displaced it will return to its original position without any
correction by the pilot
D – if it is displaced it must be returned to its original position by the pilot
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;

Ans: C

081-04-03 Longitudinal stability
2637
...
The effect of Mach trim on stick forces for power operated controls:
A – is to decrease the stick force gradient to prevent the possibility of high
speed stall
B – is to decrease the stick force gradient to ensure the pilot can manoeuvre
the aircraft adequately when flying at high transonic Mach number
C – is to maintain the required stick force gradient
D – a Mach trim system is not required if an aircraft has power operated
controls
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: C
3849
...
Which of the following best describes the function of the Mach trim system?
A – It adjusts the longitudinal trim of the aircraft
B – It adjusts the stabiliser trim position
C – It adjusts thefore and aft fuel balance
D – It adjusts the elevator trim tab
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: A
3867
...
The effects of CG position on longitudinal static stability and control response
will be:
A – forward movement of the CG will reduce stability and increase control
response
B – forward movement of the CG will reduce control response and increase
stability
C – rearward movement of the CG will increase stability and reduce control
response
D – rearward movement of the CG will reduce stability and control response
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3893
...
The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:
A – C
...
is on the aft C
...
limit
B – speed is low
C – C
...
position is on the forward C
...
limit
D – flaps are down
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
3898
...
When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure
of the combined wing/fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load
on the tailplane will be:
A – downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the
centre of gravity
B – upwards
C – zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium
D – downwards
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
3902
...
The load
factor in straight and level flight is 1
...
5 is:
A – 150 N
B – 375 N
C – 450 N
D – 225 N
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

3903
...
The C
...
position of an aeroplane is forward of the neutral point in a fixed
location
...
Which
of the following statements about the stick force stability is correct?
A – Increase of speed generates pull forces
B – Increasing 10 kt trimmed at low speed has more effect on the stick force
than increasing 10 kt trimmed at high speed
C – Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability
D – Stick force stability is not affected by trim
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3905
...
G
...
The effect of a swept wing is to give:
A – positive dihedral effect
B – negative dihedral effect
C – decreased roll-with-yaw effect
D – adverse yaw effect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

3918
...
In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive
camber of the aerofoil?
A – Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of
attack
B – Positive, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle
of attack
C – No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down
moment coefficient, independent of angle of attack
D – Positive, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of
attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3924
...
Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the
static longitudinal stability?
A – The engine
B – The horizontal tailplane
C – The fuselage
D – The wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3926
...
Dynamic longitudinal stability requires:
A – an effective elevator
B – a small CG range
C – positive static longitudinal stability
D – a variable incidence (trimming) tailplane
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3934
...
A Machtrimmer:
A – has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed (IAS)
curve for a fully hydraulic controlled aeroplane
B – increases the stick force per g at high Mach Numbers
C – is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach Numbers
D – corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers
Ref: AIR: atpl;
Ans: D
3938
...
The (1) stik force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively
affected by:
A – (1) forward C
...
position (2) forward CG
...
G
...
G
...
position
D – (1) aeroplane nose up trim (2) aeroplane nose up trim
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

3946
...
When the aircraft CG is on the aft limit, it is:
A – in front of the neutral point
B – above the neutral point
C – behind the neutral point
D – on the neutral point
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
3955
...
G
...

Fe/g)
C – an increasing static longitudinal stability
D – a better recovery performance in the spin
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3960
...
G
...
G
...
G
...
G
...
The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:
A – change of lift due to variation of angle of attack is constant
B – pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack
C – aerodynamic forces are constant
D – the aeroplanes lateral axis intersects with the centre of gravity
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3964
...
Tuck under may happen at:
A – low Mach numbers
B – all Mach numbers
C – only at low altitudes
D – high Mach numbers
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
15729
...
“Tuck under” is the:
A – nose down pitching tendency as speed is increased in the transonic range
B – nose up pitching tendency as speed is increased in the transonic range
C – shaking of the control column at high Mach number
D – nose down pitching tendency when the control column is pulled rearwards
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21007
...
A negative contribution to the static longitudinal stability of conventional jet
transport aeroplanes is provided by:
A – a fixed trim position
B – the tail
C – the fuselage
D – a fixed elevator deflection
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21016
...
If the altitude is maintained and
thrust remains constant, the aeroplane speed will:
A – increase
B – further decrease
C – initially increase an thereafter decrease
D – initially further decrease and thereafter increase
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

21020
...
During a phugoid the speed:
A – varies significantly, as during a short period oscillation
B – remains approximately constant, as during a short period oscillation
C – varies significantly, whereas during a short period oscillation it does not
D – remains approximately constant, whereas during a short period oscillation
it varies significantly
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21099
...
Stick force per g:
A – does not change with increasing altitude
B – is selected by the pilot by electronic means before each flight
C – is dependent on cg location
D – has a maximum value related to acceptable controllability, the minimum
value is of no concern
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

21106
...
The manoeuvre stability of a large jet transport aeroplane is 280 N/g
...
What is the effect of elevator trim tab adjustment on the static longitudinal
stability of an aeroplane?
A – Depends on the value of stick force/g
B – No effect
C – Aeroplane nose up trim increases the static longitudinal stability
D – Aeroplane nose down trim increases the static longitudinal stability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21154
...
When moving the centre of gravity forward the stick force per g will:
A – decrease
B – not change
C – increase
D – change but only at very high speeds
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21167
...
Which statement is correct:
A – During a phugoid altitude varies significantly, but during a short period
oscillation it remains approximately constant
B – During both a phugoid and a short period oscillation altitude remains
approximately constant
C – During both a phugoid and a short period oscillation altitude varies
significantly
D – During a phugoid altitude remains approximately constant, but during a
short period oscillation it varies significantly
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

21182
...
Which statement is correct?
l) Stick force per g is independent of altitude
ll) Stick force per g increases when the centre of gravity moves forward
A – l is correct, ll is correct
B – l is incorrect, ll is correct
C – l is correct, ll is incorrect
D – l is incorrect, ll is incorrect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23230
...
Damping is the property that:
A – slows down the rate or diminishes the amplitude of vibrations or cycles
B – makes a body decelerate when thrust is reduced
C – requires an increased amountof energy to be used to accelerate a body
when it approaches the speed of sound
D – makes an aircraft more stable at high altitude
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23367
...
33 lb/g
C – 6 lb/g
D – 5 lb/g
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23386
...
If the aircraft has a nose up pitch displacement, the effective angle of attack of
the tail plane:
A – remains the same
B – changes an causes the tail plan to apply a nose down moment
C – changes and causes the tail plane to apply a nose up moment
D – will not change if the pitch up was due to elevator selection
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23463
...
The stick force gradient is:
A – the force required to change the load factor of the aircraft a given amount
B – the force required to hold the aircraft in a particular pitch attitude
C – due to the dynamic pressure
D – only supplied by an artificial feel unit
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23484
...
6 lb/g
B – 5 lb/g
C – 20 lb/g
D – 60 lb/g
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23542
...
If the airspeed increases and decreases during longitudinal phugoid
oscillations, the aircraft:
A – is constantly changing AOA making it difficult to reduce the magnitude of
the oscillations
B – can be easily controlled by the pilot
C – will display poor trimming qualities
D – is displaying lateral dynamic instability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23570
...
What is the position of the CG in relation to the neutral point when the CG is
on the aft limit?
A – on the neutral point
B – just behind the neutral point
C – above the neutral point
D – in front of the neutral point
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23575
...
In relation to the manoeuvre point, the aft CG limit is:
A – always forward of it
B – on the manoeuvre point
C – the least distance away when the CG is on the forward limit
D – aft of the manoeuvre point
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23589
...
If an aircraft is longitudinally statically unstable, at the same time it will be
dynamically:
A – unstable
B – neutral
C – stable
D – positively stable
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23690
...
Where must the CG be located?
A – aft of the neutral point and in front of the manoeuvre point
B – between the aft limit and the neutral point
C – with sufficient margin ahead of the neutral point
D – on the neutral point
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23694
...
Short period oscillation is:
A – pilot induced and unstable
B – oscillation in pitch
C – oscillation in roll
D – oscillation in yaw
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23709
...
What will be the effect of a highly cambered aerofoil on longitudinal stability?
A – a negative effect because the lift vector is inclined forwards as the angle
of attack increases
B – no effect
C – a positive effect because the lift vector is inclined rearwards as the angle
of attack increases
D – a positive effect as the CP moves to the rear as the angle of attack
increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

24514
...
When considering the relationship between lateral static stability and
directional stability:
A – dominant directional static stability gives an increased tendency for dutch
roll
B – dominant lateral static stability gives an increased tendency for spiral
instability
C – dominant lateral static stability gives an increased tendency for dutch roll
D – they are mutually independent and have no effect on each other
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3877
...
The effect of a ositive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows:
A – negative dihedral effect
B – no effect
C – destabilising dihedral effect
D – stabilising effect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

3928
...
Which of the following gives an unstable contribution in sideslip?
A – Wing sweep
B – Flap extension
C – Dihedral
D – High wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3950
...
The primary function of the fin is to give:
A – lateral stability – about the longitudinal axis
B – directional stability – about the normal axis
C – directional stability – about the longitudinal axis
D – directional stability – about the lateral axis
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

15715
...
If the static lateral stability of an aeroplane is increased, whilst its static
directional stability remains constant:
A – its sensitivity to Dutch roll increases
B – its spiral stability decreases
C – turning flight becomes more difficult
D – the nose-down pitching moment in a turn increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21112
...
The contribution to the static directional stability of a straight wing with high
aspect ratio and without dihedral:
A – is always positive
B – is always negative
C – is always negligible
D – becomes more positive as the aspect ratio increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

21118
...
Increasing the size of the fin:
A – reduces directional stability
B – reduces lateral stability
C – increases longitudinal stability and directional control
D – increases the size of the keel surface behind the CG, giving increased
directional stability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

081-04-05 Static lateral stability
3868
...
Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increase static lateral
stability?
A – Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail
B – Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform
C – High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin
D – Sweep back, uner wing mounted engines, winglets
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;

Ans: C
3875
...
Considering the lateral stability of a swept wing airraft, at high flight levels th
static lateral stability will be ___ and th dynamic lateral stability will be ___
A – greater; greater
B – the same; less
C – less; greater
D – the same; greater
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3897
...
Dihedral of the wing:
A – is the only way to increase the static lateral stability
B – increases the static lateral stability
C – is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings
D – decreases the static lateral stability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

3915
...
The aeroplane is:
A – Statically unstable – Dynamically neutral
B – Statically unstable – Dynamically stable
C – Statically stable – Dynamically unstable
D – Statically stable – Dynamically neutral
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
3937
...
Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct?
A – Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slp-free turns
B – Effective dihedral is the angle between the ¼-chord
C – Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral stability
D – The effective dihedral of an aeroplane component means the contribution
of that component to the static lateral stability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
3954
...
Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side
slip angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased?
A – the required lateral control force does not change
B – the required lateral control force decreases
C – the required lateral control force increases
D – the stick force per g decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3959
...
What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?
A – A forward movement of the centre of gravity
B – An increased anhedral
C – An increased static lateral stability
D – An increased static directional stability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21098
...
Static lateral stability should not be too large, because:
A – too much rudder deflection would be required in a crosswind landing
B – too much aileron deflection would be required in a crosswind landing
C – constant aileron deflection would be required during cruise in case of
crosswind
D – the roll trim sensitivity would increase sharply
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21104
...
The effect on static lateral stability of an aeroplane with a high wing as
compared with a low wing is:
A – zero dihedral effect
B – a negative dihedral effect
C – no effect as it is only used to improve aeroplane loading
D – a positive dihedral effect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21172
...
For an aircraft with neutral static roll stability, folliwng a wing drop:
A – the wing would tend to return to the level position
B – the wing would continue to drop
C – the wing would remain in its displaced position
D – the forces of lift and weight would remain in balance
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23385
...
When considering the effect of a swept wing on stability with an increase in
altitude, which of the following is correct?
A – increased static lateral stability/decreased dynamic lateral stability
B – decreased static lateral stability/decreased dynamic lateral stability
C – same static lateral stability/reduced dynamic lateral stability
D – increased static lateral stability/same dynamic lateral stability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23689
...
Which of the following will increase lateral stability?
A – dihedral/wing mounted engines/high wing
B – high wing/high vertical stabiliser/sweepback
C – low wing/dihedral/elliptical plan form
D – anhedral/low wing/sweepback
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23707
...
Which of the following will reduce lateral stability?
A – Anhedral
B – Tip tanks
C – Dihedral
D – Wing root fairing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
3913
...
One of these, long period
oscillation, involves slow changes in:
A – height and load factor
B – height and speed
C – pitch and load factor
D – speed and load factor
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

3917
...
Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper?
A – Spiral dive
B – Tuck under
C – Dutch roll
D – Buffeting
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3943
...
With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (1) and the
dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing
will:
A – (1) increase; (2) increase
B – (1) increase; (2) decrease
C – (1) decrease; (2) decrease
D – (1) decrease; (2) increase
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3965
...
G
...
Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to Dutch roll?
A – Rudder limiter
B – Yaw damper
C – Roll spoilers
D – Spoiler mixer
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
16656
...
What will increase the tendency to Dutch roll?
A – an increased static lateral stability
B – An increased static directional stability
C – A forward movement of the centre of gravity
D – An increased anhedral
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23636
...
Dutch roll is a combination of:
A – pitch and roll
B – pitch and yaw
C – yaw and roll
D – none of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
24468
...
Which of the following is the reason for putting the horizontal stabiliser on top
of the fin, known as a T-tail?
A – to improve ground clearance during take-off and landing on a
contaminated runway
B – to decrease the tendency for super stall
C – to improve the aerodynamic efficiency of the vertical tail
D – to improve the wing efficiency
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3976
...
The flaperon is a control that operates simultaneously as:
ABCD-

flaps and ailerons
elevators and ailerons
flaps and speed brakes
flaps and elevators

Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

3996
...
When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated?
A – Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value
B – Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value
C – Landing gear retracted
D – Landing gear extended
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4057
...
What is the advantage of a variable incidence tailplane over a fixed incidence
tailplane with elevator and trim tab?
A – Linkages and mechanism less complicated
B – Increased flight stability and less weight
C – Less trim drag and maximum elevator authority retained
D – Elevator movement is restricted at high speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

4082
...
When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be
limiting
11
...
The range of control surface movements is limited by:
A – leaving control cables a little stack
B – tensioning control cables correctly
C – defined limits is the operations manual
D – providing control stops
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
16674
...
The axes of an aircraft by definition must all pass through the:
A – flight desk
B – aircraft datum
C – centre of pressure
D – centre of gravity
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

23360
...
A cable operated control system has external locks:
A – when fitted to the control surface, they will prevent movement of the
control column if the controls are not fitted with servo tabs
B – they will not prevent movement of the control column
C – they will not be necessary because controls are irreversible and cannot be
moved by the wind
D – will prevent movement of a servo tab
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23428
...
Control surface flutter:
A – a rapid oscillation of the control surface in flight
B – buffeting of the controls, caused by separation of the airflow over the
control surface
C – the tendency of the control surface to move onto its stops due to
overbalance
D – movement of the control, due to gusts, when the aircraft is on the ground
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

24073
...
Which of the following devices is used to counter adverse yaw on rolling into
or out of a turn?
A – Differential ailerons
B – A yaw damper
C – A dorsal fin
D – Vortex generators
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
3973
...
What will happen when only
the elevator jams during flight?
A – The pitch control forces double
B – Pitch control has been lost
C – The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab
D – Pitch control reverses direction
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
3999
...
In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable position of
the centre of gravity could be limited by the:
A – elevator capability, elevator control forces
B – engine thrust, engine location
C – trim system, trim tab surface
D – wing surface, stabiliser surface
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4031
...
An aircraft is approaching to land with its CG at the forward limit
...

A – difficult; higher
B – easy; lower
C – easy; higher
D – difficult; lower
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4060
...
G
...
An aircraft is fitted with an elevator with a servo tab mechanism in the pitch
control system
...
What is the effect on the aeroplane’s static longitudinal stability of a shift of the
centre of gravity to a more aft location and on the required control deflection
for a certain pitch up or down?
A – The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control
deflection is larger
B – The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control
deflection is smaller
C – The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control
deflection is larger
D – The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control
deflection is smaller
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
15713
...
A jet transport aeroplane exhibits pitch up when thrust is suddenly increased
from an equilibrium condition, because the thrust line is below the:
A – CG
B – drag line of action
C – neutral point
D – centre of pressure
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21107
...
The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the:
A – chord line and the horizontal plane
B – longitudinal axis and the chord line
C – longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane
D – speed vector axis and the longitudinal axis
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23357
...
If an increase in power tends to make the nose of an aeroplane rise, this is the
result of the:
A – line of thrust being below the CG
B – centre of lift being ahead of the CG
C – centre of lift and CG being collocated
D – line of thrust being above the CG
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23371
...
If an aircraft has a down-load on the tail plane, as the elevator is lowered:
A – the down-load is increased
B – the down-load is decreased
C – the down-load remains the same unless the tail plane incidence is changed
D – the negative camber is increased
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23465
...
The elevators control the aircraft around:
A – the lateral axis
B – the longitudinal axis
C – the normal axis
D – the horizontal stabiliser
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23576
...
What is the advantage of a variable incidence tail plane over a fixed incidence
tail plane with elevator and trim tab?
A – more powerful trim
B – increased flight stability
C – less weight
D – linkages and mechanisms less complicated
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23644
...
When is the greatest up elevator angle required for landing?
A – flaps extended with a forward CG
B – flaps extended and an aft CG

C – flaps up with a forward CG
D – flaps up with an aft CG
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23706
...
An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison
to a location beneath the wing is:
A – a wing which is less sensitive to flutter
B – easier maintenance of the engines
C – less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes
D – lighter wing construction
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
4073
...
What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing
mounted engines, one of them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating
propellers:
A – more roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane
B – the same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right
engine failure
C – the same roll tendency for both aeroplanes
D – less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23370
...
A symmetrical fin will give a side force:
A – with rudder neutral and no yaw
B – only when rudder is applied
C – only when the aircraft yaws
D – when rudder is applied and when the aircraft yaws
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23393
...
Directional control is:
A – by ailerons around the longitudinal axis
B – by rudder around the normal axis
C – by elevator around the lateral axis
D – by rudder around the longitudinal axis
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23494
...
Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?
A – In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than
upward
B – On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab
C – Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing
D – In a different aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger
upward than downward maximum deflection
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4001
...
Differential aileron deflection:
A – increases the CLmax
B – is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected
C – equals the drag of the right and left aileron
D – is required to achieve the required roll-rate
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
4013
...
Roll is:
A – rotation about the longitudinal axis due to speed brake selection
B – rotation about the normal axis
C – due to aileron deflection and is motion about the lateral axis
D – rotation about the longitudinal axis
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4048
...
Which motion occurs about the longitudinal axis?
A – Sideslip
B – Rolling
C – Pitching
D – Yawing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4054
...
In an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, and not deployed as speed
brakes, a roll to the right is initiated by:
A – right spoiler extended, left spoiler retracted
B – both spoilers extended
C – left spoiler extended, right spoiler retracted
D – right spoiler extended, but left spoiler extended more
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4065
...
One method to compensate adverse yaw is a:
A – differential aileron
B – balance tab
C – antibalance tab
D – balance panel
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
15772
...
If a turbulent gust causes an aeroplane to roll:
A – the down going wing experiences a decrease in angle of attack
B – the down going wing experiences an increase in angle of attack
C – the down going wing has no angle of attack
D – the angle of attack depends on whether the aeroplane changes speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
16716
...
An aeroplane is provided with spoilers and both inboard and outboard
ailerons
...
In what phase of flight are the outboard ailerons (if fitted) not active?
A – Take-off, until lift-off
B – Cruise
C – Approach
D – Landing with a strong and gusty crosswind, to avoid over-controlling the
aeroplane
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21164
...
While an aircraft is rolling, the down-going and up-going wing:
A – provides a force to increase the rate of roll
B – provides a damping force which reduces the rate of roll
C – has a reduced effective angle of attack
D – will stall due to the increased effective angle of attack
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23368
...
On an aircraft on which the ailerons are assisted by spoilers to give lateral
control, if the control wheel is turned to the right:
A – the right aileron moves up, right spoiler remains retracted, left spoiler
moves up, left aileron down
B – the right aileron moves up, right spoiler up, left spoiler remains retracted,
left aileron down
C – the right aileron moves down, right spoiler up, left spoiler remains
retracted, left aileron up
D – the right aileron moves up, right spoiler up, left spoiler remains retracted,
left spoiler neutral
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23389
...
Lateral control is given by:
A – the ailerons around the lateral axis
B – the elevators around the lateral axis
C – the rudder around the normal axis
D – the ailerons around the longitudinal axis
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23394
...
Spoilers are operated asymmetrically:
A – to provide pitch control
B – to provide roll control
C – to provide yaw control
D – as airbrakes in flight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23415
...
When the control column is moved back and to the left:
A – the elevators move down and the left aileron moves down
B – the left aileron moves up and the elevators move up
C – the elevators move up and the left aileron moves down
D – the left aileron moves down and the elevators move down
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23421
...
Adverse yaw during a turn entry is caused by:
A – decreased induced drag on the lowered wing and increased induced drag
on the raised wing
B – increased induced drag on the lowered wing and decreased induced drag
on the raised wing
C – increased parasite drag on the raised wing and decreased parasite drag on
the lowered wing
D – decreased induced drag on the raised wing and decreased induced drag on
the lowered wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23423
...
The angle of deflection of a differential aileron when the aircraft is being
rolled will be:
A – greatest on the up going aileron on the up going wing
B – greatest on the down going aileron on the up going wing
C – greatest on the up going aileron on the down going wing
D – greatest on the down going aileron on the down going wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23425
...
When an aircraft is rolled to the left, adverse aileron yaw will be reduced:
A – by a frise aileron being effective on the left wing
B – by fries ailerons producing increased drag on both surfaces
C – by the leading edge of the downgoing aileron protruding into the airflow
D – by the down going aileron moving through a greater angle of deflection
than the up going aileron
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23485
...
In a turn, differential ailerons:
A – reduce the drag on the inner wing
B – reduce the drag on the outer wing
C – reduce the drag on both wings
D – increase the drag on the upper wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23546
...
Roll rate is rotation about the:
A – normal axis
B – longitudinal axis due to speed brake selection
C – longitudinal axis
D – lateral axis
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23632
...
Adverse yaw in a turn is corrected with:
A – differential ailerons
B – horn balance
C – mass in the nose of the aeroplane
D – anti-balance tabs
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23651
...
Which of the following phenomena is prevented by differential ailerons?
A – adverse yaw
B – turn co-ordination
C – sensitivity to spiral dive
D – aileron reversal
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23696
...
Rolling is a ___ movement about the ___ axis:
A – lateral/lateral
B – lateral/longitudinal
C – longitudinal/lateral
D – longitudinal/longitudinal
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
24065
...
An aeroplane fitted with differential ailerons is in a level turn to the right
...
An aircraft’s tendency to dutch roll may be reduced by:
A – reducing the size of the fin
B – giving the wings an angle of anhedral
C – sweeping the wings
D – giving the aircraft longitudinal dihedral
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4011
...
Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?
A – Rolling and yawing
B – Pitching and yawing
C – Pitching and rolling
D – Pitching and adverse yaw
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4081
...
If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes:
A – a roll to the right
B – a decrease in relative airspeed on the right wing
C – an increase in lift on the left wing
D – a roll to the left
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23369
...
When the rudder is moved to the right, the force acting on the fin:
A – gives a yawing moment but no rolling moment
B – gives a rolling moment to the left
C – gives a rolling moment to the right
D – gives a nose-up pitching moment because the force is applied above the
CG
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23673
...
The inputs to the Q unit are from:
A – static and temperature
B – pitot and static
C – altitude and pitot
D – pilot and altitude
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4003
...
A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:
A – to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane
B – to prevent flutter
C – to obtain mass balancing
D – to decrease stick forces
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4012
...
Which kind of tab is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully
powered flight controls?
A – Balance tab
B – Spring tab
C – Servo tab
D – Anti-balance tab
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
4032
...
On take-off with the CG at the forward limit:
A – elevator stick force is less because of the increased tailplane arm
B – elevator stick force to rotate the aircraft at VR will be unchanged, because
the aircraft on the ground rotates about the main wheels
C – VMCG is lower due to the increased fin arm
D – elevator stick forces will be higher at VR
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4036
...
To hold a given sideslip angle and airspeed, increased geometric dihedral
would:
A – reduce the stick force to zero
B – have no effect on stick force
C – decrease the stick force
D – increase the stick force
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4050
...
When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this:
A – makes trimming superfluous
B – ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column
C – makes aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces meaningless
D – can only function in combination with an elevator trim tab
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4063
...
When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mbas balancing, these
weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface:
A – above the hinge
B – below the hinge
C – in front of the hinge
D – behind the hinge
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
20888
...
A downward adjustment of a trim tab in the longitudinal control system, has
the following effect:
A – the stick force stability remains constant
B – the stick position stability increases
C – the stick position stability remains constant
D – the stick force stability decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21050
...
Upward deflection of a trim tab in the longitudinal control results in:
A – the stick position stability remaining constant
B – increasing the stick position stability
C – increasing the stick force stability
D – the stick force stability remaining constant
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21149
...
Which statement is correct about a spring tab?
A – At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab
B – At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab
C – At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator
D – Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21187
...
A servo tab on the rudder moves:
A – when the rudder pedals are moved
B – when the rudder is moved
C – when the rudder trim wheel is moved
D – in the same direction as the rudder to make the rudder more effective at
low speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23395
...
This is
to:
A – give assistance to the pilot to move the control
B – increase the effectiveness of the control
C – increase the drag in a turn
D – give a mass balance
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23397
...
Aerodynamic balance on a flying control is used to:
A – prevent flutter of the flying control
B – reduce the load required to move the control
C – reduce the control load to zero
D – balance the aircraft about its axes
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23430
...
An inset hinge is an example of (i) balance and a horn balance is an example
of (ii) balance
A – (i) mass; (ii) mass
B – (i) mass; (ii) aerodynamic
C – (i) aerodynamic; (ii) mass
D – (i) aerodynamic; (ii) aerodynamic
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23432
...
Inset hinges:
A – provide mass forward of the control surface CG to prevent flutter
B – provide mass aft of the hinge line to prevent flutter
C – provide aerodynamic assistance to the pilot
D – prevent over balance of the controls
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23435
...
A balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface operated:
A – automatically to assist the pilot to move the controls
B – automatically to provide feel
C – independently by the pilot to remove excessive loads from the controls
D – directly by the pilot to cause movement of the main control surface
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23437
...
What is the purpose of a balance tab?
A – Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion
B – reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a
primary flight control
C – prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to
aerodynamic forces
D – decrease control forces by deflecting in the sam direction as the main
control
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23439
...
An anti-balance tab moves in the:
A – opposite direction to the control surface and increases control
effectiveness
B – same direction as the control surface and increases control effectiveness
C – opposite direction to the control surface and decreases control
effectiveness
D – same direction as the control surface and decreases control effectiveness
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23441
...
When an elevator is deflected down the balance tab will:
A – maintain its chord line parallel to the elevator chord line
B – move up relative to the elevator chord line
C – move down relative to the elevator chord line
D – maintain its chord line parallel to the tail plane chord line
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23443
...
A tab fitted to zero the loads on the pilot’s control during flight is known as:
A – a balance tab
B – a spring tab
C – an anti-balance tab
D – a trim tab
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23456
...
For an aircraft fitted with servo operated controls, if external locks are fitted to
the main control surfaces:
A – they will prevent movement of the control wheel, the control surfaces and
the servo tabs
B – they will prevent movement of the control surfaces but not the control
wheel or the servo tabs
C – they will prevent movement of the control wheel and the control surfaces
but not the servo tabs
D – they will prevent movement of the control wheel and the servo tabs but
not the control surfaces
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23459
...
For an aircraft fitted with servo tabs:
A – locks fitted on the control surface will not prevent movement of the
control wheel
B – locks on the control surface will prevent movement of the control wheel
C – locks on the control surface will prevent movement of the tabs
D – none of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23486
...
If servo tabs are fitted to a main control surface:
A – they make the control surface effective allowing for a reduced size to be
used
B – they also act as trim tabs
C – they are activated by movement of the control surface
D – the controls are less effective at low speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

