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PATHOPHYS Module Exams
Module 1 Exam
Question 1
2
...
5 pts
True/False:
A bodybuilder’s muscles will display hyperplasia
...

Question 2
2
...
5 pts
True/False:
Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia
...

Question 3
0 / 2
...
5 / 2
...

Correct!
True

False
Question 5
10 / 10 pts
Match the following:
Deals with the cause of death in a population
Incidence
Number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified time
Prevalence
Number of people with the disease in a population in a given time
Morbidity
The effect of an illness on one’s life
d
...
5 / 2
...

Question 7
1
...
5 pts
Which of the following move across the cell membrane via diffusion? Select all that apply
...

b
...


Oxygen
Glucose
Correct Answer
Water
Correct!
Carbon dioxide
Question 8
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice
Which of the following are false regarding cell communication?
Endocrine signaling depends on hormones
Neurotransmitters act through synapses
G-protein linked receptors act through an on-off switch
Correct!
Paracrine signaling releases a chemical into the extracellular fluid that affects its own activity
Question 9
2
...
5 pts
Which is true of the cytoskeleton? Select all that apply
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice
High blood pressure is an example of which of the following?
Pathology
Correct Answer

Pathophysiology
Physiology
You Answered
No answer text provided
...
5 / 2
...
What are these examples of?
Correct!
Signs
Symptoms
Both A & B
Question 12
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice
Which of the following is true of a test’s sensitivity?
It is how likely the same result will occur if repeated
Correct!
If negative, it can safely be assumed that the person does not have a disease
It is considered a true-negative result
It can only be calculated from people without the disease
Question 13
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice
Which of the following is the effect of an illness on one’s life?
Incidence
Correct!
Morbidity

Prevalence
Mortality
Question 14
10 / 10 pts
Define secondary prevention and give an example:
Your Answer:
It is one of three categories in disease prevention
...
An example is an annual Pap smear
...
Some examples include annual Pap smears to detect early cervical
cancer, encouraging smoking cessation, checking blood pressure and cholesterol, and colonoscopy
screening
...

Your Answer:
2 types are dry and moist
...
THe spread of dry is slow
...
The skin is moist, black, and distended
...
The spread of wet gangrenous is rapid
...
The spread of dry gangrene is slow
...
In wet gangrene, the affected area is
cold, swollen, and pulseless
...
Blebs form on the surface,
liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action
...

Question 16
10 / 10 pts
Explain what necrosis is and give an example and description of one type of necrosis
...
An example of a type of
necrosis is coagulative necrosis
...

Necrosis refers to cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person
...
Coagulative necrosis results most often
from a sudden cutoff of blood supply to an organ (ischemia), particularly the heart and kidney
...
It is commonly seen with brain infarcts or abscesses
...

Gangrenous necrosis most often affects the lower extremities or bowel and is secondary to vascular
occlusion
...
In
dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes
to dark brown or black
...
It results from a cut off in arterial
blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis
...
The skin is moist, black, and under tension
...
The spread of tissue damage is
rapid
...
Some answers may be used more than once
...
Physical agents
Obesity
b
...
Chemical injury
Low oxygen to tissues
d
...
Nutritional imbalances
OTC drugs
f
...
Hypoxic cell injury
Radiation treatment
Lead toxicity
Bacteria

Question 18
10 / 10 pts
List the 4 types of tissue found in the body
...

Your Answer:
Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, and Nervous
Epithelial tissue covers the body's outer surface, lines inner surfaces, forms glandular tissue
...
An example of this type of tissue is our skin
...
Cardiac muscle tissue is an example of muscle tissue
...
Epithelial tissue has three distinct surfaces and the basal surface is attached to an underlying

basement membrane
...
It receives oxygen and
nutrients from the capillaries of the connective tissue on which it rests
...
It connects and binds or
supports the various tissues
...
Connective tissue is divided into two types: connective tissue proper and specialized
connective tissue (cartilage, bone, and blood cells)
...

The function of muscle tissue is to move the skeletal structures, pump blood through the heart, and
contract the blood vessels and visceral organs
...

The two types of fibers that contract are called thin and thick filaments
...
The three types of muscles tissue are skeletal, cardiac,
and smooth
...
It provides the means for
controlling body function and for sensing and moving about the environment
...
Neurons function is communication
...

Question 19
2
...
5 pts
What is the most studied active transport system in the human body?
Your Answer:
The most studied active transport system is the sodium-potassium-ATPase pump
...
If this did not
occur, sodium would remain in the cell, water would follow resulting in the cell to swell
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
Why or why not?
Your Answer:
False
...
Under benign situations, tumor markers can still be elevated
...
They have a lack of specificity and are then limited
in their ability to screen or diagnose accuratley
...

Question 2
3 / 3 pts
Tissue biopsy is of critical importance in what role?
Your Answer:
Play a critical role in histologic and cytologic studies for diagnosis of cancers
...

Question 3
4 / 4 pts
1
...
What are two side effects commonly experienced by cancer patients?
Your Answer:
1) Bleeding and/or weight loss
2) Anorexia, hair loss
1
...
Other possible answers can
include a mass or lump, pain (need to be specific), fatigue, fevers, weight loss
2
...
It classifies
cancers into stages using 3 tumor components; Tumor, Nodes, Metastasis
...
N is how involved the lymph nodes
...

