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Chapter 21 Community Ecology
DRIVING QUESTION 1
1 How does a community differ from a population?
Answer: A community is a collection of interacting populations of different species in a given geographic area
...


2 What are keystone species?
Answer: Keystone species are species that have a strong influence on the community without necessarily having a high abundance
...
An ecologist systematically removes species from different areas of the beach
...
Which is the keystone species?
a
...

c
...

e
...
From what you know about this community, choose
what you think might be a keystone species and defend your choice
...


5 If you have pollen allergies, are you more likely to be suffering from the effects of bee-carried pollen or wind-carried
pollen? Explain your answer
...


6 Sugar maple trees occur in forests in the northeastern United States and southeastern parts of Canada
...
Do you predict bees to be a keystone species in a forest community dominated by maple trees? If
not, what kinds of species might be a keystone species in this community?
Answer: Given that maple trees are wind pollinated, they don’t require an animal pollinator, like bees
...
Keystone species could include decomposers (like fungi) that can decompose dead trees and return n utrients to the
soil
...

b
...

d
...


nothing
They are both producers
...

They are both top-level consumers
...


Answer: b

8 A bear that eats both blueberries and fish from a river is
a
...

c
...

e
...

g
...

a heterotroph
...

a producer
...

Answer: Question 8 provides an example
...
The
blueberry plants are pollinated by insect pollinators, which feed on the nectar
...

The bear can also eat fish, which depend on algal producers in the aquatic environment
...

What happens to the energy stored in the grass once it is ingested by the cow?
Answer: As the cow ingests grain, much of the energy stored in the grain is used to maintain the existing tissues in the cow
...
Some of the grain is not completely digesti ble, so some portion of
it will be eliminated with the cow’s feces
...
g
...


11 Compare the diet of a human who is a herbivore with that of a human who is a top consumer
...

Answer: A human who is a true herbivore is a vegan, eating only plant (that is, producer) products
...
A human who is strictly a top carnivore will eat only other
consumers (e
...
, cows and predatory fish)
...


DRIVING QUESTION 3
12 What are some important features of a honey bee niche? How is it that other nectar-feeding organisms can coexist
with bees as part of a community?
Answer: The honey bee niche includes flowers of a particular shape or color that attracts bees and assists the transfer of pollen
...
Other nectar-feeding organisms
can coexist with bees by relying on flowers other than the ones the bees are attracted to
...

b
...

d
...


when one species eats another
...

when one species helps another
...

when two species help each other
...

b
...

d
...


Both organisms benefit
...

Only one organism benefits
...

Neither organism benefits
...

Answer: This relationship is a mutualism: the bacteria get nutrients and a safe place to live, and the bees get protection fr om infectious
diseases
...
Since these two species coexist in the same habitat, we predict that they do not have
identical niches
...
g
...
In this way, they would not be in direct competition with each other
...

Answer: The number and diversity of bees would decrease
...
This diversity can support a number of bee species
...
This single food source can support a very limited diversity of bees
...
varroa mites
b
...
neonicotinoids
Answer:

a
...
Evidence against varroa mites: mite infestations are not more severe in collapsing colonies than in the same
colonies in previous years, and mite infestations don’t explain the disappearance of bees from collapsing colonies
...
Evidence for IPAV: IAPV is present in 96% of hives with CCD
...

c
...
Evidence against neonicotinoids: there is no definitive evidence against (the EPA has noted that
neonicotinoids are toxic to bees, but has not declared that they are the only factor responsible for CCD)
...

19 We all have E
...
Occasionally these E
...

From this information, which of the following terms would you say describe(s) the relationship between us and our
intestinal E
...

b
...

d
...


competition
mutualism
parasitism
symbiosis
predator–prey

Answer: b, c, and d
...
As the bacteria benefit from the
nutrients in the digestive tract and outcompete potential pathogens, the relationship is a mutualism
...


20 Many people consider bees a stinging nuisance
...


21 Farmers often plant large acreage of a single crop in order to maximize yield and simplify harvesting
...

a
...
Do some online research to develop a specific model for an alternative to monoculture that addresses at least one of the
issues you have identified
...
Some of the pros include more efficient growing and harvesting, resulting in a higher yield
...
This adverse impact on
bees will have a spin-off effect on other bee-pollinated crops
...
There are a variety of alternative models that rely on planting different crops that flower at different times in the same fields
...
They had a total of 20 hives (colonies) that were broken into five groups (with 4
hives per group)
...
One group did not receive imidacloprid
...
The data are
summarized in the table below
...
Graph these data
...
What patterns do you observe?
c
...
of
Dead Hives
at 12
Weeks

No
...
of
Dead
Hives at 16
Weeks

No
...
of
Dead Hives
at 21
Weeks

400

0

2

2

4

4

4

200

0

0

2

2

3

4

40

0

1

1

2

3

3

20

0

0

0

0

2

4

Dose of
imidacloprid
(μg/kg)

No
...
, et al
...
In situ replication of honey bee colony collapse disorder
...

Answer:

a
...
In general, the higher the dose of imidacloprid, the earlier the hive mortality, and the greater the number of hives that
experience mortality
...
The data are consistent with the hypothesis
...
The
single untreated hive that died did not die until 21 weeks into the study, whereas dead hives were present at 14 weeks in the
treated groups
...


Chapter 22 Ecosystem Ecology
DRIVING QUESTION 1
1 Which of the following are parts of an ecosystem?
a
...

c
...

e
...


the plant life present in a given area
the animals living in a given area
the amount of annual rainfall in a given area
the soil chemistry in a given area
none of the above
all of the above

Answer: f

2 List several examples of species discussed in this chapter that have changed their geographic distributions or the
timing of events in their life cycles as a result of global climate change
...
Plants are flowering earlier in the spring; early
flowering reduces the survival of young roe deer
...


3 In identifying a biome, for which of the characteristics below would it be important to have data?
a
...

c
...

e
...
Monthly rainfall and temperatures are very important, as are the defining plants in the area
...
Where in North and South America do you find temperate forest? Tropical forest?
Answer: Temperate forest in North America: most of the eastern half of the United States, and southern Canada near the Great Lakes, and
Mexico
...

Answer: Weather refers to daily or short-term fluctuations in temperature and precipitation, while climate refers to long-term averages for a
particular region
...
Discuss each of the adaptations listed below and decide if it is likely to be helpful or harmful in
a warming environment
...
)
a
...
having a larger number of pores on each leaf
c
...
Higher temperatures increase water transpiration from leaves
...
Because greenhouse gases such as CO2 are increasing, the smaller area
may not be as much of a liability for the uptake of CO2
...

b
...
In this case, the
enhanced water loss is probably a greater liability than the enhanced CO2 uptake
...

c
...
A thicker bark may also be more difficult for insects to eat, protecting the tree from potentially increased insect
activity resulting from warming temperatures
...

8 What is a possible risk for humans if insects that carry pathogenic bacteria or viruses expand their range northward?
Answer: If insects that carry pathogenic bacteria or viruses move northward, then some human populations may be exposed to novel pathogens
...
High
rates of disease and death may result
...
Insufficient food leads
to higher mortality of the young deer
...