23590
...
Stick force artificial feel depends on:
A – elevator deflection/static pressure
B – elevator deflection/dynamic pressure
C – stabiliser deflection/total pressure
D – stabiliser deflection/static pressure
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
24070
...
The location of mass balance weights is:
A – on the hinge line if the control surface has an inset hinge
B – on the hinge line if the control surface does not have an inset hinge
C – always on the hinge line, irrespective of the type of aerodynamic balance
D – in front of the hinge line
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

3986
...
When a large modern aircraft employs a variable incidence tailplane, trim
changes are made by:
A – adjusting the trim tab on the trailing edge of the elevator
B – changing the angle of the entire tailplane
C – varying the spring bias trimming system
D – adjusting the Q feel unit
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21075
...
Mass-balancing of control surfaces is used to:
A – increase the stick force stability
B – limit the stick forces
C – ensure that the control surfaces are in the mid-position during taxiing
D – prevent flutter of control surfaces
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

21185
...
On fully hydraulic powered flight controls there is no need for mass
balancing
ll
...
The effect of a mass balance weight is to:
A – move the control surface CG forward onto the control hinge
B – increase the mass of the control surface without moving its CG
C – move the control surface G rearwards
D – make the mass balance weight coincident with the control hinge
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23608
...
Power assisted flying control systems have trim controls primarily in order to:
A – allow the pilot to maintain control in case of hydraulic failure
B – relieve stresses on the trim tab
C – relieve stresses on the hydraulic actuators
D – bring the control forces to zero in steady flight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;

Ans: D
3980
...
One advantage of a movable-stabiliser system compared with a fixed stabiliser
system is that:
A – the systems complexity is reduced
B – the structure weighs less
C – it leads to greater stability in flight
D – it is a more powerful means of trimming
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4022
...
In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted
with an adjustable stabiliser instead of trim tabs on the elevator
...
Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during take-off at the
maximum allowable forward centre of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimming
Horizontal Stabiliser) has been positioned at the maximum allowable AND
(Aeroplane Nose Down) position
...
The reason for having a trim system on powered assisted flying controls is:
A – enables the pilot to maintain control in case of hydraulic failure
B – relieve stresses on the trim tab
C – relieve stresses on the hydraulic actuators
D – enables the stick force to be reduced to zero
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4061
...
What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal
stabiliser of a power assisted aeroplane, which is in trim?
A – The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the
position of the centre of gravity
B – The elevator deflection (compared to the stabiliser position) is always zero
C – At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the
elevator is deflected downward
D – The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have
sufficient remaining flare capability
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4066
...
How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for
speed increase?
A – The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change
B – The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab
C – The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable
horizontal stabiliser
D – Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected
trim tab
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

15776
...
An aircraft is equipped with an all flying tailplane which has c ombined
antibalance and trimming tab
...

Which of the following statements is most correct?
A – The tab moves up, so that less effort is required when the pilot attempts to
move the control column to the rear
B – The tab moves up, so that more effect is required when the pilot attempts
to move the control clumn to the rear
C – The tab moves down, so that less effort is required when the pilot attempts
to move the control column to the rear
D – The tab moves down, so that more effort is required when the pilot
attempts to move the control column to the rear
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21087
...
Which statement in respect of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is correct?
A – Because take-off speeds do not vary with centre of gravity location, the
need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position only
B – An aeroplane with a forward cg requires the stabiliser leading edge to be
lower than for one with an aft cg in the same trimmed condition
C – An aeroplane with a forward cg requires the stabiliser leading edge to be
higher than for one with an aft cg in the same trimmed condition
D – At the forward C
...
limit, stabiliser trim is adjusted fully nose down to
obtain maximum elevator authority at rotation during take-off
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23376
...
When checking the range of movement of an elevator trim tab as part of the
pre-flight check, movement of the trim wheel or trim switches will move the:
A – tab and control column
B – elevator
C – tab
D – tab, elevator and control column
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23446
...
Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable
trim tab move when the control surface is moved?
A – same direction
B – opposite direction
C – in the same direction at high speeds to increase the stick force, but in the
opposite direction at low speed
D – remains fixed for all positions
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23448
...
On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tail plane, the tail plane
incidence changes:
A – if the control column is moved
B – if the trim wheel is turned
C – automatically if the elevator moves
D – by re-setting it on the ground
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23450
...
If the elevator trim wheel is moved fully back, what will happen to the control
range?
A – no effect on range
B – increase elevator range
C – decrease elevator range
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23452
...
When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to correct a tendency to
fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab on the left aileron will move:
A – up and this causes theleft aileron to move down, and the right one to move
up
B – up and this causes the left aileron to move down, but the right aileron will
remain neutral
C – down and this causes the left aileron to move up and the right aileron to
move down
D – down and this causes the left aileron to move up and the right aileron to
move up
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23454
...
Down movement of the elevator trimming tab will:
A – make the aircraft nose heavy
B – overcome a tendency to fly nose heavy
C – overcome a tendency to fly tail heavy
D – make the aircraft pitch nose down
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23457
...
To trim an aircraft which tends to fly tail heavy with hands off, the top of the
elevator trimming wheel mounted on a shaft running laterally would be
rotated:
A – forward/trim tab down/elevator up
B – rearward/trim tab up/elevator up
C – rearward/trim tab down/elevator down
D – forward/trim tab up/elevator down
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23621
...
How
will this affect stick forces at take-off?
A – increase stick forces
B – decrease stick forces
C – set off an alarm
D – nose wheel will lift off early
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23622
...
What position must the stabiliser be in during take-off with a nose heavy
aircraft, compared to a “balanced” aircraft?
A – more nose u trim/decreased stabiliser incidence
B – more nose down trim/decreased stabiliser incidence
C – less nose up trim/increased stabiliser incidence
D – less nose down trim/increased stabiliser incidence
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23663
...
Why does a transport aircraft with powered controls use a horizontal stabiliser
trim?
A – pilot input is not subject to aerodynamic control forces
B – trim tabs are not effective enough
C – overly complex mechanism
D – trim tabs would increase Mcrit
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23729
...
To adjust for a deceleration, the trim tab on an elevator:
A – moves up, making the elevator move down
B – moves down, making the elevator move up
C – moves down, adjusting the variable incidence tail plane
D – moves up, making the variable incidence tail plane increase incidence
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
24066
...
What is the effect?
A – less stick force is required to rotate
B – more stick force is required to rotate
C – the stick force required to rotate is not affected
D – the aeroplane is longitudinally neutrally statically stable
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

081-06

LIMITATIONS
081-06-01 Operating limitations

3618
...
An aircraft is flown at 20% below its normal weight
...
When flying at speeds above VA:
A – full elevator deflection may result in damage to the airframe or structural
failure
B – an overspeed warning will be activated
C – the aircraft may self-destruct in a turn
D – the aircraft cannot be stalled
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
3635
...
(Refer to figure 081-05)
In a high speed descent at MMO you will reach VMO at:
A – M 0
...
The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport
aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula: (SQRT= square root)
A – Va = VA SQRT (3
...
5)
C – VS = VA SQRT (3
...
5)
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
3642
...
36% lower
C – No change
D – 10% lower
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

3644
...
For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies
...
Flutter may be caused by:
A – distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing
vibration in the reasonable frequency
B – low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall
C – roll control reversal
D – high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

3654
...
A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at the constant IAS and constant
weight
...
An aircraft has a mass of 60,000 kg and a limiting positive load factor of 2
...

VA is calculated as the EAS at which full positive elevator deflection will give
the limiting load factor at the stall, and is 237 kts
...
A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant
Mach Number with constant weight
...
VMO:
A – should be chosen in between VC and VD
B – is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity
C – is the calibrated airspeed at which MMO is reached at 35
...
Aileron reversal can be caused by:
A – twisting of the wing above reversal speed
B – fries type ailerons at low angles of attack
C – both A and B
D – neither A nor B
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21000
...
How can wing flutter be prevented?
A – By installing the fuel tanks in the fuselage
B – By increasing the aspect ratio of the wing
C – By mounting the engines on the fuselage
D – By locating mass in front of the torsion axis of the wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21140
...
Aileron reversal may be caused by:
A – the wing twisting and increasing incidence when the aileron is lowered
B – the wing twisting and reducing incidence when the aileron is lowered
C – the aileron being pushed in the reverse direction by aileron drag
D – the wing twisting and reducing incidence when the aileron is raised
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23512
...
Mmo can be exceeded in a climb at a constant IAS because:
A – maintaining a constant IAS requires an increase in TAS
B – as altitude increases the local speed of sound increases
C – at reduced density the mach meter will under read
D – position error increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23514
...
What is flutter caused by?
A – low airspeed aerodynamic stall
B – high airspeed aerodynamic stall
C – control reversal
D – bending and torsion causing vibration at the resonant frequency
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

081-06-02 Manoeuvring envelope
3619
...
Which has the effect of increasing load factor (all other relevant factors being
constant)?
A – Rearward CG location
B – Increased aeroplane mass
C – Increased air density
D – Vertical gusts
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
3656
...
75
B – 1
...
5
D – 2
...
What is the positive limit load factor for large jet transport aircraft?
A – n = 2
...
75
C – n = 1
...
0
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
3659
...
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility
category in the clean configuration is:
A – 2
...
4
C – 3
...
0
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3667
...
5
C – 3
...
5
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21126
...
What is the significance of the maximum allowed cruising altitude, based on
the 1
...
3 will cause a Mach number at which
accelerated low speed stall occurs
B – a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1
...
3 will cause buffet onset
D – exceeding a load factor of 1
...
When flying slightly faster than Va:
A – the airframe may collapse in a turn
B – possible permanent deformation of the structure may occur with full
elevator deflection
C – a high speed warning will be activated
D – the aircraft cannot stall
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23594
...
Which of the following is correct?
A – By extending the flaps during severe turbulence it is possible to reduce
speed and increase the margins to structural limitations
B – By extending flaps during extreme turbulence, the CP moves aft which
will increase the margin to structural limitations
C – Extending flaps in turbulence reduces the stall speed, but will reduce the
margin to structural limitations
D – None of the above is correct
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23641
...
0
B – 1
...
0
D – 3
...
Va for an aeroplane with one fixed Va is defined as:
A – the highest speed at which full elevator deflection can be made without
exceeding the design limit load factor
B – the speed at which the aeroplane would stall at the maximum limit load
factor at maximum all up weight
C – the speed at which a large transport aircraft should be flown in turbulence
D – none of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
24079
...
3Va and full nose up elevator deflection
is applied
...
Va is the:
A – maximum speed at which maximum deflection is allowed
B – maximum speed at which rolls are allowed
C – speed at which a heavy aeroplane should fly in turbulence
D – speed that should not be exceeded in the climb
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

081-06-03 Gust envelope
3241
...
Which of the following is a correct statement of gust factors applied in
certification under JAR 25?
A – 55 fps at VC
B – 66 fps at VD
C – 50 fps at VC
D – 25 fps at VB
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3631
...
Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all
other factors of importance being constant)?
1
...
Increasing the speed will increase the gust load factor
A – 1 and 2 are incorrect
B – 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct
C – 1 and 2 are correct
D – 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3633
...
Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean
configuration)?
A – 66 ft/sec and VD
B – 50 ft/sec and VC
C – 65 ft/sec at all speeds
D – 55 ft/sec and VB
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3640
...
the gust load increases, when the weight decreases
2
...
An aircraft flying at a given EAS is subject to a positive gust of 50 kt EAS
...
The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated by the following three
vertical speed in ft/s (clean configuration):
A – 25, 55, 75
B – 15, 56, 65
C – 25, 50, 66
D – 35, 55, 66
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3655
...
All gust lines in the V-n graph originate from a point where the:
A – speed = 0, load factor = 0
B – speed = 0, load factor = +1
C – speed = VS, load factor = 0
D – speed = VB, load factor = +1
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21122
...
Which statement is correct about the gust load factor on an aeroplane?
l
...
When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor increases
A – 1 is correct, ll is correct
B – l is incorrect, ll is incorrect
C – l is incorrect, ll is correct
D – l is correct, ll is incorrect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23502
...
Which of the following is a correct design gust value?
A – 25 ft/sec at Vb
B – 50 ft/sec at Vc
C – 66 ft/sec at Vd
D – 55 ft/sec at Vd
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23626
...
Which of the following are the gust values used in the V-n diagram?
A – 66 ft/sec / 55 ft/sec / 35 ft/sec
B – 75 ft/sec / 25 ft/sec / 50 ft/sec
C – 20 ft/sec / 55 ft/sec / 70 ft/sec
D – 50 ft/sec / 66 ft/sec / 25 ft/sec
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23732
...
Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between:
A – the usable (power available) power and the maximum power
B – the thrust and the maximum thrust
C – usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power
D – the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3674
...
The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller can be increased by:
A – reducing power and reducing TAS
B – increasing power and increasing TAS
C – reducing power and increasing TAS
D – increasing power and reducing TAS
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
3681
...
Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct?
A – The blade angle increases with increasing speed
B – The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant
C – The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed
D – The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
3689
...
The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when:
A – forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing
B – velocity and RPM increase
C – RPM increases and forward velocity decreases
D – velocity and RPM decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3703
...
Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct?
A – Propeller angle of attack = angle between blade chord line and propeller
vertical plane
B – Blade angle = angle between blade chord line and propeller axis
C – Geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a propeller blade
element is travelling in forward direction in one propeller revolution
D – Critical tip velocity = propeller speed at which risk of flow separation at
some parts of propeller blade occurs
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3722
...
Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch
propellers because they:
A – have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller
B – produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range
C – produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller
D – have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3730
...