Classification:
Tx, T0, Tis, T1-4
Nx, N0, N1-3
Mx, M0, M1
T is the size and local spread of the primary tumor
...

M is the extent of the metastatic involvement
...
When would surgery be appropriate in the treatment of cancer?
2
...
What are the 3
possible adverse outcomes of this?
Your Answer:
1
...
Also can be used to treat
oncologic emergencies and be used as prophylactic measures
...
3 possible adverse outcomes are neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia
...
Surgery is often the first treatment for solid tumors
...
It is also used for oncologic emergencies and prophylactic
surgery in high risk patients
...

Neutropenia- risk for infections
Anemia- causing fatigue
Thrombocytopenia- risk for bleeding
Question 6
2
...
5 pts
True/False:
Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types
...
5 / 2
...

True
Correct!
False
False, cell proliferation
Question 8
2
...
5 pts
What are two important properties that stem cells possess?
Your Answer:
Stem cells possess self-renewal and potency
...

Potency is the differentiation potential of stem cells
...
5 pts
Which of the following are most likely to have arisen from an adult stem cell?
You Answered
Muscle
Bone
Correct Answer
Epithelial
Neural
Question 10
4 / 4 pts
What is angiogenesis? Why do tumors need it?
Your Answer:
Angiogenesis is the development of new blood vessels within the tumor
...

development of new blood vessels within the tumor
...

Question 11
3 / 3 pts
What are normal genes called that become cancer-causing if mutated?
Your Answer:
Proto-oncogenes and Tumor suppressor genes
protooncogenes
Question 12
1 / 3 pts
What is a tumor suppressor gene? Give one example
...
An example is p53
...
These genes slow down cell
division, repair DNA mistakes, or tell cells when to die
...
(1) Explain the process of how cancer spreads metastatically
...
Metastasis is a multi-step process
...
It finds a new favorable location to invade, grow, and
establish blood supply
...
Patient might have presented with shortness of breath, chest pain, and cough
...
Patient would have benefited from a chest CT scan
...
(2)
Chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, bone pain
...

Question 15
3 / 3 pts
Benign tumors have which of the following characteristics? Select all that apply
...

Correct!
Gene amplification
Pleomorphism
Correct!
Point mutation
Seeding
Correct!
Chromosomal translocation
Question 17
4 / 4 pts
List 4 of the 7 risk factors linked to cancer as stated in the module
...
heredity
2
...
radiation
4
...

Question 18
5 / 10 pts
1
...

2
...

Your Answer:
1
...
Wasting
1
...
cancer anorexia-cachexia syndrome

Question 19
3
...
5 pts
Which of the following are risk factors for developing cancer? Select all that apply
...
5 / 3
...
Cervical carcinoma is linked to
HPV
...

Your Answer:
Diagnosing is made by history, physical, and serological findings
...
Markers can be elevated in the presence of other diseases
...

There are over 80 identified, many with overlapping presentations
...
Blood testing isn’t perfect either, as
some tests are more generic and can be elevated in the presence of other diseases
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 3
...
He presents to the emergency room with
an anaphylactic reaction
...

Grade I: erythema and urticaria, with or without angioedema
...

Grade III: bronchospasm, cardiac dysrhythmias, and cardiac collapse
...
5 / 3
...

Correct!
True
False
Question 10
3 / 3 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a classic manifestation of acute inflammation with its
corresponding cause?
Rubor – vasodilation
Correct!
Dolor – inflammatory cells infiltrating sensory nerves
In acute inflammation, dolor (pain) is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure in tissues and by chemical
mediators
...
5 / 3
...

True
Correct!
False
false, leukocytes
Question 12
3 / 3 pts
True/False:
Passive immunity is achieved through immunization
...
5 / 2
...

True
Correct!
False
Question 14
3
...
5 pts
Antibodies are also known as ______?
Your Answer:
immunoglobulins
immunoglobulins
Question 15
3
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions can be treated with the administration of epinephrine?

Correct!
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Question 16
3
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which cell is NOT part of the adaptive immune response?
Correct!
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Antigen presenting cells
Effector cells
Question 17
3
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
The body’s ability to distinguish self from nonself is termed what?
Autoantibodies
Positive selection
Correct!
Self-tolerance
Anergy
Question 18
5 / 5 pts
Short answer:
What are autoantibodies?
Your Answer:

In autoimmune diseases, the immune sustem loses its ability to recognize self and produces
autoantibodies, which act against host tissues
Answer: In many autoimmune diseases, the immune system loses its ability to recognize self and
produces what is called autoantibodies, which act against host tissues
...
After an H&P and chest films, it is
determined he has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)
...
Upon further testing, the man’s CD4+ cell count is 100 cells/µL and his viral load is 250,000
copies/mL
...
It is listed as an opportunistic infection
...
Patient's CD4+ cell count is below 200 cells/uL
...

(1) Opportunistic infections are those common organisms that do not produce infection without
impaired immune function
...
The risk of opportunistic
infections and death increases significantly when the CD4+ cell count falls below 200 cells/µL
...
5 / 3
...
5 / 3
...
5 / 3
...