DRIVING QUESTION 2
11 Which greenhouse gas is emitted every time you breathe out?
a
...

c
...

e
...

b
...

d
...

f
...

Answer: No
...
In the absence of the greenhouse effect, the temperatur e of the planet
would be too cold to support life as we know it
...
In contrast, melting ice caps will cause a rise in sea levels, putting low-lying cities such as
Miami at risk of flooding
...

a
...

c
...


engaging in large-scale slash-and-burn agriculture
driving gasoline-fueled cars
producing cattle for beef and dairy products
producing rice

Answer:

a
...
The burning releases a huge
amount of stored carbon as CO2
...

b
...
The carbon stored in fossil fuels is not
circulating in the atmosphere until the fossil fuels are extracted and combusted
...
Beef and dairy cattle harbor methane-producing microbes in their digestive tracts
...

d
...

16 Look at Infographic 22
...
From the data presented, how much warmer than the 30-year average was most of the
continental United States in 2016? Which part of the United States had the greatest degree of warming? How much
warmer was this region than the 30-year average?
Answer: In 2016, most of the continental United States was between 1
...
Alaska had the
greatest degree of warming, at approximately 4oC greater than the average
...


Answer: Using fossil fuels for energy converts organic carbon to CO 2
...
CO2 is released to the atmosphere
...
Plants perform
photosynthesis, fixing CO2 into organic molecules
...


18 Plants like maple trees CO2 by
...

b
...

d
...


emit; photosynthesis
take up; photosynthesis
emit; cellular respiration
take up; cellular respiration
store; cellular respiration

Answer: b

19 Fossil fuels are most immediately derived from
a
...

c
...

e
...

CO2
...

melting ice caps
...


Answer: a

20 Name at least two human activities that increase CO 2 levels in the atmosphere and two natural processes that
contribute CO2 to the atmosphere
...
g
...
Decomposition increases CO 2 levels
in the atmosphere, as do forest fires
...
The air bubbles contain dissolved CO2 at the levels found in the atmosphere at the time the air was trapped
...
What if
someone suggested to you that global climate change is due to increased intensity of solar radiation (that is, the
amount of sunlight reaching Earth)? What evidence would you ask for in support of this hypothesis?
Answer: The evidence that global greenhouse gases are responsible for global climate change include the fact that current atmospheric CO2 levels
are higher than they have been in a very long time (hundreds of thousands of years); the fact that direct measurements of CO2 in the atmosphere
have shown a rapid increase in the last ~140 years; the fact that the increase in CO2 concentrations parallels the increasing global temperatures
...


23 Which of the following data would you use to determine the levels of atmospheric CO2 in 1750? Justify your choice,
including an explanation of why the other choices would not be as effective
...

b
...

d
...
The ideal data would be the analysis of ice cores formed in 1750
...
The
Mauna Loa observatory was not recording data in 1750, and tree-ring analysis does not reveal CO2 levels
...
She is contemplating several options, and has decided that environmental impact
(particularly greenhouse gas emissions) is her top priority
...
” She is looking at a fuel-efficient gasoline powered car, a
traditional hybrid (that uses gasoline, but can also run on a battery that recharges while the car is being driven), and a
fully electric plug-in car
...
What other factors (which may be
beyond her control) could affect the emissions associated with owning and driving some of the vehicles she is
contemplating?
Answer: Pros of the gasoline powered car include the ability to travel longer distances without a recharge (relative to most electric plug-in cars)
and (generally) a lower cost
...

Pros of the traditional hybrid include the ability to recharge on the go, the flexibility to run on gasoline if necessary, and the low emissions
...

Pros of the plug-in electric care include no reliance on gasoline (and therefore no emissions from the car itself) and the ability to recharge
from the electric grid
...

For the plug-in electric car, the amount of emissions associated with charging from the electric grid will depend on how the electricity is
generated
...
If the
grid is maintained by coal-fired electric plants, then there will be associated emissions
...
epa
...
html) and calculate your total carbon emissions
...
What is your largest source of emissions?
b
...
Explain how drying your laundry on a clothesline rather than in the dryer can decrease your carbon emissions
...
Answers will vary
...

b
...
Minimizing
unnecessary use of electrical appliances and unplugging appliances when they are not in use reduces electrical usage
...

c
...
Because electricity is most
commonly produced at coal-fired plants, reducing electrical usage reduces the amount of coal burned for electricity
...
The California
broccoli was delivered in shipments containing 768 lbs of broccoli in a tractor-trailer that traveled 2,786 miles
...
The local
broccoli was delivered in shipments of 587 lbs of broccoli in a cargo van that traveled 19
...
Cargo van fuel
efficiency is 16 miles per gallon, and 20 lbs of CO2 are released per gallon of fuel burned
...
Complete the table below to determine the CO 2 emissions associated with delivering 1 lb of local and 1 lb of nonlocal
broccoli
...
Is locally sourced fresh broccoli a year-round option at Virginia Tech?
c
...
food production
...
1

Data from Schultz, J
...
(2010) Foodprint comparison of local vs
...
blacksburgfarmersmarket
...
pdf (accessed 5/4/2013)
Answer:

a
...
1

557
...
19

CO2 Released
per Shipment
(lbs)

CO2 Released per
Pound of Broccoli
Delivered (lbs)

11,144

23
...
51

0
...
Given the climate at Virginia Tech, year-round locally sourced fresh broccoli is likely not an option
...

c
...


MILESTONES IN BIOLOGY 7
1 On the origins of DDT:
a
...
How effective was it for that purpose?
Answer:

a
...
S
...

b
...

2 On the mechanism of DDT:
a
...
How does DDT harm top predator birds?
Answer:

a
...

b
...

3 What is biomagnification?
Answer: Biomagnification is the process by which chemicals (particularly toxic chemicals) increase in concentration with each trophic level
...


4 PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls), a type of chlorinated hydrocarbon, were used for a variety of purposes (including
electrical insulation) until their use was banned in 1979
...
8 to 1
...
The wildlife protection value (the
concentration that should not be exceeded in order to protect the safety of wildlife) is 0
...
How could there be
such high levels of PCBs in top predator fish 21 years after PCBs were banned?
Answer: Like DDT, PCBs are very stable in the environment and degrade very slowly
...


5 In 2013, a group of beekeepers launched a lawsuit against the EPA concerning the use of neonicotinoid pesticides
and possible unintended impacts on honey bees (see Chapter 21)
...

Answer: Medicine has contributed substantially to child and adult survival, particularly in the development of vaccines and a ntibiotics to treat
and prevent infectious disease
...
Pu blic health measures
to provide clean drinking water to a greater proportion of the population have decreased the incidenc e of many diseases
...

Sustainable living practices reduce the ecological footprint
...
If there is no electricity in the village, the village will be using very few resources for heatin g and lighting
...
The villagers likely do not have any motorized vehicles, and likely are not relying on food that has
been shipped long distances by air or truck
...
Similarly, their clothes are likely to
be made of local natural fibers, not synthetics that may require chemicals to produce
...
Discuss the ways in which this transaction will affect the size of the
nearby town’s population and the ecological footprint of the residents of the town and its outskirts
...
In a small town, 80 additional people
could have a large impact (in a town of 800 people, this is a 10% increase)
...
By building on former cropland, the area has lost biological productivity, increasing the footprint
...
If the new residents need to drive
into and out of town for shopping and school or work needs (town residents may be able to walk to these destinations), the increase in the
ecological footprint may be larger than the actual population increase
...