A – decrease, decrease
B – increase, decrease
C – decrease, increase
D – increase, increase
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

3736
...
If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide
with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
A – decrease and the rate of descent will increase
B – increase and the rate of descent will decrease
C – increase and the rate of descent will increase
D – decrease and the rate of descent will decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
3754
...
The geometric pith of a propeller is:
A – the distance it would forward in one revolution at the blade angle
B – the angle the blade makes with the plane of rotation
C – the distane the propeller actually moves forward in one revolution
D – the difference between A and C
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

16691
...
Running an engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller at full throttle with the
aircraft stationary and nose into strong wind will result in:
A – a variable rpm depending on the CSU
B – higher rpm than in still air
C – lower rpm than in still air
D – the sane rpm as in still air
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
16704
...
An aeroplane is fitted with a constant speed propeller
...
If the propeller pitch, within its constant speed range and at constant power,
during descent at constant IAS is decreased, the aeroplane lift to drag ratio
will:
A – decrease and the rate of descent will decrease
B – increase and the rate of descent will increase
C – decrease and the rate of descent will increase
D – increase and the rate of descent will decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21079
...
The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade increases when:
A – forward velocity increases and RPM decreases
B – velocity and RPM increase
C – RPM increases and forward velocity decreases
D – velocity and RPM decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21110
...
Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?
A – To ensure that the tip produces most thrust
B – To ensure the angle of attack is greatest at the tip
C – To ensure that the root produces most thrust
D – To maintain a constant angle of attack along the whole length of the
propeller blade
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23526
...
The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between:
A – the root chord and the tip chord of the propeller
B – the chord and the airflow relative to the propeller
C – the chord of the propeller and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
D – the propeller chord and the plane of rotation of the propeller
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23528
...
A constant speed propeller is one which:
A – rotates at a constant speed by altering the blade angle
B – is most efficient at a constant aircraft speed
C – rotates at a constant speed by maintaining a constant blade angle
D – maintains a constant aircraft speed by altering blade angle
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23530
...
The forces acting on a propeller are:
A – thrust only
B – thrust and drag only
C – torque only
D – thrust and torque
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23558
...
The propeller pitch will (1) and the propeller torque will
(2):
A – increase/remain constant
B – increase/increase
C – decrease/increase
D – remain constant/decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

23581
...
If the engine is developing no thrust in a glide, if the propeller pitch is
increased:
A – L/D increases, ROD increases
B – L/D decreases, ROD increases
C – L/D increases, ROD decreases
D – L/D decreases, ROD decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23630
...
When an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller climbs, does the angle of attack
of the propeller:
A – get smaller
B – remain the same
C – get bigger
D – reduce to zero
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23669
...
The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:
A – is lower in the take-off run than in flight
B – is optimum in flight
C – is optimum in stabilised cruise flight
D – decreases with decrease in speed at constant engine RPM
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23728
...
An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a non rotating
(2) propeller
...
A twin-engine aircraft is available in both jet and propeller variants
...
In the
case of failure of one engine how would the engine torque effect show itself?
A – Jet: roll towrd the dead engine; Propeller: roll toward the dead engine
B – Jet: no change; Propeller: roll in the direction of rotation of the dead
engine
C – Jet: roll toward the live engine; Propeller: roll toward the dead engine
D – Jet: no change but; Propeller: roll away from the live engine
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
3726
...
The
engines are mounted on the wngs in the same position in both types
...
When the blades of a propeller are in the fethered position:
A – the windmilling RPM is the maximum
B – the propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM
C – the drag of the propeller is then minimal
D – the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

3739
...
With a propeller feathered:
A – the best windmilling speed is achieved
B – the engine will turn over just fast enough to lubricate it
C – there will be minimum lift to drag ratio
D – there will be minimum drag on the propeller
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21088
...
An aircraft fitted with a constant speed propeller is in a gliding descent with
the throttle closed and the engine at idle; what would be the effect if the
propeller lever were pulled back?
A – rate of descent would increase and RPM increase
B – ROD decreases and RPM decreases
C – ROD remains the same and RPM increases
D – ROD remains the same and RPM decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

23569
...
When considering 2 multi-engine aircraft, one a jet and one with co-rotating
propellers, following an engine failure in flight which of the following is most
likely to occur?
A – the jet will have a greater rolling tendency
B – the propeller will have a greater rolling tendency
C – both will have the same rolling tendency
D – neither will tend to roll
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23623
...
If the propeller RPM lever is pushed forward during a power off descent the
propeller pitch:
A – increases and ROD increases
B – increases and ROD decreases
C – decreases and ROD increases
D – decreases and ROD decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23670
...
A single engine aircraft with a constant speed propeller is in a gliding descent
with the engine idling; what would be the effect of increasing the propeller
pitch?
A – increased L/D max, increased ROD
B – decreased L/D max, increased ROD
C – increased L/D max, decrased ROD
D – decreased L/D max, decreased ROD
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

081-07-03 Design feature for power absorption
3669
...
In the alpha and beta ranges respectively the governed elements of turboprop
propeller controls are as follows:
A – fuel flow and pitch
B – reverse thrust and blade angle
C – engine RPM and fuel flow
D – propeller RPM and engine RPM
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

3679
...
Increasing the number of propeller blades will:
A – decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power
B – increase the propeller efficiency
C – increase the noise level at maximum power
D – increase the maximum absorption of power
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
3684
...
Why does the blade angle of a propeller change from root to tip?
A – To compensate for the increased velocity of the blade tip
B – Cross-sectional segment increases from tip to root
C – To provide increased thrust at root
D – To compensate for the change in geometric cross section
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

3696
...
The number of blades in a propeller would be increased:
A – to increase the efficiency of the variable pitch mechanism
B – to increase power absorption capability
C – to reduce noise
D – to enable a longer undercarriage to be fitted
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
16700
...
The more blades a propeller has, the more power it is able to absorb
...
What is the purpose of increasing the number of propeller blades?
A – noise reduction
B – increase the power absorption
C – increase the efficiency of the variable pitch mechanism
D – enable a longer undercarriage to be used
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23615
...
Asymmetric propeller blade effect is mainly induced by:
A – large angles of yaw
B – large angles of climb
C – the inclination of the propeller axis to the relative airflow
D – high speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3671
...
The asymmetric thrust
effect in the climb will:
A – roll the aeroplane to the right
B – roll the aeroplane to the left
C – yaw the aeroplane to the right
D – yaw the aeroplane to the left
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;

Ans: D

3677
...
The asymmetric thrust
effect is mainly induced by:
A – large angles of yaw
B – high speed
C – high angles of attack
D – large angles of climb
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3685
...
A propeller turns to the right, seen from behind
...
Propeller efficiency is best described as:
A – thrust HP to shaft HP
B – thrust HP to overall power
C – brake HP to maximum power
D – thermal HP to shaft HP
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

3707
...
Which of the following would change the magnitude of the gyroscopic
precession effect of the propeller?
A – Propeller blade angle
B – Rate of roll
C – Propeller RPM
D – TAS
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
3723
...
A propeller rotating anti-clockwise when viewed from the front, during the
take-off ground roll will:
A – produce an increased load on the left wheel due to torque reaction
B – produce an increased load on the right wheel due to gyroscopic effect
C – produce an increased load on the right wheel due to torque reaction
D – produce an increased load on the left wheel due to gyroscopic effect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

3753
...
Propeller torque is caused by:
A – the propeller trying to reduce the pitch angl owing to the centrifugal
turning moment
B – the forces caused by the airflow on the propeller
C – the forward thrust on the propeller
D – the backward thrust on the propeller
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
16695
...
For an aircraft with a right hand propeller, the slip-stream rotation will cause:
A – yaw to the left
B – yaw to the right
C – roll to the left
D – roll to the right
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

16697
...
On a single engined aircraft with a right hand propeller the gyroscopic effect
causes:
A – the nose to rise during turn to the left
B – the nose to fall during turns to the left
C – roll to the right during turns to the left
D – roll to the left during turns to the right
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
16699
...
For a tail wheel aircraft with a right handed propeller, at the start of the take
off run, ashymmetric blade effect causes:
A – yaw to right
B – no effect
C – nose down pitch (tail up)
D – yaw to left
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

23557
...
Which of the following would alter the gyroscopic effect of a propeller?
A – roll and pitch
B – pitch an roll
C – increase rpm
D – decrease blade angle
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23631
...
Torque effect of a propeller which turns to the right produces a:
A – nose up pitching moment
B – rolling moment to the left
C – nose down pitching moment
D – rolling moment to the right
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

081-08

FLIGHT MECHANICS

081-08-01 Forces acting on an airplane
3623
...
42,
increase in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by is 0
...
A vertical up
gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees
...
74
B – 1
...
49
D – 2
...
An aircraft is in straight, level flight has a CL of 0
...
1
...
7
B – n = 1
...
4
D – n = 1
...
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0
...

Increase of angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0
...
A vertical up
gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees
...
18
B – 1
...
0
D – 2
...
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0
...

Increase in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0
...
A vertical up
gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees
...
9
B – 0
...
45
D – 1
...
Which of the following statements is correct?
1
...
The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate
A – l is correct, ll is correct
B – l is incorrect, ll is incorrect
C – l is correct, ll is incorrect
D – l is incorrect, ll is correct
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4091
...
What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of
50
...
000 N
B – 60
...
000 N
D – 80
...
The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear climb with a climb
angle (gamma) is approximately:
A – Wcos
...
gamma)
C – W(1-tan
...
gamma
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4097
...
The slip indicator is left of neutral
...
What action must the pilot take to maintain altitude and airspeed when turning
in a jet aircraft?
A – Increase thrust
B – Increase angle of attack
C – Decrease the turn radius
D – Increase angle of attack and thrust
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4103
...
32 times the minimum drag speed
B – the minimum drag speed
C – the same as for a propeller aircraft
D – the minimum power speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

4106
...
For an aircraft in level flight, if the wing centre of pressure is aft of the centre of
gravity and there is no thrust-drag couple, the tailplane load must be:
A – directed upwards
B – up or down depending on the position of the flight spoilers
C – directed downwards
D – zero at all times
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
4111
...
By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45o angle of
bank, compared to straight and level flight?
A – 41%
B – 19%
C – 31%
D – 52%
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

4115
...
In a steady turn at constant height:
A – the radius of turn depends upon the weight and load factor
B – the rate of turn depends upon the TAS and angle of bank
C – the rate of turn depends upon the weight, TAS and angle of bank
D – the radius of turn depends only upon load factor
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4127
...
The same aeroplane with the same bank angle and the same speed, but
at a lower mass will:
A – turn with a higher turn rate
B – turn with the same turn radius
C – turn with a larger turn radius
D – turn with a smaller turn radius
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4129
...
If VS1G is 100kt, the stalling speed in a 45o bank level turn will be:
A – 119 kts
B – 80 kts
C – 141 kts
D – 100 kts
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4133
...
In order to achieve the maximum rate of climb, aircraft should be flown at the
indicated airspeed which:
A – gives the best lift/drag ratio
B – gives maximum excess power
C – gives the best thrust/drag ratio
D – gives the best speed/drag ratio
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4140
...
In such a case, the pilot has to:
A – increase thrust and decrease angle of attack
B – increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged
C – increase thrust and angle of attack
D – increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

4142
...
The speed for minimum sink rate in a glide, compared to the speed for
maximum distane VIMD is:
A – equal to VIMD
B – slower than VIMD
C – faster than VIMD
D – not related to VIMD
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4156
...
These may be classified as:
A – tensile, shear, twisting and stretching
B – compressive, tensile, shear and torsional
C – thrust, drag, lift and weight
D – compressive, bending, shear and torsional
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
4160
...
A more heavy
aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will:
A – turn at a smaller turn radius
B – turn at a bigger turn radius
C – turn at the same turn radius
D – turn ata higher turn rate
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

4165
...
The angle of climb of an aircraft is proportional to ___ and ___ as weight
increases:
A – excess power; decreases
B – excess thrust; increases
C – excess thrust; decreases
D – excess power; increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
4167
...
Which of the following will give an increase of ground range when gliding at
VDmin?
A – Increased weight
B – A tailwind
C – A headwind
D – Decreased weight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

4172
...
In this condition:
A – drag isles than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward
B – lift is equal to weight
C – lift is less tan drag
D – weight is greater than lift
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4181
...
From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can read:
A – the maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient
B – the minimum drag and the maximum lift
C – the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift
D – the minimum CL/CD ratio and the minimum drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4183
...
An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle
of 45o
...
354 metres
B - 2
...
743 metres
D – 9
...
The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at
constant weight varies linearly with:
A–V
B – 1/V
C – 1/V2
D – v2
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
15723
...
The location of the centre of pressure of a positive cambered wing at
increasing angle of attack will:
A – shift aft
B – shift in spanwise direction
C – shift forward
D – not shift
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

16652
...
Flying horizontally in a turn:
A – less power is required than in level flight
B – more power is required than in level flight
C – the same power is required
D – more of less power may be required depending on which side of the drag
curve the aeroplane is sitting
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
16662
...
The margin between the power available and the power required:
A – increases when the aircraft climbs
B – decreases when the aircraft climbs
C – decreases when the aircraft descends
D – remains the same
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

16664
...
In a level banked turn, the stalling speed will:
A – decrease
B – increase
C – remain the same
D – vary inversely with wing loading
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
16667
...
To cover the greatest distance when gliding, the gliding speed must be:
A – near to the stalling speed
B – as high as possible within V limits
C – minimum control speed
D – the one that gives the lowest total drag
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

21018
...
How do the following
variables change during the climb? (gamma = flight path angle)
A – gamma decrases, angle of attack increases, IAS remains constant
B – gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS decreases
C – gamma decreases, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases
D – gamma remains constant, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21026
...
The turn radius
is 1000 m
...
An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral
...
An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal turn with a TAS of 200 kt
...
The load factor (n) is approximately:
A – 2
...
4
C – 1
...
8
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

21032
...
Dividing lift by weight gives:
A – wing loading
B – lift-drag ratio
C – load factor
D – aspect ratio
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21044
...
During a straight steady climb:
1
...