Your Answer:
opportunistic infections
Answer: opportunistic infections
Question 23
3
...
5 pts
The term to describe the time when an infected person’s blood converts from being negative for HIV
antibodies to being positive is called what?
Your Answer:
Seroconversion
Answer: seroconversion
Question 24
3
...
5 pts
True/False:
A person with HIV is not infectious when they are asymptomatic
...
5 / 2
...

Correct!
True
False

Question 26
0 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...

Vitamin K deficiency
Von Willebrand factor deficiency
Correct!
Protein C deficiency
Thrombocytopenia

Question 2
2
...
5 pts
A deficiency in which of the following would lead to a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply
...
5 / 2
...

Hemophilia A
Correct!
Congestive heart failure
Correct!
Smoking
Thrombocytopenia
Correct!
Postsurgical state
Question 4
0 / 2
...

Microthrombi cause vessel occlusion and tissue ischemia
You Answered

It can cause multiple organ failure
Severe hemorrhage results
Obstetric disorders are the main cause of DIC
Correct!
Lab results show a decreased PT, PTT
Question 5
2
...
5 pts
Well-known causes of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) include each of the following
conditions except:
Retained dead fetus
Carcinoma
Gram-negative sepsis
Correct!
Heparin administration
Question 6
2
...
5 pts
Which of the following does NOT affect the heart’s ability to increase its output?
Preload
Afterload
Cardiac contractility
Correct!
Cardiac reserve
Heart rate
Question 7
2
...
5 pts
Which of the following is NOT a regulator of blood pressure?
Baroreceptors

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
Vasopressin
Correct!
Parasympathetic nervous system activation
Question 8
2
...
5 pts
Antiphospholipid syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following? Select all that apply
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...

Alkalosis
Correct!
Dehydration
Correct!
Cold exposure
Correct!
Physical exertion
Question 12
0 / 2
...
These signs and
symptoms are most likely to be associated with which one of the following laboratory abnormalities?
Correct Answer
Sickle cells on peripheral blood smear
Loss of intrinsic factor
You Answered
Decreased erythropoietin
Decreased ferritin
Question 13
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following is NOT true of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?

Dietary deficiencies are not common
Peripheral neuropathy can be a result of deficiency
Vitamin B12 is bound to intrinsic factor
Correct!
MCV is decreased
Question 14
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Each of the following are risk factors for secondary hyperlipidemia except?
Obesity
Diabetes mellitus
High cholesterol diet
Correct!
Autosomal dominant disorder of LDL receptor
Question 15
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Risk factors for coronary heart disease include each of the following except:
Correct!
HDL > 60
Smoking
Hypertension
Family history of heart disease
Question 16
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Risk factors for atherosclerosis include each of the following except:
Increasing age

Correct!
Female gender (pre-menopause)
Elevated CRP levels
Cigarette smoking
Question 17
8 / 10 pts
Matching: Match the cardiac procedures to their description and what they are best used for
...

1
...
Exercise stress testing
3
...
Echocardiography
Set 1:
a
...
Observes cardiac function under stress
c
...
Catheter is inserted into the great vessels and chambers of the heart
Set 2:
a
...
Best to assess for arrhythmias and myocardial infarction
c
...
Best to assess suspected ischemic heart disease
Your Answer:
1
...
B, D
3
...
C, B
1
...
Set 1: b, Set 2: d
3
...
Set 1: c, Set 2: a
Question 18
10 / 10 pts
Explain the differences in the pathophysiology, symptoms, and whether nitroglycerin and/or rest will
relieve symptoms in stable angina, unstable angina, and myocardial infarction
...
This can cause chest pain, tightness
or shortness of breath
...
It is relieved
with rest and/or use of nitroglycerin
...
Unstable agina is when patient has angina without exertion
...

If the plaque ruptures, complete occulsion can occur
...
This is myocardial infarction
...
Emergency/hospital interventions are needed
...
With exertion, the vessels cannot adequately vasodilate
...

Stable angina- The heart is stable at rest but cannot keep up with the demand of exertion
...
It is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin (vasodilator)
...
When the patient experiences angina without exertion, or when the level of
exertion necessary to cause anginal symptoms decreases, this is called unstable angina
...
Unstable angina means one or more coronary vessels is nearly totally
occluded
...
If
collateral flow is inadequate, the tissue supplied becomes ischemic
...
MI can present as chest pain unrelieved by rest, sometimes radiating down the left ram or
into the jaw or neck, dyspnea, nausea/vomiting, sweating, and/or other signs of distress
...
” Women may present with weakness,
fatigue, shortness of breath, or GI complaints
...

Question 19
10 / 10 pts
1
...
Name 2 medications used to treat someone with coronary artery disease and their mechanisms of
action:
Your Answer:
1
...
ACE inhibitors prevent conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which decreases vasocontriction,
aldosterone production, sodium and water retiention by the kidneys
...

1
...
Aspirin or other platelet inhibitors are used to prevent thrombosis formation
...
CCB also increase coronary vasodilatation and
decrease coronary vasospasm
...
Nitrates also
dilate veins, decreasing the heart’s work by decreasing preload and afterload
...
5 / 2
...
When the patient experiences angina without exertion, or when the level of exertion necessary to
cause anginal symptoms decreases, this is called what?
Stable angina
Correct!
Unstable angina
Myocardial infarction
Question 21
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for hypertension?
Correct!
Increased potassium intake
Increased salt intake
Increased alcohol intake
Increased caloric intake
Question 22
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Each of the following lifestyle modifications will help to decrease blood pressure except:
Losing weight
Increase fruits and vegetables
Correct!
3 drinks or more of alcohol
Limiting salt intake
Question 23
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:

With atherosclerotic disease, the coronary vessel lumens are narrowed and blood supply to the heart is
diminished
...
This can manifest as chest pain or
tightness and/or shortness of breath
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...