5 What building considerations could the developer in Question 4 take into account to minimize the impact of this
development on the ecological footprint of the town and its outskirts?
Answer: The developer could consider sustainable energy sources to power the new condos, for example solar or wind power, and could use
sustainably sourced building materials
...
The developer could consider putting in gardens for some food producti on to at least
partly compensate for building on cropland
...

b
...

d
...


water
carbon dioxide
nitrogen dioxide
all of the above
b and c

Answer: e

7 Mark each of the following natural resources as renewable (R) or nonrenewable (N)
...


9 The renewability of some resources can depend on human choices and activities
...

Answer: There are many possibilities
...
For example, at one point the cod fishery of the North Atlantic was in danger of being depleted because so many fish were
being caught that they could not successfully reproduce to maintain the population
...
As noted in the text, freshwater can become nonrenewable if it is being withdrawn fr om an aquifer
faster than it can be replaced
...
What are some of the challenges that must be overcome in order to tap into the renewable
energy resources in your region?
Answers will vary
...


11 The levelized cost of energy is the overall cost to utilities to generate electricity from various power sources
...
The levelized costs of energy from
two sustainable sources, wind power and solar photovoltaic, are decreasing:

Wind Energy
2009: $135 per MWh
2014: $59 per MWh

Utility-Scale Solar Photovoltaic
2009: $359 per MWh
2014: $79 per MWh
a
...
As a percent, what is the 2014 solar photovoltaic levelized cost relative to the 2009 cost?
In 2014, the levelized cost of coal was $110 per MWh, and the levelized cost of residential rooftop solar was $215 per MWh
...
Arguments are often made that while sustainable resources have many benefits, the biggest challenge to large-scale
adoption is the cost of the new technologies required
...
59/135  43
...
79/359  22%
c
...
While residential rooftop solar is more expensive than coal, utility-scale solar
photovoltaic was less expensive than coal
...
Both wind and utility-scale solar
require farms (wind farms and solar panel farms) that take up land and may be considered unsightly
...
The manufacture of photovoltaic solar panels requires the use of hazardous
chemicals
...


DRIVING QUESTION 3
12 How would you define “sustainability”? Highlight several features of sustainability in your answer
...
It includes minimizing use of nonrenewable resources, as well
as choosing to use products that generate less waste
...
g
...


14 What practices can you adopt where you live to reduce your ecological footprint and embrace the philosophy of
sustainable living? For each practice that you think of, explain how it would contribute to sustainability and the
reduction of your ecological footprint
...
11 presents several concrete ideas
...
What are some of the
sustainability implications of living in the desert?
Answer: Water is a major issue in the Southwest
...
All these uses place a large demand on the aquifers and
rivers in the region
...
Huge amounts of electricity are required in the summer to keep homes and businesses cool
...


16 A single mother of two children living in Boston (a city with a decent public transportation system) asks you to help
her reduce both her day-to-day living expenses and her ecological footprint
...

Answer: There are many things that this mother could do to reduce her ecological footprint and save money, although not all may be
possible or easy in her circumstances
...
Walking to get to public transportation
will contribute to her personal health
...
By eating more fresh produce,
she and her family will be eating a healthful diet
...
By buying
clothes for herself and her children at thrift shops, she will save money, and also will be re-using those clothes—potentially keeping them
out of landfills
...


17 Explore your school’s website to find out about your school’s commitment to sustainability
...
If you assigned a high grade, what factors contributed to it? If you assigned a
low grade, what could be improved at your school?
Answers will vary
...
Ammonia is the major form of nitrogen taken up by plants
...

Answer:

Nitrogen Conversion Process

Organism

_b

N2 ➔ NH3

a
...
nitrogen-fixing bacteria

_a

N2 ➔ chemical fertilizer

c
...

b
...

d
...


rocks
bodies of plants and animals
atmospheric gases
the soil
bodies of water

Answer: c

4 If phosphorus is important for bones and teeth, why do plants need phosphorus?
Answer: Phosphorus is an important component of the phospholipids that make up cell membranes, and of the nucleotides that make up DNA
...
Plants obtain CO 2
from the air, so adding carbon to the soil will not be helpful
...


7 You have five containers with specific soils and for each container you can control the composition of the
surrounding air
...

Answer: The plants in container D will likely have the best growth
...
In contrast, container E has ammonia added, but without nitrogen-fixing bacteria to replenish the
ammonia, the plants will not be able to sustain robust growth
...


DRIVING QUESTION 2
8 Match the parts of a flower with the corresponding letter from the diagram below:

Anther
Filament
Ovary
Ovule
Pistil
Stamen
Style
Stigma
Answer: See Infographic 24
...
anther, D; filament, F; ovary, C; ovule, B; pistil, G; stamen, H; style, E; stigma, A

9 Mark each of the flower parts listed below as a male reproductive structure (M) or a female reproductive structure (F)
...


11 Complete the sentence below using the terms ovary, egg, and ovule
...
In angiosperms, it is found in an

...
In angiosperms, it is found in an ovule, which in turn is found in the ovary
...
Examination of the seeds reveals endosperm with an extra set of
chromosomes (relative to normal endosperm) and no embryo
...

Answer: Double fertilization appears to have failed
...


13 Many everyday products contain compounds derived from plants
...
For each item listed, do some
internet research to identify the plant (find both the scientific and common name) and something else about it that
interests you (for example, where the plant is found, whether it has historically been used for medicinal purposes,
other sources of the compound)
...


DRIVING QUESTION 3
14 Compare and contrast the genetic engineering of a plant with the genetic engineering of a yeast (see Chapter 8)
...
The major difference is in how the recombinant
gene (in its vector) is introduced into the host cell
...
Engineered cells are then
grown into small plants that can be transplanted into soil
...
Discuss purpose, benefits, and potential risks or
unintended consequences
...
The Bt plants
become protected against insects
...
These crops can be treated with Roundup—the modified crops will survive, but weeds will be killed
...
Farmers must buy new seed for Roundup Ready crops
every year, increasing their costs
...
g
...


16 Which of the following is consistent with organic farming practices?
a
...
using Bt toxin proteins as an insecticide
c
...
using a synthetic pesticide
Answer: b

17 Growing plants in the shade reduces NPQ
...


18 There are many strategies that can help increase food availability for a growing global population
...

a
...
designing corn and wheat to form root nodules
c
...
Considerations should include (for part a) how NPQ affects productivity and why a reduction in NPQ leads t o
increased production; (for part b) how root nodules contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria and thus provide a “built-in” source of ammonia
production; and (for part c) the energetics of meat consumption—how energy is lost at each trophic level in a food chain
...