3
...

5
...


lift is less than weight
lift is greater than weight
load factor is less than 1
load factor is greater than 1
lift is equal to weight
load factor is equal to 1

Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
A – 1 and 3
B – 2 and 4
C – 5 and 6
D – 1 and 6
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21054
...
Given:
Aeroplane mass:
Lift/Drag ratio:
Thrust per engine:
Assumed g:

50 000 kg
10
60 000 N
10 m/s2

For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the all
engines climb gradient will be:
A – 3
...
7%
D – 11
...
Given:
Aeroplane mass:
Lift/Drag ratio:
Thrust per engine:
Assumed g:

50 000 kg
10
20 000 N
10 M/S2

For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four engine aeroplane, the all
engines climb gradient will be:
A – 8
...
3%
C – 7
...
0%
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
21060
...
5%
B – 9
...
9%
D – 8
...
Given:
Aeroplane mass:
Lift/Drag ratio:
Thrust per engine:
Assumed g:

50 000 kg
12
20 000 N
10 m/s2

For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four engine aeroplane, the all
engines climb gradient will be:
A – 4
...
7%
C – 6
...
5%
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21062
...
5%
B – 4
...
7%
D – 6
...
Given:
Aeroplane mass:
Lift/Drag ratio:
Thrust per engine:
Assumed g:

50 000 kg
12
21 000 N
10 m/s2

For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four engine aeroplane, the
one engine inoperative climb gradient will be:
A – 6
...
7%
C – 4
...
5%
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21064
...
5%
B – 8
...
7%
D – 2
...
Given:
Aeroplane mass:
Lift/Drag ratio:
Thrust per engine:
Assumed g:

50 000 kg
12
28 000 N
10 m/s2

For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three engine aeroplane, the one
engine inoperative climb gradient will be:
A – 8
...
7%
C – 2
...
5%
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21066
...
9%
B – 9
...
0%
D – 8
...
Given:
Aeroplane mass:
Lift/Drag ratio:
Thrust per engine:
Assumed g:

50 000 kg
12
50 000 N
10 m/s2

For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the all
engines climb gradient will be:
A – 15
...
7%
C – 14%
D – 11
...
Given:
Aeroplane mass:
Lift/Drag ratio:
Thrust per engine:
Assumed g:

50 000 kg
12
60 000 N
10 m/s2

For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplan e, the all
engines climb gradient will be:
A – 14%
B – 3
...
7%
D – 11
...
Given:
Aeroplane mass:
Lift/Drag ratio:
Thrust per engine:
Assumed g:

50 000 kg
12
60 000 N
10 m/s2

For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the one
engine inoperative climb gradient will be:
A – 3
...
7%
C – 14%
D – 11
...
In a slipping turn (nose pointing outwards), compared with a co-ordinated
turn, the bank angle (i) and the “ball” or slip indicator (ii) are respectively:
A – (i) too large; (ii) displaced towards the high wing
B – (i) too small; (ii) displaced towards the low wing
C – (i) too large; (ii) displaced towards the low wing
D – (i) too small; (ii) displaced towards the high wing
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21083
...
In a straight steady descent, which of the following statements is correct?
A – Lift is equal to weight, load factor is equal to 1
B – Lift is less that weight, load factor is equal to 1
C – Lift is less than weight, load factor is less than 1
D – Lift is equal to weight, load factor is less than 1
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21085
...
The descent angle of a given aeroplane in a steady wings level glide has a
fixed value for a certain combination of:
(ignore compressibility effects and assume zero thrust)
A – configuration and angle of attack
B – mass and altitude
C – altitude and configuration
D – configuration and mass
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21121
...
The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at an angle of attack that
corresponds to (assume zero thrust):
A – (CL/CD^2) max
B – CL max
C – (CL/CD) max
D – (CL^3/CD^2) max
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
21137
...
If the TAS of A is 130 kt and that of B is 200
kt:
A – the rate of turn of A is greater than that of B
B – the load factor of A is greater than that of B
C – the turn radius of A is greater than that of B
D – the lift coefficient of A is less than that of B
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21142
...
What increases the maximum ground distance during a glide with zero thrust?
A – A decrease in aeroplane mass with zero wind
B – A headwind with constant aeroplane mass
C – An increase in aeroplane mass with zero wind
D – A tailwind with constant aeroplane mass
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

21144
...
What is the approximate radius of a steady horizontal co-ordinated turn at a
bank angle of 45o and a TAS of 200 kt?
A – 1 km
B – 10 km
C – 2 km
D – 1
...
What is the correct relationship between the true airspeed for (i) minimum
sink rate and (ii) minimum glide angle, at a given altitude?
A – (i) is equal to (ii)
B – (i) is less than (ii)
C – (i) is greater than (ii)
D – (i) can be greater than or less than (ii) depending on the type of aeroplane
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
21155
...
83
B – 1
...
98
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

21183
...
What is load factor?
A – lift multiplied by the total weight
B – lift divided by the total weight
C – lift subtracted by the total weight
D – the total weight divided by the wing area
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23273
...
In steady level flight the load factor is:
A – zero
B – 1
...
5
D – 2
...
If cruising into a 15 kt headwind and a 180o turn is made so the wind is
directly behind the aircraft, the IAS would
A – be the same and the ground speed would increase by 30 kt
B – be the same and the ground speed would increase by 15 kt
C – decrease by 15 kt and the ground speed would increase by 15 kt
D – increase by 30 kt and the ground speed would remain the same
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23326
...
When an airraft is in level unaccelerated flight:
A – parasite drag equals induced drag
B – lift is greater than weight
C – lift equals weight and thrust equals drag
D – lift and weight are equal and act through the CP
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23375
...
For a given TAS and bank angle, a heavy aircraft:
A – will have a larger radius of turn than a lighter one
B – will have a smaller radius of turn than a lighter one
C – will have the same radius of turn as a lighter one, but at a higher g load
D – will have the same radius of turn as a lighter one and the same g load
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23380
...
When an aircraft is in level unaccelerated flight:
A – parasite drag equals induced drag
B – lift must be greater than weight
C – upward forces equal downward forces and thrust equals drag
D – lift and weight are equal and both act through the CP
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23401
...
The best speed for obstacle clearance is:
A – Vx with optimum flap setting for runway length, take-off weight and
atmospheric conditions
B – Vx and no high lift devices
C – Vy with no flaps
D – Vy with optimum flap setting for runway length, take-off weight and
atmospheric conditions
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23403
...
A glider has a L/D ratio of 25:1
...
5 NM
C – 25 NM
D – 40 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23405
...
The force which causes an aircraft to turn is given by:
A – the rudder
B – the ailerons
C – the wing lift
D – the weight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23407
...
If an aircraft maintains a constant radius of turn but the speed is increased:
A – the bank angle must be increased
B – the bank angle must be decreased
C – the bank angle will remain constant and the g load will be constant
D – the bank angle will remain constant but the g load will increase
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23409
...
While holding the angle of bank constant, if the rate of turn is varied the load
factor would:
A – vary depending upon the resultant lift vector
B – remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector
C – vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift
vector varies proportionately
D – increase at an increasing rate
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23411
...
Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane
in steady state level flight?
A – thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal
B – thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight
C – thrust is less than drag and lift is less than weight
D – these forces are equal
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23468
...
In a steady climb, the rate of climb is a maximum when:
A – angle of climb is a maximum
B – excess thrust is a maximum
C – lift is a maximum
D – excess power is a maximum
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23471
...
In a steady climb at a constant speed:
A – the power available must equal the power required
B – the power available must exceed the power required
C – the power available must be less than the power required
D – the power required must be greater than the power available
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23473
...
When gliding, the speed which will give the minimum rate of descent is:
A – as close to the stalling speed as possible
B – the same as the speed for maximum glide range
C – less than the speed for maximum glide range
D – higher than the speed for maximum glide range
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23475
...
If, during a level turn the rate of turn is kept constant, an increase in airspeed
will result in a:
A – decrease in centrifugal force
B – constant load factor regardless of changes in bank angle
C – need to decrease angle of bank to maintain the same radius of turn
D – need to increase angle of bank to maintain the same radius of turn
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23477
...
What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a
constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?
A – rate will increase and radius will decrease
B – rate will decrease and radius will increase
C – rate and radius will increase
D – rate and radius will decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23479
...
Why is it necessary to increase bank elevator pressure to maintain altitude
during a turn?
A – rudder deflection and slight aileron use throughout the turn
B – due to the loss of the vertical component of lift
C – due to the loss of the horizontal component of lift
D – because the wing tip on the outside of the turn is travelling faster
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23481
...
When the landing gear is lowered, given that the CG does not move
longitudinally, to maintain level flight, the download on the tail plane must
be:
A – increased
B – decreased
C – remain the same
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23489
...
At a constant IAS, the radius of turn increases, the angle of bank has been:
A – increased
B – decreased
C – held constant
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23492
...
What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a co-ordinated turn while
maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude?
A – the rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor
B – the rate of turn will decrease resulting in no change in the load factor
C – the rate of turn will increase resulting in an increased load factor
D – the rate of turn will increase resulting in a decreased load factor
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23498
...
In a climb the weight component along the flight path is balanced by:
A – thrust
B – lift
C – drag
D – gravity
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23534
...
A glide ratio of 14:1 with respect to the air mass will be:
A – 7:1 in a headwind and 28:1 in a tailwind
B – 7:1 in a tailwind and 28:1 in a headwind
C – 14:1 in a tailwind and 7:1 in a headwind
D – 14:1 regardless of wind direction and speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23549
...
If the airspeed is increased from 90 kts to 135 kts during a level 60o banked
turn, the load factor will:
A – decrease and the stall speed will increase
B – remain the same but the radius of turn will increase
C – increase as well as the stall speed
D – increase and the radius of turn will increase
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23587
...
A light twin is flying at 150 kt TAS in a 20 degree bank turn, a heavier aircraft
is flying at the same speed and angle of bank, what will be the radius of the
heavier aircraft?
A – the same as the light aircraft
B – greater than the light aircraft
C – less than the light aircraft
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23620
...
If the turn and slip indicator needle shows right and ball to the left, the correct
input is:
A – more bank to the right
B – more right rudder
C – less bank to the right
D – increase turn radius
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
23625
...
In a constant continuous descent of 1000 ft/min at 160 kt IAS, which
statement is true?
A – lift is less than drag
B – lift is less than weight
C – drag is less than the sum of the forces driving the aeroplane forward
D – lift equals weight
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23656
...
When flying at L/D max the glide distance covered will be increased by:
A – increasing weight
B – decreasing weight
C – increasing tailwind
D – increasing headwind
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23718
...
What changes the load factor in straight and level flight?
A – an increase in weight
B – an increase in density
C – CG moving rearwards
D – a vertical gust
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
24062
...
An increase in weight will ___ glide range with a ___ wind:
A – decrease/head
B – increase/tail
C – increase/head
D – have no effect/tail
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
24068
...
The lift of an aeroplane in level flight is 50 kN
...
If the turn and slip indicator needed is to the left and the ball is to the right,
what is the correct control input?
A – more left rudder
B – more right rudder
C – less left bank
D – increase rate of turn
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
24536
...
A ten per cent reduction in
weight would give:
A – A five per cent reduction in best glide angle
B – A ten per cent increase in best glide angle
C – A decrease in best rate of descent
D – No change in best rate of descent
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
24549
...
VMCL can be limited by:
(i) engine failure on take-off
(ii) roll rate
A – (i) is incorrect; (ii) is correct
B – (i) is correct; (ii) is incorrect
C – (i) and (ii) are both correct
D – (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4113
...
When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be
limiting
ll
...
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?
A – Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine
has failed
B – Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or
slippery runways
C – Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel
has already been lifted off the ground
D – Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B

4117
...
How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature?
A – Increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds
increase if the density decreases
B – Decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases
with TAS constant and decreasing density
C – Increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate
the required rudder force
D – Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
4159
...
An aircraft is in straight and level flight with the left engine inoperative and the
wings level
...
During the take-off roll with a strong crosswind from the left, a four engine jet
aeroplane with wing mounted engines experiences an engine failure
...
For a given aeroplane which two main variables determine the value of
VMCG?
A – Airport elevation and temperature
B – Engine thrust and rudder deflection
C – Air density and runway length
D – Engine thrut and gear position
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
21141
...
Which of the following statements is correct?
l
...
The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection
A – l is incorrect; ii is correct
B – l is incorrect; ll is incorrect
C – l is correct; ll is correct
D – l is correct; ll is incorrect
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;