Your Answer:
hematocrit
hematocrit
Question 26
2
...
5 pts
Fill in the blank:
_____ are a group of inherited disorders of hemoglobin synthesis common among Mediterranean
populations
...
5 / 2
...

Your Answer:
aspirin
aspirin
Question 28
10 / 10 pts

Patient is found to have the above:
What risk factors mostly led to this disease state?
What is this person at risk for developing?
What lifestyle modifications would you suggest for them?
Your Answer:
1
...
Atherosclerosis
3
...

Increasing age, family history of premature CHD, and male sex
...

Coronary artery disease, angina, myocardial infarction, aneurysm, stroke (ischemia, thrombosis,
emboli)
...

MODULE 5
Question 1
2
...
5 pts
True/False:
Both carbon dioxide and oxygen are able to bind with hemoglobin
...
5 / 2
...

Correct!
True
False
Question 3
2
...
5 pts
The breathing rate is determined by input from ______ that monitor oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH
levels in the blood
...
5 / 2
...

Your Answer:
alveoli
alveoli
Question 5
2
...
5 pts
True/False:
Asthma is considered reversible airway bronchoconstriction
...
5 / 2
...


Correct!
True
False
Question 7
2
...
5 pts
True/False:
The accessory muscles are the main muscles of inspiration
...
5 pts
True/False:
The FEV1/ FVC ratio is decreased in restrictive lung disorders
...

Your Answer:
the phrenic nerve, cervical nerves C3, C4, C5
C3, C4, C5
Question 10
5 / 5 pts
_____ is the flow of gases into and out of the alveoli of the lungs
...
5 / 2
...

Correct!
Eosinophils
Correct!
Mast cells
Correct Answer
Neutrophils
Correct Answer
Leukotrienes
Correct!
Lymphocytes
Question 12
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is most likely seen in which disease process?
Bronchial asthma
Chronic bronchitis
Correct!
Emphysema
Bronchiectasis
Question 13
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Histologically, chronic bronchitis would exhibit each of the following except:
Correct!
Enlargement of the airspaces
Increase in goblet cells
Fibrosis of the bronchiolar wall

Hypertrophy of the submucosal glands
Question 14
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Each of the following are TRUE of ARDS except:
Chest x-ray shows a “white-out”
Correct!
Presents with decreased respiratory rate
Decreased surfactant function
Increased capillary permeability
Question 15
10 / 10 pts
Short answer:
A 10-year-old boy who is having an acute asthma attack is brought to the ER
...
His breathing is accompanied by use of accessory muscles, a weak cough,
and audible wheezing sounds
...
His parents relate that his asthma began to worsen after he developed a “cold,” and now
he doesn’t get relief from his albuterol inhaler
...

Your Answer:
In asthma patients, the airways begin to narrow
...

With the severe airway inflammation, patient is experiencing airway remodeling, development of specific
structureal changes in the airway wall
...

Recruitment of inflammatory cells from the bloodstream into the bronchial wall, where they
directly attack the invading organisms and secrete inflammatory chemicals that are toxic to the
organisms causes airway inflammation
...
They may discuss on a cellular level as well:
Upon a trigger, the cascade of neutrophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, and mast cells cause epithelial
injury
...
Mast cells release histamine and leukotrienes
...
Mast cells can trigger multiple cytokine
release, which causes more airway inflammation
...

Question 16
10 / 10 pts
Short answer:

An 18-year-old woman is admitted to the ER with a suspected drug overdose
...
Arterial blood gases reveal a PCO 2 of 80 mm Hg and a PO2 of 60 mm
Hg
...
Explain
...
This causes an increase in plasma
PCO2 and decrease in PO2
...

Hypoventilation is when there is a reduced amount of air entering the lungs and alveoli
...
Breathing is often too shallow or too slow
...

Question 17
10 / 10 pts
Short answer:
Explain why the oxygen flow rate for people with COPD is normally titrated to maintain the arterial PO 2
between 60 and 65 mm Hg
...
The respirator center in the
medulla has adapted to elevated CO2 levels, no longer responding to increases in PCO2
...
If oxygen is given at too high of rate, the respiratory drive and
stimulus is supressed
...
Therefore, a decrease in PO2 becomes the stimulus for respiration
...

Question 18
10 / 10 pts
Short answer:

1
...
) Which is more soluble in plasma: carbon dioxide or oxygen?
Your Answer:
1) Smoking cessation only treatment that slows disease progression
2) Carbon Dioxide
1
...
) Carbon dioxide
Question 19
5 / 5 pts
Short answer
Some people have the triad of asthma, chronic rhinosinusitis, and nasal polyps
...
5 / 2
...
The family reports that the patient
exhibited repetitive lip smacking and hand rubbing followed by a period of great fear and insecurity
...
5 / 2
...
Which cranial nerve is affected?
CN II
...

CN IV
...