19 The figure below shows data about quenching (NPQ) and plant growth for GM plants that have been engineered to
speed up the rate at which plants recover from quenching
...
Panel B shows the increase
as a percent of the weight, leaf area and height of GM plants relative to wild type for plants grown out in the field
...
Does the genetic modification appear to be important for NPQ when plants are grown in steady light conditions?
b
...

c
...
No
...
NPQ is not activated in steady light
...
In a greenhouse with steady illumination, there is not likely to be any difference between the wild-type and GM plants
...

c
...


Chapter 25 Plant Physiology
DRIVING QUESTION 1
1 Which organelle generates turgor pressure?
a
...

c
...

e
...

b
...

d
...


Xylem provides support only; phloem provides transport
...

Xylem transports materials from shoots to roots; phloem transports materials in either direction
...

all of the above

Answer: b

3 What is the function of the cuticle?
a
...

c
...

e
...

It provides rigidity to the cell wall
...

It prevents water loss
...


Answer: d

4 Mark each of the following features as a monocot trait (M) or a dicot trait (D)
...


6 Paper is made from wood that is broken down to pulp
...

Answer: Wood contains lignin in its cell walls
...
If
paper were made from green leaves, lignin-digesting enzymes would not be necessary because the cells of green leaves do not have lignin in
their cell walls
...

b
...

d
...


pure water
a solution with the same solute concentration as the celery
a solution with a higher solute concentration than the celery
you should let it air dry for a few minutes
any of the three solutions (a, b, or c) will be equally effective

Answer: a

8 The herbicide 2,4-D kills dicots but not monocots
...

a
...
to kill dandelion weeds in an otherwise perfect lawn of grass
c
...
Both dandelions and “broadleaf” weeds are dicots, so 2,4-D will kill them without killing monocot grass or corn
...
How do they obtain CO2?
a
...

c
...

e
...

b
...

d
...

f
...

CO2 is entering the plant for photosynthesis
...

H2O is leaving the plant
...

b
...

d
...

f
...

Answer: The bright coloration of the trumpet pitcher attracts insects, a food source that can supplement the plant’s nutrition
...


13 Describe the “conflict” that plants face with respect to opening and closing their stomata
...
Most plants open their stomata during the day (when photosynthesis
is occurring)
...
In dry climates, the water loss can be sever e and detrimental
...


14 If a plant could not make chlorophyll, would you expect it to survive? Why or why not?
Answer: It would not survive
...


15 Scientists carried out an experiment to examine the effect of CO2 concentrations on plant growth in a semiarid (that
is, a dry) grassland environment in Colorado
...
One set of plots (A) was kept at ambient CO 2 concentration, and
one set (B) was kept at elevated CO2 concentration (two times ambient concentration)
...
The data for three consecutive years are shown in the table
...
)

Plot Set

Average Plant Mass
(g/m2), 1996

Average Plant Mass
(g/m2), 1997

Average Plant Mass
(g/m2), 1998

A (ambient CO2)

110

108

145

B (elevated CO2)

112

145

205

Data from Morgan, J
...
, et al
...
Global Change Biology 7:451–466
...

b
...

d
...

Are there any differences between different plot sets in any given year? If so, describe the differences observed
...

What are the implications of this study for grassland productivity (at least in Colorado) with rising CO2 levels?

Answer:

a
...
In 1997 and 1998, plot B (elevated CO2) had higher plant mass than plot A
...

c
...
Growth in 1998 may have been higher
because of environmental factors such as rainfall (if 1997 was particularly dry and 1998 was wetter) or temperature
...
The data suggest that CO2 enhances grassland plant growth
...


DRIVING QUESTION 3
16 What is the function of endosperm in a seed?
Answer: Endosperm is a source of stored nutrients and energy to be used during germination
...

Answer: Seeds (e
...
, burrs) can attach to animal fur, be carried in the wind, float, or be eaten by animals and dispersed in their feces
...
What seed dispersal mechanisms would
most likely be found on this island? Explain your answer
...


DRIVING QUESTION 4
19 If you wanted a plant to grow very tall, which hormone should you apply?
a
...

c
...

e
...

b
...

d
...


auxin
ethylene
gibberellins
anthocyanin
ABA

Answer: a

21 Why do seedless grapes need hormone treatment to develop big clusters of big grapes, whereas seeded varieties can
develop large fruits without the application of hormones?
Answer: Gibberellins naturally produced by seeds are responsible for the elongation of stems that makes room for large bunches of grapes
...


22 Nopales are cactus pads (the large, thick “leaves” of the prickly pear cactus) and make a delicious salad
...
By removing the spines for the salad, we are
circumventing this antiherbivory mechanism
...
Once compounds have been isolated, they can be
chemically modified to enhance their activity
...
This drug has been approved for women with
metastatic breast cancer whose disease has not been responsive to previous treatment
...
1 months) than did patients in chemotherapy regimens
prescribed by their oncologists (10
...
(Data are from http://www
...
gov/ncicancerbulletin/041911/page5
...
Design
a procedure to test such extracts for anticancer activity
...

Answer: Extracts must be tested for anticancer activity, but they cannot be immediately tested in humans
...
Thes e can be cell lines from different types of
cancer— lung, breast, cervical, and others
...
A promising extract would slow the growth of cancer cells or kill them
...

Once an extract has been identified as having potential anticancer activity in cultured human cancer cells, you can identify the specific
compounds in the extract that are responsible for slowing the growth of or killing the cancer cells
...
If you identify such a chemical compound, you can chemically modify it in the lab to see if it is possible to
enhance its activity
...


24 Many household and garden plants are toxic to household pets
...
Do some Internet research to identify at least
three other plants that are toxic to household pets or farm animals
...
Do any of the plants you identified have
medicinal uses for humans?
Answers will vary, but all should include the scientific and common name of the plant, which part(s) is/are toxic to animals, and any medicinal
uses in humans
...

Answer: Anatomy is the study of the structure of living organisms
...


2 Organize the following terms on the basis of level of structure, from the simplest (1) to the most complex (4)
...

b
...

d
...


tissues, cells, organ systems, organs
organ systems, organs, tissues, cells
cells, organ systems, tissues, organs
cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
cells, organs, organ systems, tissues

Answer: b

4 An emergency room doctor setting a complex bone fracture is relying primarily on knowledge of
a
...

c
...

e
...

physiology
...

homeostasis
...


Answer: a

5 Is a personal trainer who works with clients to help them lose weight through a combination of diet and exercise
focusing primarily on anatomy or physiology? Explain your answer
...
Both diet and exercise work through a variety of metabolic processes and require homeostatic
mechanisms (e
...
, body temperature regulation, blood-sugar regulation, ATP production, lipid storage vs
...


6 Why is the heart considered an organ and not a tissue?
Answer: The heart is made up of more than one tissue type, all of which work together to maintain heart function
...