Ans: D
21171
...
The fin of an aircraft is a symmetrical aerofoil:
A – It will only provide an aerodynamic force when the rudder is moved
B – It will give drag, but no lift because it is a symmetrical aerofoil
C – it can give no lift, only drag
D – it could stall if the fin angle of attack is too great
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D
23412
...
What effect, if any, does altitude have on Vmc for an aeroplane with unsupercharged engines?
A – remains constant to full throttle height and then decreases
B – increases with increasing altitude
C – altitude has no effect
D – decreases with increasing altitude
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: D

23551
...
Why is it necessary to consider the nose wheel steering disconnected when
establishing Vmcg?
A – if the take off is abandoned after the nose wheel is lifted, there will be no
loss of control
B – to take account of slipper runway conditions
C – to prevent weather cocking in a cross wind
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: B
23671
...
Higher all-up-weight will make your VMCA:
A – lower
B – higher
C – the same
D – higher by half the percentage change in a
...
w
...
VMCG is the speed at which:
A – Directional control can be maintained at engine failure on take-off using
the primary flying controls
B – It is no longer possible to reject the take-off
C – Nose wheel steering becomes ineffective
D – Directional and lateral control can be maintained using aileron alone
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

081-08-03 Emergency descent
4083
...
A ten per cent reduction in
weight would give:
A – a decrease in best rate of descent
B – a ten per cent increase in best glide angle
C – a five per cent reduction in best glide angle
D – no change in best rate of descent
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A
4107
...
The maximum glide range of an aircraft will depend on wind and:
A – the ratio to lift to drag which varies according to angle of attack
B – speed for minimum power required
C – CL MAX
D – minimum Lift/Drag ratio
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

4155
...
The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between:
A – angle of attack and CL
B – CD and angle of attack
C – CL and CD
D – TAC and stall speed
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C
23377
...
To obtain the best possible gliding distance an aircraft should:
A – be as light as possible
B – have a wing that will give high lift
C – have the highest possible lift/drag ratio
D – be as heavy as possible
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23564
...
The L/D ratio allows the pilot to determine:
A – glide distance in still air from a given altitude
B – glide distance from a given altitude
C – horizontal distance covered over the ground
D – descent angle
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: A

081-08-04 Windshear
23520
...
Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind
shears to a calm wind?
A – IAS decreases/pitch up/altitude decreases
B – IAS increases/pitch down/altitude increases
C – IAS dedcreases/pitch down/altitude decreases
D – IAS increases/pitch up/altitude increases
Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl;
Ans: C

23524
...
The rate of doing work is:
A – Power, measured in Joules
B – Power, measured in Watts
C – Force, measured in Newtons
D – Power, measured in Newtons
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25406
...
During a climb how is the angle of attack affected?
A – A rate of climb airflow opposes induced flow increasing the angle of
attack
B – A rate of climb airflow adds to induced flow decreasing the angle of
attack
C – A rate of descent airflow opposes induced flow increasing the angle of
attack
D – A rate of climb airflow adds to induced flow increasing the angle of attack
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25409
...
What is viscosity?
A – The resistance to movement of one layer of air over another
B – The density of a liquid or gas
C – The pressure exerted within a substance
D – A measure of temperature and humidity
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25411
...
The resultant force from pressure envelopes around an aerofoil can be
described as:
A – The total reaction
B – Lift
C – Rotor thrust
D – The Vertical component of rotor thrust
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25415
...
Up to what height can water vapour be found in the atmosphere?
A – 11 miles
B – 6 km
C – 11 km
D – 16 miles
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25423
...
Lift = CL1/2pV2S, where S is:
A – The speed of the air flow
B – The shape of the aerofoil
C – The plan area of the aerofoil
D – Air density
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25429
...
What is a mixing unit?
A – A mechanical system of balancing the controls
B – A mechanical system of cross-coupling the controls
C – A method of balancing blade pitch angle
D – A piece of equipment a DJ might use
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25447
...
When the upper surface of an aerofoil is predominantly covered in separated
airflow the aerofoil is:
A – Descending
B – Climbing
C – Stalled
D – Retreating
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25461
...
What part of the disc is affected by retreating blade stall?
A – The tip section on the advancing side
B – The root section on the retreating side
C – The root section on the advancing side
D – The tip section on the retreating side
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25467
...
At what speed do shock waves occur on most aerofoils?
A – 0
...
5 mach
C – 1
...
85 mach
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25472
...
In fully developed vortex ring root stall moves ___ and the tip vortices ___
A – inboard; reduce
B – outboard; increase
C – outboard; reduce
D – inboard; increase
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25486
...
If a body is dynamically unstable any oscillations would be:
A – Damped
B – Divergent
C – Neutral
D – Contained
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25501
...
If density altitude increases the TAS will ___ and range will ___
A – increase; increase
B – decrease; increase
C – decrease; decrease
D – increase; decrease
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25504
...
The Centre of Pressure is the point on an aerofoil chord section where:
A – The total weight of the aircraft is said to act
B – The total reaction is said to act
C – The airflow separates from the aerofoil section
D – The maximum velocity of the airflow occurs
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25513
...
A helicopter is in unaccelerated, steady forward flight
...
The phenomenon of retreating blade stall can cause the helicopter to:
A – Suddenly pitch up and roll towards the advancing side
B – Suddenly pitch down and roll towards the retreating side
C – Suddenly pitch up and roll towards the retreating side
D – Suddenly pitch down and roll towards the advancing side
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25529
...
Choose
which words which fit the statement
...
Ice build up on the airframe, rotor blades and engine can lead to a number of
hazards and limitations:
i
...

iii
...

v
...
U
...
As A
...
W
...
The unit of measurement of pressure is:
A – psi
B – kg/m3
C – lb/gal
D – kg/dm2
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

25650
...
The unit of density is:
A – Bar
B – psi
C – kg/cm2
D – kg/m3
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25653
...
(Refer to figure 081-04)
Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane?
A – Line B
B – Line A
C – Line C
D – Line D
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C

25656
...
The term angle of attack is defined as:
A – the angle that determines the magnitude of the lift force
B – the angle between the wing chord line and the relative wind
C – the angle between the relative airflow and the horizontal axis
D – the angle between the wing and tail plane incidence
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25661
...
Which of the following is the cause of wing tip vortices?
A – Air spilling from the top surface to the bottom surface at the wing tip
B – Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the wing tip
C – Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the left wig tip
and from the top surface to the bottom surface at the right wing tip
D – Spanwise flow vector from the tip to the root on the bottom surface of the
wing
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

25668 – What is the effect on EAS as height is increased wshen you are holding a
constant IAS?
A – EAS remains the same
B – EAS falls
C – EAS rises
D – The effect depends on the temperature
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25669
...
(Refer to figure 081-06)
The diagram shows the parameter X versus TAS
...
High aspect ratio:
A – reduces parasite drag
B – reduces induced drag
C – increases stalling speed
D – reduces manoeuvrability
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

25673
...
The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between:
A – the chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline
B – the chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction
C – the fuselage core line and the free stream direction
D – the chord line and the camber line of the aerofoil
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25677
...
The units of wing loading (l) W/S and (ll) dynamic pressure q are:
A – (l) N/m3; (ll) kg/m2
B – (l) kg/m; (ll) N/m2
C – (l) N/m; (ll) kg
D – (l) N/m2; (ll) N/m2
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
ANS: D

25683
...
Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of:
A – CL2 and S (wing surface)
B – CL2 and AR (aspect ratio)
C – CL and CD
D – CL and b (wing span)
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25686
...
The induced drag:
A – increases as the lift coefficient increases
B – increases as the aspect ratio increases
C – has no relation to the lift coefficient
D – increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25692
...
With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (l) and the
point of lowest pressure will move (ll)
...
Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack
...
Which of the following statements, about a venture in a sub-sonic airflow are
correct?
1
...
the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal
A – 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect
D – 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25700
...
Which of the following is the greatest factor causing lift?
A – Increased airflow velocity below the wing
B – Increased pressure below wing
C – Suction above the wing
D – Decreased airflow velocity above the wing
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25704
...
The airfoil chord line is:
A – a straight line from the wing leading edge to the trailing edge
B – a line equidistant from the upper and lower wing surfaces
C – a line tangential to the wing surface at the point of maximum curvature
D – a line drawn at 15% chord from the root to the tip
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25707
...
The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic
characteristics of an aeroplane are:
A – decrease of CLmax and increase of drag
B – decrease of CLmax and decrease of drag
C – increase of CLmax and increase of drag
D – increase of CLmax and decrease of drag
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25712
...
A laminar boundary layer is ___ and has ___ drag than a turbulent layer:
A – thick; more
B – thick; less
C – thin; more
D – thin; less
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25719
...
The density of the airstream decreases
to half of the original value
...
4
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

25721
...
The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:
A – the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio
B – the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon
C – the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord
line of the wing
D – the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative
wind/airflow
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25731
...
What phenomena causes induced drag?
A – Wing tip vortices
B – Wing tanks
C – The increased pressure at the leading edge
D – The spanwise flow, inward below the wing and outward above
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

25735
...
The following unit of measurement kgm/s is expressed in the Si system as:
A – Pascal
B – Newton
C – Joule
D – Watt
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25737
...
The wake vortices behind a large aircraft begin on takeoff ___ and end on
landing ___
A – at V2; in the flare
B – on rotation; as the nosewheel goes down
C – at V1; when lift dump is selected
D – at 80kt; on touchdown
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

25740
...
The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent?
A – Just in front of the transition point
B – Between the transition and separation points
C – Just aft of the separation point
D – Just in front of the centre of pressure
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25745
...
Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?
A – For a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl = 0
B – For a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attach = 0, Cl is not equal to 0
C – For an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, l = 0
D – For an asymmetric aerofil with positive camber, if angle of attack is
greater than 0, Cl = 0
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

25750
...
Subsonic flow over a cambered airfoil at 4o angle of attack will cause:
A – an increase in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and a
decrease in speed and a rise in pressure over the lower surface
B – a decrease in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and a
decrease in speed and a drop in pressure over the lower surface
C – an increase in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and an
increase in speed and a drop in pressure over the lower surface
D – a decrease in speed and drop in pressure over the upper surface and an
increase in speed and a drop in pressure over the lower surface
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25760
...
A line connecting the leading and trailing edge midway between the upper and
lower surface of a aerofoil
...
The terms q and S in the lift formula are:
A – square root of surface and wing loading
B – dynamic pressure and the area of the wing
C – static pressure and wing surface area
D – static pressure and dynamic pressure
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25764
...
What is the Sl unit which results from multiplying kg and m/s squared?
A – Newton
B – Psi
C – Joule
D – Watt
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25772
...
How is the thickness of an aerofoil section measured?
A – As the ratio of wing angle
B – Related to camber
C – As the percentage of chord
D – In metres
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25783
...
What is the CL and CD ratio at normal angles of attack?
A – CL higher
B – CD higher
C – The same
D – CL much higher
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25791
...

A – high; high
B – low; high
C – low; low
D – high; low
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

25793
...
Bernoullis Theorem states:
A – dynamic pressure increase and static pressure increase
B - dynamic pressure increase and static pressure decrease
C – dynamic pressure is maximum at stagnation point
D – zero pressure at zero dynamic pressure
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25798
...
The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends
amongst others on:
A – the airstream velocity
B – the specific mass of the body
C – the weight of the body
D – the c
...
location of the body
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

25803
...
How does aerodynamic drag vary when airspeed is doubled? By a factor of:
A–2
B–1
C – 16
D–4
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25805
...
A body is placed in a certain airstream
...
The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor
...
What does parasite drag vary with?
A – Square of the speed
B – Clmax
C – Speed
D – Surface area
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25810
...
In a symmetrical airfoil the mean camber line is?
A – A line joining points of mean camber along the wing
B – A line joining points of maximum camber along the wing
C – A curve co-incident with the top surface of the airfoil
D – A straight line co-incident with the chord line
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25817
...
If EAS is increased by a factor of 4, by what factor would profile drag
increase?
A – 16
B – 12
C–8
D–4
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25820
...
At zero angle of attack in flight, a symmetrical wing section will produce:
A – some lift and drag
B – zero lift with some induced and profile drag
C – zero lift and drag
D – zero lift with some drag
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25824
...
There are two types of boundary layer: laminar and turbulent
...
3 aspect ratio value
D – an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25831
...
3 aspect ratio value
D – an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25835
...
The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil
is:
A – climb path angle
B – glide path angle
C – angle of attack
D – same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C

25841
...
Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack:
A – CL is much greater than CD
B – CL has approximately the same value as CD
C – CL is lower than CD
D – CL is much lower than CD
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25846
...
Consider a certain stream line tube
...
An increase of temperature of the stream at constant value of V will:
A – increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the
flow
B – increase the mass flow
C – not affect the mass flow
D – decrease the mass flow
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

25850
...
The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is:
A – blocking of control surfaces
B – increase in weight
C – increase in drag
D – reduction in CLmax
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25855
...
The lift formula is:
A – L=CL ½ RHO V? S
B – L=W
C – L=CL2 RHO V? S
D – L = nW
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

25860
...
On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of
attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure will
(assume a conventional transport aeroplane):
A – move forward
B – move aft
C – remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre
D – remain unaffected
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25863
...
g
...
Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the following effect on the
drag of an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant):
A – the drag decreases
B – this has no effect
C – the drag increases
D – the drag is only affected by the ground speed
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C