Question 3
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
You are seeing a patient with Parkinson’s disease in your office
...
This is an example of what physical manifestation of the disease?
Correct!
Pill-rolling
Cogwheeling
Bradykinesia
Rigidity
Question 4
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Sleep spindles are characteristic of which stage of sleep?
Stage 1
Correct!
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
Question 5
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
A person reports feelings of worthlessness and guilt as well as difficulty sleeping
...
What type of depression are they
experiencing?
Melancholic depression
Atypical depression

Depression with psychotic features
Correct!
Depression with catatonic features
Question 6
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Each of the following statements is true regarding the organization of the nervous system except:
The PNS has an afferent and efferent division
Correct!
The somatic nervous system can be further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
The CNS contains the hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain
The PNS contains the cranial nerves
Question 7
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Each of the following statements is true regarding Alzheimer’s disease except:
Correct!
Neurofibrillary tangles are a result of an abnormal accumulation of amyloid in the blood vessels
Neuritic plaques are composed of deteriorating nerve pieces that arrange themselves around a sticky
protein core called amyloid beta (Aβ)
Cerebral amyloid angiopathy contributes to the pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease
Question 8
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Each of the following are modifiable behaviors related to stroke except:
Obesity
Smoking
Correct!

Hypercholesteremia
Immobility
Question 9
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Adjustment insomnia is characterized by each of the following except:
Correct!
More than 30 days of insomnia symptomology
Disrupted sleep is in response to physical or emotional stressor
Resolves on its own once an adjustment is made/stressor is removed
Question 10
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
A “drop attack” is another term for which type of seizure?
Myoclonic seizure
Clonic seizure
Tonic seizure
Correct!
Atonic seizure
Question 11
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Narcolepsy appears to be linked to an abnormal regulation of which stage of sleep?
stage 1
stage 2
stage 4
Correct!
REM

Question 12
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Each of the following statements is true of Parkinson’s disease except:
Correct!
Environmental factors alone lead to disease development
It affects the substantia nigra of the brain
It is characterized by a loss of dopaminergic neurons
Incidence increases with age
Question 13
2 / 2 pts
Fill in the blank:
Efferent neurons deliver _______ input from the CNS to the periphery
...

Your Answer:
Tricyclic antidepressants, TCAs
Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
Question 15
2 / 2 pts
Fill in the blank:
_______ is sleep disordered breathing due to the brain not properly signaling the respiratory muscles
...

Your Answer:
dopaminergic, cholinergic
Answer: dopaminergic, cholinergic
Question 17
2 / 2 pts
Fill in the blank:
Connective tissue sheaths that surround the brain and spinal cord providing protection are called the
_______
...

Your Answer:
False
Answer: False, oligodendrocytes produce myelin in the CNS
...

Your Answer:
False
Answer: False, the age of onset is decreasing in recent times
...

Your Answer:
False
Answer: False, brain activity is increased during REM sleep
...

Your Answer:

True
Answer: True
Question 22
5 / 5 pts
Short Answer Essay
Explain the mechanism of electric synapses and how they contribute to the rapid propagation of an action
potential
...
Gap juntions
penetrate the junctions of neighboring cells, which allows the current to move in either direction
...

Answer: Electrical synapses allow the passage of current-carrying ions through small openings
called gap junctions
...

Question 23
5 / 5 pts
Short Answer Essay
You are babysitting a 7-year-old child with a known history of seizure activity
...
You ask if they are feeling alright and they stare at you blankly
...
Is this a generalized or focal seizure?
Based upon this description, what specific type of seizure did this individual experience?
Your Answer:
The specific type of seizure described is an absence seizure, which is considered a subcategory of
generalized seizures
...

Your Answer:
During REM sleep, internalized sensory are stimulated which allows formed memories to replay
...
REM
deprivation can lead to anxiety, decreased concentration, and behavioral changed
...

However, internalized sensory tracts are stimulated allowing previously formed memories to replay
in one’s mind
...

Question 25
5 / 5 pts
Short Answer Essay
A patient reports to the emergency department where you are working at 10 pm
...
They
decided to ignore it thinking it was probably a result of all the gardening they did the day before
...
The patient’s
spouse reported that they were slurring their words
...
By the time they are evaluated, their symptoms start to subside
...
What do you suspect this patient has experienced? What
evidence is there to support that diagnosis?
Your Answer:
The patient experienced a TIA, transient ischemic attack, or mini stroke
...
However, with TIA, the
symptoms/signs, will resolve within 24 hours
...

Answer: This patient has experienced a TIA
...

Question 26
10 / 10 pts
Long Answer Essay
A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department via ambulance at 5 pm
...
As the day progressed, he started experiencing tingling
and feelings of weakness on the entire left side of his body
...

Based upon these symptoms and past medical history, what do you suspect this patient is experiencing?
How would you confirm this diagnosis? What treatment should be administered? Explain why you chose
that treatment
...
A CT scan and MRI will be ordered to determine the type of stroke
and rule out possible other disorders
...

Since its been over 4 hours since symptom onset, the window to safely administer tPA has passed
...
This will mechanically break the clot and deliver drugs directly to the
clot itself
...

Answer: This patient is more than likely experiencing an ischemic stroke
...
If a clot is found, this patient would need to be re-perfused through catheterbase methods as they are outside of the 3-4
...