DRIVING QUESTION 2
7 What is homeostasis?
Answer: Homeostasis is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment, even when the external environment changes
...

b
...

d
...


by providing insulation to retain heat
by providing a highly vascularized tissue to release heat to the environment
by generating heat through shivering
by generating heat via cellular respiration in specialized mitochondria
b and d

Answer: d

9 Describe the feedback loop involved in thermoregulation in cold conditions
...

Answer: In cold conditions, sensors detect the low body temperature and send a signal to the hypothalamus
...
The effectors exert their effects (e
...
, shivering and vasoconstriction), bringing about a
normal body temperature
...

b
...

d
...
In either case,
the muscles will not receive the signal to shiver, and in the absence of any intervention body temperature will remain low
...
Why do you think this happens?
Answer: One of the responses to a drop in body temperature is shivering
...
Glucagon acts on the liver
to promote the breakdown of glycogen and release of glucose (which serves as fuel) into the blood, providing circulating glucose for muscles
...


13 Name two or three physiological responses that could help the body dissipate heat during exertion on a hot day
...

Answer: Sweating and vasodilation
...
Vasodilation brings more blood flow to the surface of the skin,
allowing some heat to dissipate from the body
...


DRIVING QUESTION 3
14 What internal signals are associated with dehydration?
a
...

c
...

e
...

a
...

c
...

e
...

a
...

c
...

e
...
The
pancreas releases insulin into the blood when the blood-sugar level is high
...
As the blood-sugar level drops, the pancreas stops releasing insulin and insulin levels drop as well
...
Why might Tibetans, who have lived at high elevations for many generations, have an easier time
than others with hypoxia? (Think about both short-term and long-term changes
...
In the longer term, the population has likely adapted
...


19 Hypertension (high blood pressure) has been diagnosed in a 65-year-old woman
...
Her doctor tells her that there are two main categories of drugs
for hypertension: thiazides, a type of diuretic, and ACE inhibitors, which help relax blood vessels and prevent their
constriction
...

Answer: A diuretic (often called a “water pill”) causes the kidneys to excrete excess water from the blood
...
ACE inhibitors relax the blood vessels and prevent them from constricting,
dropping the blood pressure
...
They each had a blood test to measure the
levels of insulin in their blood (also measured after fasting)
...
From the data shown, is Jonas or Jennifer more likely to have type 2 diabetes (which is
characterized by an inability of cells to respond to insulin)? Which of them is more likely to have type 1 diabetes
(which results from a failure of insulin production)? Explain all their blood test results
...
Normally, high blood sugar will cause t he pancreas to
release insulin into the blood, but in type 1 diabetes the pancreas cannot produce insulin
...
As Jennifer has high blood sugar and high insulin, she appears to have type 2 di abetes
...
The high insulin should be reducing blood-sugar levels but it is not
...


21 The U
...
National Park Service has to rescue stranded hikers, often at great expense
...

Answer: There will likely be many opinions about the financial liabilities of stranded hikers and their level of preparedness
...
For example, hikers should carry more water than they
think they will need to prevent dehydration (especially if they end up hiking longer than anticipated or in hot climates)
...
Similarly, if the trek is in sunny environments (hot or cold), they should
wear sunscreen and sun-protective clothing to prevent painful sunburns that may limit their ability to continue the hike (and increase the risk of
being stranded)
...
If they are hiking at high altitude, they should acclimatize before starting the hike
...

Esophagus
Large intestine
Stomach
Mouth
Small intestine
Anus
Answer: (1) mouth; (2) esophagus; (3) stomach; (4) small intestine; (5) large intestine; (6) anus

2 Which part of the digestive tract has the most acidic pH?
a
...
colon
c
...
stomach
e
...
The stomach expands to store the
extra food until there is room in the small intestine
...


4 What do the gallbladder, liver, and pancreas have in common with respect to the digestive system? How do they
differ from the mouth, stomach, and small intestine?
Answer: The gallbladder, liver, and pancreas all produce or store and release secretions (e
...
, digestive enzymes, bile, bicarbonate) that aid in
digestion
...
The
mouth, stomach, and small intestine are all part of the main tube of the digestive tract through which food passes as it is digested
...

b
...

d
...


chemical digestion in the stomach
chemical digestion in the small intestine
absorption in the small intestine
chemical digestion in the mouth
movement of food from the mouth to the stomach

Answer: e

6 Pepsin is most effective at a pH of about 2
...
If the pancreas were unable to secrete bicarbonate (the basic component of pancreatic juice that neutralizes
acid), what would you predict about the waste eliminated from the large intestine?
Answer: If the pancreas were unable to secrete bicarbonate, the acidic chyme from the stomach would not be neutralized (it would remain
acidic)
...
As a result, eliminated waste would contain food that is only partially digested
...

b
...

d
...


small intestine
esophagus
mouth
stomach
colon

Answer: a

8 What do pepsin and salivary amylase have in common? How do their activities differ?
Answer: Pepsin and salivary amylase are both digestive enzymes
...

Salivary amylase digests carbohydrates in the mouth, an environment with a neutral pH
...


10 Someone whose gallbladder has been surgically removed will have trouble processing
a
...

c
...

e
...

carbohydrates
...

vitamins
...


Answer: a

11 Compare and contrast the functions of bile salts and lipase
...
Bile salts emulsify fats into small droplets that lipase can digest
...

Answer: Digestive enzymes from the pancreas travel through the duct to reach the small intestine
...


13 If you stand on your head, can processed food still pass from your small intestine into your large intestine? Explain
your answer
...
Food will still pass from the small intestine into the large intestine because the movement of food through the digestive tract is
propelled by peristalsis, not gravity
...
She must be careful not to eat high-fat meals, or else she is likely to
experience greasy diarrhea
...
Tammy must also avoid high-fat meals, in order to avoid oily stools, a possible side effect of the
drug
...
This means that if she eats a high-fat meal, she will
not have enough bile salts to emulsify the fat
...
Tammy can emulsify fat but not fully digest it afterward because Alli inhibits the enzyme lipase
...
If they eat a high-fat meal, undigested fat will pass into their stool
...

a
...

c
...

e
...
Sleeve gastrectomy retains the normal passage of digested food through the
stomach and the small intestine, whereas gastric bypass “reroutes” digested food so that it bypasses most of the stomach, as well as the upper part
of the small intestine
...

Answer: Because gastric bypass reroutes food, bypassing most of the stomach and part of the small intestine, the digestive system not only
takes in less food, but digests and absorbs less of the food it does take in
...
g
...

The impact on conditions such as diabetes and cardiovascular disease can be dramatic
...
A 5’11’’ man weighs 320 pounds
...
1
...
If he has gastric bypass, and if his weight-loss trajectory is exactly that shown in the left panel of Infographic 27
...
What health outcomes might he experience as a result of his weight-loss surgery?
Answer:

a
...
1, but his BMI is clearly greater than 40 (a BMI calculator puts it at
44
...

b
...
At that point his weight would be 230
...
His BMI would be 32, which is obese (but he would no longer be considered extremely obese)
...
He may have extended his life span and reduced the probability of developing diabetes (or reduced existing symptoms of
diabetes)
...

Answer: The surgery has risks, and even if the procedure is successful, patients have to permanently change the way they eat in order to
avoid discomfort or pain
...
Although almost everyone who undergoes this
surgery loses weight at first, many gain some or even all of the weight back
...
Anyone considering this surgery should consult with a sur geon who
specializes in weight-loss surgery, should get a second opinion, and should carefully read materials on the risks and benefits
...