25870
...
The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top
and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from:
A – the top to beneath the wing via the wing’s trailing edge
B – beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip
C – beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge
D – the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25873
...
The shape will not alter
...
5
B–9
C–6
D–3
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25874
...
Its mean chord
would be:
A – 4 feet
B – 10 feet
C – 7
...
5 feet
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

25876
...
Which statement is correct?
A – The centre of pressure is the point on the wings leading edge where the
airflow splits up
B – As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wings profile
moves downwards
C – The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure
D – The statnation point is always situated on the chord line, the centre of
pressure is not
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25880
...
The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the
angle between the:
A – bottom surface and the chord line
B – chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow
C – bottom surface and the Horizontal
D – bottom surface and the relative airflow
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

25885
...
Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F),
acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
A – m = F
...
m
C – F = m/a
D – F = m
...
The static pressure is acting:
A – only perpendicular to the direction of the flow
B – only in the direction of the total pressure
C – in all directions
D – only in direction of the flow
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25888
...
Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start
at high angles of attack:
A – lower side leading edge
B – upper side trailing edge
C – upper side leading edge
D – lower side trailing edge
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25894
...
The correct drag formula is:
A – D=CD ½ RHO V? S
B – D=CD 2 RHO V? S
C – D=CD ½ RHO V S
D – D=CD ½ 1/RHO V? S
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25896
...
A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which:
A – the vortices are weak
B – the velocity is constant
C – the temperature varies constantly
D – no velocity components exist normal to the surface
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25909
...
The lift and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section:
A – vary linearly with the angle of attack
B – depend on the pressure distribution about the wing cross section
C – are normal to each other at just one angle of attack
D – are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25911
...
After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer:
A – the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases
B – the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases
C – the mean speed and friction drag increases
D – the boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increases
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25922
...
What is the unit of measurement for power?
A – N/m
B – Nm/s
C – kgm/s2
D – Pa/m2
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25927
...
g
...
Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the:
A – horizon
B – relative wind/airflow
C – chord line
D – longitudinal axis
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25934
...
Load factor is the actual lift supported by the wins at any given time:
A – divided by the surface area of the wing
B – divided by the total weight of the aircraft
C – subtracted from the aircraft’s total weight
D – divided by the aircraft’s empty weight
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25943
...
If the weight of an aircraft is increased, the maximum lift/drag ratio will:
A – decrease
B – increase
C – not be affected
D – increase although the aircraft will have to be flown more slowly
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25957
...
An aerofoil is cambered when:
A – the upper surface of the aerofoil is curved
B – the chord line is curved
C – the line, which connects the centresof all inscribed circles, is curved
D – the maximum thickness is large compared with the length of the chord
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25965
...
Bernoulli’s equation can be written as:
(pt=total pressure, ps=static pressure and q=dynamic pressure)
A – pt = ps/q
B – pt = ps – q
C – pt = q – ps
D – pt = ps + q
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25969
...
Consider the steady flow through a stream tube where the velocity of the
stream is V
...
Considering a positively cambered aerofoil section, the pitching moment when
the lift coefficient Cl=0 is:
A – positive (nose up)
B – equal to zero
C – maximum
D – negative (nose down)
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

25981
...
In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following
pressure changes will occur:
Ps = static pressure
Pdyn= dynamic pressure
Ptot = total pressure
A – Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, static temperature increases
B – Ps increases, Pdyn decreases, Ptot remains constant
C – Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, Ptot remains constant
D – Ps decreases, Ptot increases, static temperature decreases
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25985
...
Lift is generated when:
A – a certain mass of air is accelerated in its flow direction
B – the flow direction of a certain mass of air is changed
C – a symmetrical aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream at zero angle
of attack
D – a certain mass of air is retarded
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25993
...
The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is the angle between the:
A – bottom surface and the chord line
B – bottom surface and the horizontal
C – bottom surface and the relative airflow
D – chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25995
...
The location of the centre of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil section
at increasing angle of attack will:
A – shift forward until approaching the critical angle of attack
B – not shift
C – shift aft until approaching the critical angle of attack
D – shift in spanwise direction
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25999
...
The Sl units of air density (l) and force (ll) are:
A – (l) kg/m2; (ll) kg
B – (l) kg/m3; (ll) N
C – N/m3; (ll) N
D – (l) N/kg; (ll) kg
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

26003
...
What is the stagnation point?
A – The intersection of the total aerodynamic force and the chord line
B – The point where the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero
C – The intersection of the thrust vector and the chord line
D – The point, relative to which the sum total of all moments is independent of
angle of attack
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
26014
...
Which of the following statements, about a venture in a subsonic airflow are
correct?
l
...
The total pressures in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal
A – 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect
D – 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

26020
...
Dynamic pressure is:
A – the total pressure at a point where the moving air stream is bought to rest
B – the amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving air
stream is brought to rest
C – the pressure due to the weight of the atmosphere in still air
D – the pressure change caused by heating when a moving air stream is
brought to rest
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
26026
...
The mean camber line of an aerofoil section is:
A – a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge
B – a line from the leading to the trailing edge equidistant from the upper and
lower surfaces
C – the profile of the upper surface of an aerofoil section
D – an arc of circle from the leading edge to the trailing edge
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

26028
...
For a cambered aerofoil which of the following statements is correct:
A – it will give lift at small negative angles of attack
B – at negative angles of attack it will produce negative lift only
C – it will give lift at positive angles of attack only
D – it will give negative lift at small positive angles of attack
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
26030
...
As air flows into a converging section of a venture:
A – static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow decreases
B – static pressure increases, velocity decreases, mass flow is constant
C – static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow is constant
D – static pressure decreases, velocity decreases, mass flow decreases
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C

26032
...
To obtain TAS, the EAS must be corrected for:
A – relative density only
B – relative density and compressibility
C – position error and compressibility
D – position error and relative density
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
26034
...
The thickness : chord ratio of an aerofoil is:
A – the ratio of wing thickness at the root to the thickness at the tip
B – the ratio of the maximum thickness of an aerofoil section to its chord
C – the ratio of the wing span to the mean chord
D – the ratio of the thickness at the quarter chord point to the chord
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

26036
...
If the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased slightly, the C of P will:
A – move forward slightly
B – move forward to the leading edge
C – move rearward
D – remain stationary
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
26038
...
Compared to the relative airflow, air on top of a wing:
A – pressure increases, velocity decreases
B – pressure increases, velocity increases
C – pressure decreases, velocity decreases
D – pressure decreases, velocity increases
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

26047
...
The minimum total drag of an aircraft in flight occurs:
A – at the stalling speed
B – at the speed here parasite drag and induced drag are equal
C – at the speed where induced drag is least
D – at the speed where parasite drag is least
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
26051
...
If the static pressure port iced over while descending from altitude, the ASI
would read:
A – zero
B – high
C – low
D – correctly
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

26054
...
Effective angle of attack is the:
A – angle between the chord line and the mean direction of a non-uniform
disturbed air stream
B – angle between the relative airflow and the chord line
C – angle between the chord line and the fuselage horizontal datum
D – angle between the fuselage horizontal datum and the chord line of the
horizontal stabiliser
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
26063
...
In ISA the air temperature is considered to be:
A - -56
...
090ft
B - -56
...
500ft
C - -56
...
090ft
D – 56
...
090ft
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C

26066
...
5 lb/in per 1000ft above 10000ft altitude
D – at a rateof 30 milibars per ft
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
26067
...
An aerofoil which is producing lift will have:
A – upwash ahead of the wing and downwash behind it
B – upwash ahead of the wing but no deflection of the airflow behind it
C – no deflection of the airflow ahead of the wing but downwash behind it
D – no deflection of the airflow either ahead or behind the aerofoil
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
26080
...
Skin friction drag resulting from a laminar boundary layer will be:
A – more than from a turbulent boundary layer
B – less than from a turbulent boundary layer
C – the same as from a turbulent boundary layer
D – unmeasurable
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
26095
...
The distance
in the moment is merely a leverage and no movement is involved
B – the product of a force and the distance through which it moves
C – the product of the application of a force
D – the vector quantity of a lever
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
26096
...
The position error of an ASI results from:
A – mechanical differences in individual instruments
B – the difference in air density from sea level ISA density
C – theeffects of the airflow around the static vent and pitot head
D – the fact that air becomes more compressible at high speeds
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C

26098
...
Between approximately 8 and 15 degrees angle of attack an aerofoil produces
lift due to:
A – an increase in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a
decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past th
under surface giving a decrease in pressure
B – an increase in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a
decrease in pressure and a ecrease in the speed of the airflow past the
under surface giving an increase in pressure
C – a decrease in the speed of the airflow over the upper surface giving a
decrease in pressure and a decrease in the speed of the airflow past the
under surface giving an increase in pressure
D – a decrease in the speed of the airflow over the lower surface giving an
increase in pressure and a decrease in pressure over the upper surface
causing an increase in velocity
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
26106
...
With a decrease in angle of attack:
A – the stagnation point moves forward
B – the separation point moves forward
C – form drag will increase
D – induced drag will increase
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
26128
...
87
B – divide the knots by 0
...
87 and divie by the relative density
D – divide the knots by 8
...
The aerodynamic centre is the point on the chord line where:
A – drag acts
B – the sum of all aerodynamic force act
C – the geometric centre of the wing is located
D – the pitching moment remains constant throughout changes in angle of
attack within the normal range
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
26132
...
Vortex wake behind large aircraft:
A – stays at ground level
B – gradually descends to ground level
C – gradually descends to a lower level
D – gradually ascends to a higher level
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
26153
...
The effect of increasing aspect ratio is to:
A – increase the maximum lift/drag ratio
B – decrease the maximum lift/drag ratio
C – not affect the maximum lift/drag ratio
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
26163
...
Vy is defined as:
A – speed for best rate of descent
B – speed for best angle of climb
C – speed for best rate of climb
D – maximum speed which should be used in a climb
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
26184
...
A symmetrical aerofoil section of a wing is set at zero AOA will produce:
A – most of the lift on the upper surface
B – most of the lift on the lower surface
C – depends on the aircraft’s speed
D – zero lift
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
26195
...
Which of the following creates lift?
A – a slightly cambered aerofoil
B – an aerofoil in a high speed flow
C – air accelerated upwards
D – air accelerated downwards
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
26199
...
Wing tip vortices are caused by unequal pressure distribution on the wing
which results in airflow from:
A – bottom to top around the trailing edge
B – top to bottom around the trailing edge
C – bottom to top around the wingtip
D – top to bottom around the wingtip
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
26204
...
Laminar flow has:
A – more friction than turbulent
B – same friction as turbulent
C – less friction than turbulent
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
26207
...
Which of the following is the correct definition of aspect ratio?
A – span divided by tip chord
B – chord divided by span
C – span divided by mean chord
D – chord divided by span, measured at the 25% chord position
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
26211
...
Which of the following is true?
A – a turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy
B – a turbulent boundary layer is thinner
C – less skin friction is generated by a turbulent layer
D – a laminar flow boundary layer is less likely to separate
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
26214
...
When considering the aerodynamic forces acting on an aerofoil section:
A – lift and drag increase linearly with an increase in angle of attack
B – lift and drag at normal to each other only at one angle of attack
C – lift and drag increase exponentially with an increase in angle of attack
D – lift increases linearly and drag increases exponentially with an increase in
angle of attack
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
26231
...
Parasite drag is linearly proportional to:
A – speed
B – angle of attack
C – speed
D – weight
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
26237
...
In the equation of continuity relating to low velocity air, what is the effect on
density with a change in area?
A – area increases/density decreases
B – area decreases/density decreases
C – area increases/density increases
D – area increases or decreases/no significant change in density
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
26248
...
The Robinson R22 is equipped with:
A – Relatively small bias springs
B – Hydraulic flying controls
C – Relatively large bias springs
D – Balance weights to overcome Centrifugal Turning Moments on the main
rotor
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25402
...
As streamline flow approaches an aerofoil it pauses at the stagnation point
...
To achieve an even increase in rotor thrust across the disc the blade pitch
angle must be increased:
A – cyclicly
B – collectively
C – one by one
D – at the front of the disc
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

25405
...
When hovering close to the ground, the downwash creates ___ under the
helicopter
A – a convergent duct
B – a divergent duct
C – a drop in pressure
D – a vacuum
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25413
...
In which direction does rotor thrust act?
A – Along the plane of rotation
B – Along the axis of rotation
C – Perpendicular to the RAF
D – Perpendicular to the chord
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

25416
...
How does recirculation affect the angle of attack?
A – It adds to induced flow, increasing the angle of attack
B – It opposes inducedflow, increasing the angle of attack
C – It adds to induced flow, decreasing the angle of attack
D – It opposes induced flow, decreasing the angle of attack
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25418
...
What is the major difference between the operation of the main rotor and the
tail rotor?
A – The tail rotor has no cyclic pitch control
B – The main rotor has no cyclic pitch control
C – The tail rotor has no collctive pitch control
D – The tail rotor is always slower that the main rotor
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

25420
...
Rotor blades are normally built with ___ to provide ___
A – an extruded D spar; sufficient twisting
B – an extruded C spar; torsional stiffness
C – a strong trailing edge; rigidity; torsional
D – an extruded D spar; stiffness
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25424
...
Why do rotor blades lead as the disc cones upwards?
A – Hookes Joint Effect
B – Coriolis Effect
C – Less rotor drag
D – The blades do not lead as the disc cones upwards
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

25427
...
The Fenestron tail has a:
A – Shrouded tail rotor
B – Flat fin
C – Traditional tail rotor
D – Puffer jets
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25430
...
If a helicopter is in a free air hover with 9o of collective pitch applied and the
swash plate is tilted to the left by 4o, what will be the pitch angle of the blade
at the rear of the disc?
A – 5o
B – 9o
C – 14o
D – 4o
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

25432
...

ii
...

iv
...
If the rotor blades turn in a clockwise direction during normal flight, which
way does fuselage torque reaction occur?
A – Clockwise
B – Right
C – Anti-clockwise
D – There is no reaction during power on flight
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25434
...
A rotor blade will always reah the low point ___ after it experienced the
maximum change in pitch angle:
A – 45o
B – 30o
C – 60o
D – 90o
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25437
...
Rigid rotor heads have ___ to absorb stress with the rotor ___ excessively:
A – dragging hinges; flap
B – pillow blocks; flap
C – pillow blocks; feather
D – dragging hinges; feather
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25439
...
At what speeds are the majority of horizontal stabilisers designed to be
effective?
A – In the cruise
B – At low speed
C – At high speed
D – In the hover
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25441
...
How is the hover attitude affected by tilting the main rotor shaft forwards?
A – Hoer with a level attitude
B – Hover with a pronounced nose up attitude
C – Hover with a pronounced nose down attitude
D – Hover with a roll towards the advancing blade
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25443
...
Which of the following must increase as a helicopter accelerates in level
flight?
i
...

iii
...