Question 27
10 / 10 pts
Long Answer Essay
A patient is being seen in your office with a primary complaint of daytime fatigue that has lasted for the
past 2 months
...
You suspect they have chronic insomnia
...

Your Answer:
The 4 symptoms are:
DIfficulty initiating sleep
Difficulty maintaining sleep
Waking up too early
Chronic nonrestorative (poor)sleep

For a primary insomnia diagnosis, patient must exhibit at least 3 symptoms from the list above and at
least one sympton during wake hours, such as poor work performance and irritability
...
This includes
a comfortable sleeping environmnet, going to bed at the same time each night, avoid caffeine or other
stimulants several hours prior to bedtime, avoidance of screens before bed
...
Sleep hygiene involves the
establishment of consistent sleep patterns (going to bed at the same time each night and only
sleeping as long as one needs to feel refreshed during the day), creating a comfortable sleeping
environment (optimal room temperature), avoidance of screens and excessive light right before bed,
and finally, avoidance of stimulants (caffeine) several hours prior to normal bedtime
...

Correct!
Blood in stool
Correct!
Weight loss
Nausea and anorexia
Bloating
Correct!
Anemia
Question 5
5 / 5 pts
Multiple choice
Risk factors for the development of peptic ulcer include each of the following EXCEPT:
pylori infection
Family history of PUD
NSAID use

Alcohol use
Correct!
Stress
Question 6
5 / 5 pts
Multiple Choice
Gastric ulcers are worsened by _____
...

Correct!
A
...
Not eating; eating
C
...
None of the above
Question 7
5 / 5 pts
Multiple choice
Each of the following are characteristics of ulcerative colitis EXCEPT:
Correct!
Granulomatous lesions
Bloody diarrhea
Pseudopolyps
Risk of toxic megacolon
Crypt abscess formation
Question 8
5 / 5 pts
Multiple Choice
Each of the following are characteristics of Crohn disease EXCEPT:
Fistulas and strictures

Abscesses
Skip lesions
Cancer development is rare
Correct!
Bloody diarrhea
Question 9
2
...
5 pts
Fill in the blank:
The _____ prevents feces from going back into the ileum
...
5 / 2
...

Correct!
True
False
Question 11
2
...
5 pts
Fill in the blank:
The double-layered fold of peritoneum that hangs down from the stomach to adjacent organs is called
what?
Your Answer:
omentum
Answer: omentum
Question 12
2
...
5 pts
Fill in the blank:
What type of cell secretes hydrochloric acid in the stomach?
Your Answer:
parietal cells
Answer: Parietal cells

Question 13
2
...
5 pts
Short answer:
What are the intermittent contractions that help to mix and move food along?
Your Answer:
Rhythmic movements
Answer: Rhythmic movements
Question 14
2
...
5 pts
True/False
Activation of the sympathetic nervous system increases amplitude of the slow waves
...
5 / 2
...

Your Answer:
Submucosal plexus
Answer: Submucosal (Meissner) plexus
Question 16
2
...
5 pts
Short answer:
What is it called when there is abnormally fast emptying of hyperosmotic gastric secretions?
Your Answer:
Dumping syndrome
Answer: Dumping syndrome
Question 17
5 / 5 pts
Short answer
Which GI hormone has strong growth hormone-releasing activity and stimulates food intake and digestive
function?
Your Answer:
Ghrelin
Answer: Ghrelin

Question 18
5 / 5 pts
Short answer:
Which GI hormone inhibits gastric acid secretion?
Your Answer:
Secretin
Answer: Secretin
Question 19
5 / 5 pts
True/False:
Anti-diarrheal medication can be used with all types of diarrhea
...

Your Answer:
constipation
Answer: constipation
Question 21
0 / 5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Clinical manifestations of cirrhosis include each of the following EXCEPT:
Splenomegaly
Correct Answer
Choledocholithiasis
Portal hypertension
You Answered
Coagulation factor deficiencies
Encephalopathy
Question 22

5 / 5 pts
Short Answer:
What is now the most common cause of chronic liver disease in the Western world?
Your Answer:
Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease, NAFLD
Answer: Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)
Question 23
5 / 5 pts
Short Answer:
Cholelithiasis would be an example of what type of jaundice?
Your Answer:
Posthepatic
Answer: Posthepatic jaundice
Question 24
5 / 5 pts
Short Answer:
Excessive red blood cell destruction would cause what type of jaundice?
Your Answer:
Prehepatic
Answer: Prehepatic jaundice
MODULE 8
Question 1
2
...
5 pts
Each of the following statements are true regarding control over the GFR except:
The kidney can maintain a constant GFR despite variations in the arterial blood pressure of the rest of the
body
...

Correct!
The RAA responds when blood pressure rises above normal limits
...

Question 2
2
...
5 pts
Which of the following statements is false regarding ADH?
Elevated levels of ADH will lead to a small volume of concentrated urine
...


decreased levels of ADH will lead to dilute urine
...

Question 3
2
...
5 pts
Which of the following statements is true regarding nephrons?
It is divided into an outer medulla and an inner cortex
It has 1 source of blood supply
Correct!
The glomerulus filters the blood while the tubule reabsorbs needed nutrients
Question 4
0 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 pts
Which of the following is true of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol?
You Answered
It is the inactive form of vitamin D taken in through the skin via UV rays
It is the inactive form of synthetic vitamin D
Correct Answer
It is the active form of vitamin D, converted in the liver

It is the active form of vitamin D, converted in the kidney
Question 10
2
...
5 pts
A patient is said to be in stage 4 kidney disease
...
25 mL/min/1
...
42 mL/min/1
...
70 mL/min/1
...
14 mL/min/1
...