20 A 2012 study compared the impacts of medical therapy and bariatric surgery in obese people with uncontrolled type 2
diabetes
...
Several dependent variables were measured for 1
year
...

a
...

b
...
The data shown in the table are for 41 patients who had medical therapy and 50 patients who had gastric bypass
...
of
diabetes medications

Gastric
bypass

Average BMI

Average no
...


6 Mos
...


12 Mos
...
3

35
...
8

34
...

4

2
...
1

3
...
0

3
...
0

31
...
2

26
...

8

2
...
1

0
...
4

0
...
R
...
(2012) Bariatric surgery versus intensive medical therapy in obese patients with diabetes
...

Answer:

a
...
Those who had gastric bypass surgery were able to reduce their average number of diabetes medications within 1 year, but
those who received medical therapy were not
...
The results are encouraging for the impact of gastric bypass on management of diabetes in obese individuals
...
The weight loss seemed to be leveling off at the end of the
study, and we don’t know if participants who regain the weight will need to resume taking medications
...


MILESTONES IN BIOLOGY 8
1 What organ produces insulin?
a
...

c
...

e
...
normal
...
lower than normal
...
higher than normal
...

b
...

d
...


A signaling molecule that is transported by the circulatory system and acts on target cells
...

A signaling molecule that is produced by the pancreas
...

A protein that is released by one cell and acts on an adjacent cell
...
In order to distinguish between them, one would need to monitor insulin levels
...
In type 2 diabetes they would be low between meals and remain high aft er meals, providing a critical
clue that blood glucose is remaining high after meals even in the presence of high insulin level
...

b
...

d
...


monosaccharide
...

triglyceride (fat)
...

any of the above, depending on the diet

Answer: b

6 What are the key differences in glucose levels and insulin levels between type 1 and type 2 diabetes? Consider levels
during periods of fasting and levels after a carbohydrate-rich meal
...
In type 1 diabetes, no insulin is produced, so insulin levels will remain low or at zero at all times
...
In type 2 diabetes, blood-glucose level will not come down in response to insulin
...

Answer: blood, blood vessels, and heart

2 Blood enters the systemic circuit from
a
...

c
...


the lungs
...

the right side of the heart
...


e
...
right side of heart S body S left side of heart S lungs
b
...
left side of heart S right side of heart S body S lungs
d
...

Answer: Coronary arteries are part of the systemic circuit: they deliver blood to an important organ in the body, the heart
...
This
machine circulates and oxygenates blood during the operation, taking over from the patient’s heart and lungs
...
The machine would
then oxygenate the blood and return it to the aorta, from which it would be carried to the body
...

b
...

d
...


right atrium
...

left atrium
...

coronary arteries
...

b
...

d
...


the right atrium
the right ventricle
the left atrium
the left ventricle
both the right atrium and the left atrium (to the right and left sides of the body, respectively)

Answer: d

9 The heart obtains oxygen from
a
...

c
...

e
...

the coronary arteries
...

the coronary veins
...


Answer: b

10 What is the defining feature of an artery?
a
...

c
...

e
...

It has very thin walls
...

It carries oxygenated blood
...
The ventricles also contract
faster than normally, but their contraction is not coordinated with the atrial contraction
...

Answer: If the contractions of the atria and of the ventricles are not coordinated, blood is not moved smoothly through the h eart
...
If the left ventricle is not completely filled wh en it
contracts, less blood than normal will be delivered to the body
...

b
...

d
...


fluid backing up in the feet and legs, causing swelling
increased systolic pressure in the aorta
reduced oxygenation of the blood leaving the left ventricle
fluid backing up in the lungs, causing shortness of breath
increased oxygenation of the blood returning to the right atrium

Answer: d

13 Some babies are born with a congenital heart defect in which the septum, or wall, between the left and right
ventricles has an opening in it, and the aorta therefore can accept blood from both the left and right ventricles
...
” Why?
Answer: If oxygenated blood in the left ventricle mixes with less-oxygenated blood in the right ventricle, the total oxygenation of blood in
the left ventricle is reduced
...


DRIVING QUESTION 3
14 Describe the function of each of the following cellular components of blood: white blood cells; red blood cells;
platelets
...
Red
blood cells carry oxygen and deliver it to cells
...


15 Which of the following statements is not true of capillaries?
a
...

c
...

e
...

They have a very small diameter
...

They occur between arteries and veins
...


Answer: e

16 What is happening in a capillary in your big toe?
a
...

c
...

e
...

Carbon dioxide is diffusing from your toe tissue into the blood
...

all of the above
a and c

Answer: d

17 TV crime dramas often analyze arterial spray patterns of blood at crime scenes
...
Once
blood enters the veins (from capillaries), it is no longer under high pressure, so it will not spray if a vein is severed
...
When soldiers at attention contract their calf muscles,
that contraction applies a squeeze to the blood in the veins, pushing it up and to the next valve
...
If the blood is not given an extra push, it may start to pool in the lower extremities, leaving insufficient blood for the rest of
the body and causing light-headedness
...
elevated systolic and diastolic pressure
hypertensionb
...
blockage of a coronary artery
atherosclerosis
d
...
For each, state whether or not it is modifiable
...
Some include family history/genetics (not modifiable); diet (modifiable); exercise (modifiable); race (not
modifiable); smoking (modifiable); obesity (modifiable to a certain extent)
...


21 How does atherosclerosis increase the risk of stroke?
Answer: The plaques of atherosclerosis can rupture, promoting blood clot formation
...


22 Which type of cholesterol is dangerous with respect to cardiovascular disease?
a
...

c
...

e
...


Answer: b

23 The data generated from the Bogalusa study show a correlation between atherosclerosis and risk factors for
cardiovascular disease
...

Answer: No
...
However, given the correlation, it is wise to reduce one’s risk factors to the extent possible
...
He is an ace goalie for his soccer team, which practices twice during the week and plays a
game every weekend
...
After
many long afternoons of playing, Steven has become a very good graphic designer and his mother pays him to
design computer-generated fliers for her business
...
Steven spends some
of his money on chocolate bars and potato chips
...
From what
you’ve read in this chapter, what cardiovascular risk factors do you identify in Steven? What could you say to Steven
and his mother about Steven’s potential risk and reducing that risk?
Answer: Steven is clearly talented
...
He spends a lot of time sitting in front of his video game and computer, which may be taking
time away from exercise
...
His size also puts him at risk for future cardiovascular disease
...
Steven may benefit from getting more moderate to strenuous exercise, from switching to lower-fat dairy products, and perhaps from
cutting back on some of his less healthful chips and chocolate bars
...


25 Refer to Infographic 28
...

a
...
For each state, record the
average percentage of adults with BMI ≥30
...
Determine the total population of each state (you can find census data at
https://www
...
gov/quickfacts/table/PST045216/00)
...
Determine the total number of people in each of those states with a BMI of at least 30
...
of Adults
with BMI #30

Texas

~32
...
5%

6,931,071

1,906,044

California

~22
...
5%

856,454

286,912

Your home state

Answers will vary
...