Total rotor thrust
Parasite drag
Horizontal component of total rotor thrust
Vertical component of total rotor thrust

A – i, iii and iv
B – i, ii and iv
C – i, ii and iii
D – All of the above
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25446
...
As a helicopter accelerates the attitude becomes:
A – Level
B – Nose up
C – Nose down
D – Rolls towards the advancing side
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25449
...
As a helicopter accelerates the benefits of ___ are outweighed by the increased
___
A – translational lift; 90o component of horizontal airflow
B – translational lift; 60o component of horizontal airflow
C – 90o component of horizontal airflow; translational lift
D – increased induced flow; horizontal airflow
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25451
...
The Delta Three Hinge has what?
A – A flapping hinge mounted at right angles to the span of the rotor blades
B – A flapping hinge set at an angle forward of the leading edge
C – A feathering hinge set at right angles to the leading edge
D – A dragging hinge set at an angle forward of the leading edge
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25453
...
If tail rotor blades are not allowed to flap the tail rotor will suffer from what?
A – Inflow roll
B – Flapback
C – Dissymmetry of rotor thrust
D – Airflow reversal
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25455
...
In a free air hover how does Vi vary along the blade?
A – It is greater at the tip because of tip vortices
B – It is greater at the root because of the demarcation vortex
C – It is less at the tip because oftip vortices
D – it is less at the tip because of recirculation
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25457
...
As a rotor blade passes the back of the disc it is subjected to ___ velocity and
it will flap ___
A – an increasing; up
B – an increasing; down
C – a decreasing; down
D – a decreasing; up
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25459
...
Which of the following conditions need to be met for vortex ring to exist?
i
...

iii
...


Induced flow passing down through the disc
Low IAS
High all up weight
Moderate or high rate of descent

A – i, ii and iii
B – ii, iii and iv
C – i, ii and iv
D – All of the above
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25463
...
Inflow roll is caused by:
A – The reduction of Vi differing across the disc
B – The reduction of Vi being greater at the front of the disc
C – The reduction of induced flow being uniform
D – The increase of induced flow differing across the disc
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25466
...
The risk causing damage by blade sailing can be reduced by:
A – Accelerating the rotors slower than normal
B – Positioning the helicopter downwind
C – Accelerating the rotors faster than normal
D – Positioning the helicopter into wind
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25470
...
Tail rotors with more than 2 blades are likely to use:
A – An offset control junction ahead of the leading edge
B – A delta three hinge
C – An offset pitch control rod at the feathering hinge
D – A feathering hinge mounted on the control rod
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25473
...
Which part of the tail rotor is least affected by the main rotor?
A – The bottom
B – The top
C – The advancing side
D – The retreating side
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25476
...
What happens to translational lift as a helicopter decelerates?
A – It increases
B – It remains the same
C – It reduces
D – It adds to forward speed
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25478
...
During autorotation the rate of descent creates the inflow angle between the
___ and the ___
A – RAF; plane of rotation
B – plane of rotation; induced flow
C – RAF; axis of rotation
D – plane of rotation; axis of rotation
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25480
...
In order to autorotate for range the helicopter must be flown at:
A – The fastest speed
B – The slowest speed
C – The steepest angle
D – The shallowest angle
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25482
...
On a fully articulated rotor head what makes u the dragging and flapping
hinges?
A – Pillow blocks
B – Trunnions mounted in bearings
C – Trunnions mounted on pillow blocks
D – Pillow blocks mounted in bearings
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25484
...
As a helicopter accelerates away from a zero speed autorotation what will
happen to the rate of descent?
A – It will increase
B – It will decrease
C – It will decrease initially, then increase
D – It will increase initially, then decrease
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25487
...
How is the inflow angle affected if the disc is tilted in autorotation?
A – It is reduced
B – It is increased
C – It is not affected by disc tilt
D – It is only affected at the front of the disc
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25490
...
The ___ speed in piston engine helicopters is ___ than in turbine helicopters:
A – endurance; lower
B – range; lower
C – maximum; higher
D – range; higher
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25492
...
What must autorotative force balance to maintain rrpm?
A – Rotor drag
B – Friction caused by the gearbox
C – Friction caused by the tail rotor shaft and gearbox
D – All of the above
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25494
...
If an object is statically unstable it will:
A – Move in the direction of the displacement
B – Stop moving
C – Return to the original position
D – Oscillate
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25496
...
What are modern piston aero-engines constructed from?
A – Pressed steel
B – Stainless steel
C – Dense alloys
D – Lightweight alloys
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25498
...
It is unwise to operate a helicopter at low speed between ___ and ___ ft above
the ground:
A – 15; 1000
B – 65; 400
C – 15; 400
D – 65; 1000
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25500
...
Which of the following are rate of descent requirements in autorotation?
i
...

iii
...


Parasite drag
Rotor drag
Rotor thrust
Autorotative force

A – i, ii and iii
B – i, iii and iv
C – i, ii and iv
D – All of the above
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25505
...
Total power required is:
A – The sum of rotor profile power and induced power
B – The sum of parasite power and induced power
C – The sum of rotor profile power and parasite power
D – The sum of rotor profile power, induced power and parasite power
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25507
...
During a 30o banked turn the apparent increase in mass is:
A – 100%
B – 60%
C – 30%
D – 15%
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25509
...
An aerofoil produces lift by:
A – Airflow velocity decreasing over the upper surface decreasing the pressure
and increasing across the lower surface increasing the pressure
B – Airflow velocity increasing over the upper surface decreasing the pressure
and decreasing across the lower surface increasing the pressure
C – Airflow velocity decreasing over the upper surface increasing the pressure
and increasing across the lower surface decreasing the pressure
D – Airflow velocity increasing over the upper surface increasing the pressure
and decreasing across the lower surface decreasing the pressure
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25512
...
When a rotor blade flaps u it will accelerate
...
From displacement a divergent oscillation is:
A – Dynamically stable
B – Neutrally stable
C – Dynamically neutral
D – Dynamically unstable
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

25517
...
In an established steady vertical climb from a hover where parasite drag is
negligible:
A – TRT is greater than weight and TR Drag is the same as at the hover
B – TRT balances weight but TR Drag is greater than at the hover
C – TRT is greater than weight and TR Drag is greater than at the hover
D – TRT balances weight and TR Drag is the same as at the hover
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25520
...
The coning angle is determined by:
A – The drag and lift produced by the blade
B – The rotor RPM and the centrifugal force on the blade
C – Rotor thrust parallel to the feathering axis and drag
D – Rotor thrust and centrifugal force
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

25522
...
A helicopter is most likely to enter a state of vortex ring when at:
A – Partial power, cruising airspeed and RoD of less than 200 fpm
B – Partial power, low airspeed and RoD greater than 300 fpm
C – Partial power, zero airspeed and RoD less than 200 fpm
D – Zero power, low to mid-range speed and RoD greater than 1000 fpm
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25524
...
So that the rotor maintains symmetry of rotor thrust:
A – The retreating blade flaps down, automatically increasing the A of A
B – The advancing blade flaps up, thereby maintaining the A of A
C – The retreating blade flaps up, thereby maintaining the A of A
D – The advancing blade flaps down, automatically ecreasing the A of A
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

25526
...
Consider the rotor blade of a helicopter with blade pitch applied, Centrifugal
Turning Moments will:
A – Reduce the pitch angle of the rotor blade about the feathering axis
B – Increase the pitch angle of the rotor blade about the feathering axis
C – Reduce the pitch angle of the rotor blade about the tip path plane
D – Increase the pitch angle of the rotor blade about the tip path plane
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25528
...
When a helicopter is in forward flight, the thrust produced by the advancing
side of a tail rotor system:
A – Can be kept constant due to flapping of the blade on a delta 3 hinge
B – Decreases due to the upward movement of the blade increasing the AoA
C – Increases due to the downward movement of the blade decreasig the AoA
D – Is kept constant due to the ‘balancing’ effect of the retreating blade on an
alpha 3 hinge
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

25531
...
Assuming a
constant RRpm which of the following statements is correct:
A – Flapping up moves the blade forward as it speeds up in the POR
B – Flapping down moves the blade forward as it slows down in the POR
C – Flapping up moves the blade rearwards as it slows down in the POR
D – Flapping down moves the blade rearwards as it speeds up in the POR
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25532
...
Rotor profile power is that part of the power required to:
A – The power required to maintain TRT in response to changes in pitch angle
B – The power required to maintain RRpm at a zero thrust condition and
overcome the drag of ancilliary equipment, drive shafts and tail rotor
C – The power required to overcome the parasite drag associated with the
rotor blades
D – The power required to overcome TRT in response to changes in pitch
angle
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25534
...
What rate of
climb could be expected?
A – 1250 feet per min
B – 980 feet per min
C – 1740 feet per min
D – 1440 feet per min
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

25535
...
With reference to translational lift, which of the following statements is true?
A – Translational lift with the associated reduction in induced flow and inflow
angle becomes effective at about 12 knots
B – Translational lift with the associated increase in induced flow and
reduction in inflow angle becomes effective at about 18 knots
C – Translational lift with the associated reduction in induced flow and
increase in inflow angle becomes effective at about 12 knots
D – Translational lift with the associated increase in induced flow and increase
in inflow angle becomes effective at about 18 knots
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25537
...
A helicopter takes off and transitions from thehoer into level forward flight
...
To enable the rotor blades to rotate freely during an autorotation:
A – An intermediate gearbox is fitted to transfer the drive to the main rotor
B – A clutch is fitted between the engine and rotor drive unit
C – A semi-automatic gearbox is fitted between engine and rotor
D – A ‘free-wheeling’ unit is fitted between the engine and the rotor
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25540
...
If when flying a helicopter a pilot accidentally finds themselves in a zero or
negative “G” situation, the correct recovery technique is to:
A – Apply rearward cyclic to reload the rotor into positive “G” situation, then
use cyclic to counteract the roll
B – Apply forward cyclic to remove the load on the rotor
C – Apply left cyclic to counteract the roll, whilst raising collective
D – Raise collective
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25542
...
The technical term ‘washout’ can be described as:
A – A reduction in blade angle towards the tip to reduce the changes of
Retreating Blade Stall (RBS)
B – A reduction in blade angle towards the tip to delay the onset of
compressibility
C – A reduction in blade angle towards the tip to give a more equal
distribution of rotor thrust along the span
D – An increase in blade angle towards the tip to delay the onset of
compressibility
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25544
...
Which of the following statements is correct about recirculation?
A – It reduces the induced flow, increasing the AoA and TRT
B – It increases the induced flow, increases the AoA and TRT
C – It reduces the induced flow, whilst AoA and TRT remain constant
D – It increases the induced flow, decreasing the AoA and TRT
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
25546
...
Which direction will a helicopter yaw if it suffers from a tail rotor control
failure at a high pitch setting during the cruise?
A – The same direction as the main rotor
B – The opposite direction to the main rotor
C – Always to the left
D – Always to the right
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25548
...
The retreating blade experiences airflow reversal in forward flight
...
Which statement most accurately describes the flare?
A – Tot Reaction moves nearer the axis of rotation, increase in RRpm, thrust
reversal, increase in TRT and a reduction in rotor drag
B – Tot Reaction moves away from the axis of rotation, decrease in RRpm,
thrust reversal, decrease in TRT and a reduction in rotor drag
C – Tot Reaction moves nearer the axis of rotation, decrease in RRpm,
increase in parasite drag
D – Tot Reaction moves away from the axis of rotation, increase in RRpm,
decrease in parasite drag and a decrease in TRT
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
25552
...
If the collective lever is held at a constant position during an autorotation from
altitude, what is likely to happen:
A – An increase in RRpm due to an increase in temperature
B – An increase in RRpm due to an increase in density
C – A decrease in RRpm due to an increase in density
D – A decrease in RRpm due to an increase in temperature
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25554
...
The most common mechanical cause of ground resonance is:
A – Sidways vector during landing
B – Faulty drag dampers creating an imbalance in the rotor head
C – Faulty flapping hinges inhibiting the natural ‘conservation of angular
momentum’ response
D – Faulty feathering hinges increasing the centrifugal turning moment of a
blade
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
25557
...
If a helicopter encounters a microburst during an approach to land, a drop in
windspeed could place the helicopter in:
A – Retreating blade stall conditions
B – A sudden climb
C – Vortex ring conditions
D – Overpitching regime
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
25559
...
To initiate recovery from vortex ring the pilot should:
A – Cyclic forwards, raise the collective then accelerate above 20 knots
B – Reduce collective, move cyclic forwards and accelerate
C – Raise the collective, move cyclic forwards and accelerate
D – Cyclic forwards, accelerate to min 20 knots then raise collective
Ref: HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D



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