B
...

D
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...

Your Answer:
outer cortex
Answer: renal cortex
Question 14
Not yet graded / 2 pts
Fill in the blank:
The formation of erythropoietin is preceded by low levels of _______
...

Your Answer:
kidney
Answer: renal control mechanism
Question 16
Not yet graded / 2 pts
Fill in the blank:
A person who has a blood Mg2+ concentration of 3
...
Is considered to have _______
...

Your Answer:
renal
Answer: Intrarenal
Question 18
Not yet graded / 5 pts
T/F, if False make the statement True
Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the kidneys
...
Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the lungs
Answer: False, angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II in the lungs
...

Your Answer:
False
...

Answer: False, hyperkalemia can be cause by the movement of K+ from the ICF to the ECF
compartment
...

Your Answer:
Renal flow is decreased when there is an increase sympathetic activity
...

Answer: Sympathetic activity diverts blood to the heart, brain, and skeletal muscles
...
In this event,
a narrowing of the afferent arteriole is caused by sympathetic nerve fibers followed by a release of
epinephrine from the adrenal medulla which leads to a subsequent decrease in renal flow and the
GFR
...
0 mg/dL
...

Your Answer:
A GI symptom is constipation
...

Answer: The patient has hypercalcemia
...

Question 22
Not yet graded / 5 pts
Short Answer:
A patient has a diagnosis of glomerular disease
...

Your Answer:
Protein and blood will be detected in the the urine
...

Answer: Blood and protein may be present in the urine
...
The disease process would
compromise this
...

Give 1 reason peritoneal dialysis would be preferable to the patient over hemodialysis and 1 concern in
choosing peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis
...

A concern of choosing peritoneal dialysis is the risk for infection at the catheter exit site
...
A major concern of the utilization of peritoneal dialysis is the risk
for infection at the catheter site
...
Their skin is clammy, and they have been experiencing nausea and
vomiting all day long
...
Urinalysis reveals
calcium in their urine
...
What type of renal
calculi do you suspect? What treatment is needed? Explain your reasoning for both answers
...
Since the stone is 6mm, it may not pass on its own
...
This allows the ureter to be dilated, giving the physician ability to remove the stone
...
The stone will be unable to pass on its own given the diameter greater than 5
mm
...

The patient may also be put on medication for pain management
...
The
following are the results of their blood work: pH = 8
...
Based
upon these results, what type of acid-base disorder are they experiencing? Is compensation occurring?
Describe a treatment intervention for this disorder
...
35-7
...

Your Answer:
Metabolic alkalosis
...
Treatment is fluid replacement with normal
saline solution
...
The respiratory system is not compensating as PCO 2
compensation falls within normal limits
...

Question 26
Not yet graded / 10 pts
A patient is in the ICU following open heart surgery
...
Blood results reveal Na+ = 100
mEq/L
...
Treatment is administering saline solution
...
The administration of
intravenous saline solution would be indicated to correct the sodium deficiency
...
5 pts
An autocrine action occurs when a hormone exerts an action on the cells that produced it
...
5 / 2
...

True
Correct!
False
Question 7
2
...
5 pts
Hormones work through receptors, and the speed of this action varies
...
5 / 2
...

True
Correct!
False
Question 9
5 / 5 pts
What hormone affects nutrient metabolism, regulates blood glucose levels, and has anti-inflammatory
actions?
Insulin
Correct!
Cortisol
Glucagon
T3, T4
Question 10
5 / 5 pts
The anterior pituitary releases which of the following hormones? Select all that apply
...

True
Correct!
False
False (90%)
Question 14
2 / 2 pts
Insulin promotes glycogenesis and glycolysis
...


True
Correct!
False
Question 16
2 / 2 pts
Type 2 diabetics can improve hyperglycemia with weight loss
...

True
Correct!
False
Question 18
Not yet graded / 5 pts
A 45-year-old obese, sedentary male has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
...
Certain
medications can help as well
...
Risk factors for macrovascular
disease is hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemia
...

Answer: (1) Diet, exercise, and weight loss may be all that they need to control blood glucose levels
...
(2) Hypertension and hyperlipidemia – checking blood pressure and screening with a
serum lipid panel
...
Its a big problem because these infections cannot be
undetected due to the loss of sensation and pain
...