Answers will vary
...
Consider what kinds of
changes you might want to talk about with your physician
...
Consider the risk factors discussed in the chapter, and consider which of these may require
medical intervention
...


Answer: A
...
larynx; C
...
bronchioles; E
...
lung

2 Which part of the respiratory system is the site of exchange of gases between blood and air?
a
...

c
...

e
...

b
...

d
...


muscular relaxation and a decrease in lung volume
...

muscular contraction and a decrease in lung volume
...

muscular contraction and no change in lung volume
...
This makes it harder for oxygen to diffuse between
the air in alveoli and red blood cells in capillaries in the lungs
...
From this description, explain why people with pneumonia experience shortness of breath
...
Explain why supplemental oxygen is often a treatment for severe cases of pneumonia
...
The accumulation of fluid makes it harder for O 2 to diffuse into the blood at the alveoli
...

b
...


5 Asthma is a disease that causes swelling and constriction of the airways in the lungs
...
Can you think of any treatments for asthma that might be
different from treatments for pneumonia?
Answer: In the case of swollen and constricted airways, air may not be able to move readily between the outside of the body and the alveoli,
where oxygen from fresh air enters the bloodstream
...
Because the air is
moving through constricted passages, asthma often causes wheezing
...

Because constricted airways are not an underlying cause of pneumonia, asthma drugs that open airways would not be effective in treating
pneumonia
...

b
...

d
...


dissolved in the plasma of blood
bound to hemoglobin in plasma
bound to hemoglobin in white blood cells
bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells
dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells

Answer: d

7 What can cause a drop in blood pH?
a
...

c
...

e
...

Answer: If blood pH drops and the blood becomes more acidic, breathing rate will increase, removing CO 2 from the lungs more quickly
...


9 Oxygen diffuses from the air in alveoli to the blood in lung capillaries
...
Pneumonia is an accumulation of fluid in the alveolar air
spaces
...
Diffusion of oxygen is not as efficient over this increased distance, and less oxygen enters the blood as it passes
through the lungs
...


10 Breathing in and out of a paper bag will pH and therefore ventilation
...

b
...

d
...


not change; not change
increase; increase
increase; decrease
decrease; decrease
decrease; increase

Answer: e

DRIVING QUESTION 3
11 Relative to a tissue at rest, actively exercising tissues have
a
...

b
...

c
...

d
...

e
...

Answer: b

12 What is the particular feature of altitude that increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood?
a
...

c
...

e
...
Give two reasons why a tissue might have a low pH
...
This will cause a local increase of CO 2,
which reduces the local pH
...
In both cases, the tissue needs more oxygen, so enhancing the release of oxygen by hemoglobin under these conditions
is beneficial
...
In fact, CO can displace oxygen from
hemoglobin
...

Answer: CO poisoning reduces the ability of hemoglobin to carry oxygen
...


15 Why do people “suck wind” (that is, breathe very heavily) with vigorous exercise?
Answer: In heavy exercise, rates of aerobic respiration are elevated
...
Similarly, with high rates of aerobic respiration, more CO 2 is being produced during glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
...


DRIVING QUESTION 4
16 Which of the following mimics high altitude?
a
...

c
...

e
...

b
...

d
...


stimulates RBCs to release stored O2
stimulates RBC production
increases the number of heme groups per molecule of hemoglobin
increases ventilation rate
...

Consider how you will set up your experiment, including appropriate controls and the variables that you will consider
and measure
...
The independent variable will be the treatment: altitude training, hypoxic chambers, or no oxygen
manipulation
...
You should also consider whether to measure any athletic advantage at sea level or at alt itude
...


19 WADA must be able to test for a variety of banned substances
...

EPO doping
Transfusion of whole blood
Transfusion of RBCs
Use of a hypoxic chamber
Answer: These are hard to rank, given the range of possibilities
...

EPO doping could be measured directly by trying to measure EPO levels (this would be easier if genetically engineered EPO, which
differs slightly from natural EPO, had been used in the doping), or less directly by observing an increase in RBCs
...
If the transfused blood was the patient’s
own, there would be no way to detect a genetic difference
...

Transfusion of RBCs would increase the concentration of RBCs, but so would EPO and use of a hypoxic chamber
...

Transfusion of whole blood might be easiest to detect, as it would increase the number of all blood cell types, not just RBCs
...
Because RBCs
do not have nuclei (and therefore have no nuclear DNA), it is hard to detect transfusion of donor RBCs
...


20 Look at Infographic 29
...

a
...
How many seconds did the men improve by? How many
seconds did the women improve by? Now determine that improvement as a percent of the pre-altitude race time
...
Now look at the graph with both the collegiate and the elite athletes
...
) Did every athlete experience an improvement in
race time? Was the change in race time identical for every athlete? Given the variability in results in this small sample size
of conditioned athletes, what do you think you can extrapolate about altitude training in a larger population of active people?
Answer:

a
...
4 – 8:12
...
8 seconds
...
4  498
...
A
5
...
4-second improvement  1
...
The women improved by (9:32
...
9)  5
...
The pre-altitude race
time was 9:32
...
4 seconds
...
5/572
...
96%
...

b
...
There was
variability in improvement in race time
...
More collegiate athletes than elite athletes had negative improvements
...
As collegiate athletes are
still very fit and well trained, it seems less likely that a general population of active people will experience the same benefits
from altitude training as elite athletes
...
The gym has many amenities, including personal trainers (for an additional fee) and
a hypoxic chamber for “performance training
...

Another gym is offering a no-fee sign-up and lower monthly dues
...
Your friend is fit
...
Given the costs of the two gyms
and your friend’s fitness level and goals, which gym would you advise her to join? Explain your reasoning
...
If the new gym poses a financial burden, joining the new gym might not be worth the added expense
...
7, even very fit collegiate athletes do not always benefit from altitude training, which hypoxic training mimics—consistent
performance benefits seem to be associated with elite athletes
...


Chapter 30 Central Nervous System
DRIVING QUESTION 1
1 Mark each of the following structures as a part of the central nervous system (CNS) or of the peripheral nervous
system (PNS)
...

Bird
Chimpanzee
Salamander (an amphibian)
Fish
Answer: (1) chimpanzee; (2) bird; (3) salamander; (4) fish

4 Is information flow in the spinal cord one way or two way? Explain your answer
...


5 How does multiple sclerosis cause muscle weakness? Does multiple sclerosis directly affect muscles? Which part of
the nervous system is affected?
Answer: Multiple sclerosis causes muscle weakness by destroying myelin
...
Communication between neurons and muscles is impaired, and muscles will not contract properly
...

b
...

d
...


cerebellum
...

diencephalon
...

hypothalamus
...

b
...

d
...


axons
...

cell bodies
...

nuclei
...

a
...

c
...

e
...

b
...

d
...


cell bodies
...

axon terminals
...


11 Compare and contrast electrical and chemical signaling by neurons
...
Chem ical
signaling molecules, called neurotransmitters, are released into synapses and bind to receptors on nearby dendrites
...