It is worsened by vascular insufficiency and the decreased ability to heal
...
The history
and physical exam show exophthalmos, tachycardia, and warm, moist skin
...
List 5 ways they should be screened:
Your Answer:
Check weight, blood pressure, fasting blood glucose and A1C, lipid profile, foot exam
Answer: Checking weight, blood pressure, fasting blood glucose and hemoglobin A1C, lipid profile,
serum creatinine, microalbumin, foot exam, dilated eye exams, and dental exam
...
5 pts
______ is defined as a blood glucose of <60 mg/dL, with associated cognitive impairment
...
5 pts

A ______ test to assess sensation, vascular status, and skin integrity, should be administered annually on
all diabetic patients
...
5 pts
____ ____ ____ is diagnosed by hyperglycemia (blood glucose >500 mg/dL), hyperosmolarity, and
dehydration, without ketoacidosis
...
5 pts
____ is an oral antidiabetic drug that does not cause hypoglycemia and has a side effect of weight loss
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 / 2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following drugs is most commonly prescribed to treat osteoporosis?
Raloxifene
Correct Answer
Alendronate
You Answered

Calcitonin
Question 6
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following cells when stimulated by bone morphogenic proteins (BMPs) differentiate to
contribute to normal bone growth?
Osteocytes
Osteoclasts
Osteoblasts
Correct!
Osteoprogenitor cells
Question 7
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following are true of articular cartilage?
Proteoglycans of the extracellular matrix resist compression forces
Polypeptide chains give form and tensile strength
Interstitial osmotic pressure and available fluid contribute to joint lubrication
Correct!
a
...
and c
...
b
...
are all false
Question 8
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
A patient has low serum calcium levels
...
5 / 2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Damage to the synovial membrane resulting in non-specific inflammation occurs in which stage of OA?
Early stages
You Answered
Mid stages
Correct Answer
Late stages
Question 11
2
...
5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following is false regarding the synovium?
The inner membrane of the joint capsule is referred to as the synovium
Correct!
The synovium surrounds the margins of articulation and lines the articulating surfaces of the joint
The synovium secretes fluid that facilitates movement between articulating surfaces
Question 12
2
...
5 pts

Senile Osteoporosis is characterized by which of the following? (mark all that apply)
Correct!
Fractures of the hip joint
Fractures of the distal radius
Correct!
A direct relationship between aging and rate of bone loss
Question 13
Not yet graded / 2
...

Your Answer:
False
...

Question 14
Not yet graded / 2
...

Your Answer:
True
True
Question 15
Not yet graded / 2
...

Your Answer:
False
...

Question 16
Not yet graded / 2
...

Your Answer:
True
True
Question 17
Not yet graded / 5 pts

If someone loses their balance when walking on uneven terrain, explain how tendons and ligaments work
to protect the joint and structures within it
...
Ligaments connect bone to bone
...
Molecualr structure of collagen contributes to high tensile strenth
...

The tendons and ligaments of joints serve in proprioception (the awareness of ones’ position in
space or movement of the body)
...

Question 18
Not yet graded / 5 pts
A patient presents to the ER with severe pain in their right ankle
...
8 mg/dL
...
Which phase of gout are they in? What is the goal of your treatment given the phase they are
in?
Your Answer:
Patient is in phase 2, acute gout arthritis
...
This
can be done by using NSAIDs, such as colchicine, or corticosteriods
...
The goal of treatment is to manage
symptoms and terminate the acute attack primarily through NSAIDS
...
Patient A
...
Patient B
...
She is active and does not have a history of fractures
...

The patient is a white male over the age of 70
...

Patient A is at higher risk
...
Patient B is a postmenopausal female; however, she is
active and of African American decent which is associated with high BMD and low rates of
fracture
...
They
primarily use a wheel chair to complete daily activities
...

Your Answer:
Males have a higher risk of developening OA
...
It
compromises the lubrication of the joint
...

Immobilization can compromise lubrication of the joint which comes with range of motion and
weight bearing
...

Question 21

Not yet graded / 5 pts
Compare and contrast the blood supply of cortical bone and cancellous bone
...
Blood is circulated via the
central haversion and volkmann canals
...
Instead of receiving
blood by vessels, it receives blood via diffusion
...

Cortical bone has a direct blood supply
...
Cancellous bone does not have a direct blood supply
...

Question 22
Not yet graded / 5 pts
A 22-year-old competitive gymnast has experienced amenorrhea for the past 5 years
...
Would you expect her RANKL levels to be high,
normal, or low? Explain why her levels would be at this level
...
This will result in high
RANKL levels
...
Low
levels of estrogen will result in low levels of OPG, which will lead to higher rates of osteoclast activity
...
Amenorrhea results in lower estrogen levels
...
Lower estrogen levels would
lead to lower OPG levels in turn increasing RANKL and osteoclast activity
...
Her scan
yielded a T-score of -0
...
Interpret the results of her DEXA scan
...

Your Answer:
T-score of -1
...
This patient is borderline, so its important
that the patient take regular and adequate calcium, as well as incorporate weight bearing excercises
...
This can be consumed via diet or
supplements
...
Vitamin D
increases calcium absroption
...
She should also be
participating in regular weight bearing activities such as walking or even resistance exercise
...
He is obese and has a history of alcohol abuse
...

Your Answer:
During this inter-critical phase, preventing future attacks is key
...
Allopurinol or a uricosuric drug can be used to reduce the uric acid
...


Phase 3 of gout is called inter-critical gout
...
The goal of treatment in this phase is to maintain normal uric acid levels and prevent
progression of the disease
...

This patient should be encouraged to lose weight and decrease his alcohol consumption
...
(*Note – the student has to provide 1
pharmacologic intervention and 1 non-pharmacologic recommendation
...
You believe this pain is due to
arthritis but are unsure whether it is a result of RA or OA
...
Do you experience stiffness in the morning? 2
...
Does prolonged movement aggravate or alleviate your symptoms? 4
...
Did your pain start in both hands or did it
start with one hand and develop in the other over time? 6
...




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