12 Gatorade and other sports drinks contain replacement electrolytes (ions necessary to enable muscles to continue to
contract, especially the ions lost during sweating)
...
Other than in the
muscle, where else might these ions be crucial during sustained exercise?
Answer: The neuron that communicates with the muscle does so by firing an action potential and then releasing a neurotransmitter onto the
muscle (which in turn causes the contraction)
...


13 Botox is a chemical treatment injected into skin to prevent wrinkling
...
Acetylcholine is normally released by motor neurons to
signal muscles to contract
...
Botox therefore paralyzes muscles in a flaccid (that is,
relaxed) state
...

Answer: In multiple sclerosis, less neurotransmitter is released by the axon terminals that communicate with muscles
...
When less neurotransmitter is released into the synapse, there is not enough
signal to initiate contraction in the muscle
...

b
...

d
...


decrease the amount of dopamine in synaptic clefts
...

increase the number of dopamine receptors on the axon terminals of cells that release dopamine
...

c and d

Answer: b

16 Why do drug users need to take ever-increasing amounts of drugs to get the same high?
Answer: Receptors respond to the initial surge of dopamine by down-regulating—that is, some receptors are shut down
...


17 Cocaine prevents dopamine from being removed from the synapse
...
If cocaine prevents dopamine from being
removed from the synapse, more dopamine will persist in the synapse, binding to more receptors
...

Answer: Probably sadder
...


19 Parkinson’s disease is caused primarily by a gradual loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain
...
Do some Internet research to match each medication listed in the
left column with its probable mechanism of action
...
can be used by neurons to make dopamine
b
...
inhibits an enzyme that breaks down dopamine

How can drugs with different mechanisms of action all help treat Parkinson’s disease? (Hint: What do all the underlying
mechanisms have in common in terms of their effect?)
Answer: Mirapex (b
...
) inhibits an enzyme that breaks down dopamine; levodopa (a
...
Although these drugs have different mechanisms at the cellular and molecular level, they all act to
increase dopamine levels
...


20 Study Infographic 30
...

a
...
The performances of 14 participants are plotted in each graph
...

c
...
8, you will note that there are a few outliers (two are circled in red in the copy of the
graph shown below)
...


d
...


The Franklin Institute

Answer:

a
...
In the graph on the left, the dependent
variable is the time it takes to walk a straight line (that is, the time it takes to complete the motor skills test), and in the
graph on the right, the dependent variable is the number of words that can be recalled after a distraction
...
The average motor skills time is ~10
...
6
c
...
Someone with ~1
...

d
...
This participant would
have been predicted to recall 12 words but was able to recall 14 words
...
8 with some students
...
Instruct each subject to walk in a straight line from the start to the finish and
back as fast as they can without running
...
Have each participant do the trial three times, and record the average of the
three trials as the participant’s final time
...
How does this
compare to the 14 methamphetamine users whose performances are plotted in Infographic 30
...
R
...
(2006) Timed gait test: normative data for the assessment of the AIDS dementia complex
...

Answers will depend on the data generated
...

b
...

d
...


the epididymis
...

the seminiferous tubules
...

the penis
...

b
...

d
...


because it prevents ovulation
because it scars and blocks the oviducts
because it scars and blocks the cervix
because it interferes with estrogen production by the ovaries
because it interferes with FSH and LH production by the anterior pituitary gland

Answer: b

3 Describe the relationship between the uterus and the cervix, and between the uterus and the endometrium
...
The cervix is the opening into the uterus from the vagina
...
The embryo implants into the endometrium
...
Begin with the seminiferous tubules
...
What does this suggest about sperm and egg?
a
...

c
...

e
...

Fertilization can occur in the ovary
...

all of the above
a and c

Answer: e

6 A friend tells you that her boyfriend has received a diagnosis of gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted infection
...
What can you tell her about the invisible
risks of an untreated sexually transmitted bacterial infection?
Answer: One of the risks is inflammation, which may not cause symptoms but can lead to permanent scarring and blockage of the oviducts
...
She may then have difficulty conceiving because the
blockages will prevent sperm from reaching eggs and prevent eggs from reaching the uterus
...


8 The hormone hCG is an indicator of pregnancy; it also
a
...

c
...

e
...

triggers ovulation
...

acts on the endometrium, causing it to thicken
...


Answer: a

9 Which of the following hormones is/are produced by the anterior pituitary in males?
a
...

c
...

e
...


FSH
LH
testosterone
hCG
FSH and LH
FSH, LH and testosterone

Answer: e

10 Which of the following would most directly cause reduced levels of estrogen production?
a
...

c
...

e
...
From this information, detectives determined that the blood came from a
prepubescent girl, not a woman of reproductive age
...

Answer: FSH and LH are not actively produced before puberty
...


12 As discussed in this chapter, oral contraceptives (such as the combination birth control pill, which contains both
estrogen and progesterone) are designed to block ovulation in women
...
Why would blocking testosterone secretion or action be
effective in terms of contraception? What would be a likely undesired consequence of this type of male
contraception?
Answer: Testosterone is the primary hormone responsible for sperm development in males
...
However, as testosterone is responsible for sex drive and many mal e
characteristics, targeting testosterone would cause unacceptable side effects, among them loss of sex drive and loss of muscle mass
...
To be effective, it must be taken before LH levels start to rise
...
Will emergency contraception be effective in preventing a pregnancy after unprotected intercourse on the day that a woman
ovulates?
b
...
For example, if 80 women out of 1,000 become pregnant after unprotected
intercourse, and an emergency contraceptive is 75% effective, then one would expect the use of the emergency contraceptive to
reduce the number of pregnancies by 75% of 80 pregnancies, to 20 pregnancies
...

Answer:

a
...
Emergency contraceptives only delay or prevent ovulation
...
Thus, they will not be effective if the unprotected intercourse took place on the day of ovulation
...
8 pregnancies; ~21 pregnancies
...

b
...

d
...


blocked oviducts
chronically low levels of LH
excessive production of cervical mucus that blocks the cervix
presence of sperm in the oviduct
low levels of hCG

Answer: b

15 Compare and contrast in vitro fertilization (IVF) and intrauterine insemination (IUI)
...
In IVF, the eggs are surgically removed,
then fertilized in vitro (that is, in a dish)
...
In IUI, the timing of ovulation is carefully monitored so that sperm can be inserted in the uterus just before ovulation (this
procedure generally takes place in a doctor’s office or a fertility clinic)
...


16 Assume that there is an array of diagnostic methods available to you, including blood tests to determine hormone
levels and ultrasound to visualize internal structures
...

a
...

c
...


a blocked epididymis
polycystic ovary syndrome
menopause
oviduct scarring

Answer:

a
...

b
...

c
...
The onset of menopause could be confirmed by a blood
test that would detect low levels of reproductive hormones FSH and LH
...
Oviduct scarring could be confirmed by an imaging study that would reveal the scar tissue and associated blockage
...
” In
IUI, there is no way to predict or control the number of eggs that will develop and be ovulated
...


18 A young couple has been trying to have a baby for over a year, but so far they have not had any luck
...
A physical exam and
ultrasound revealed blockages in both of the woman’s oviducts (fallopian tubes)
...
For each, describe what is involved in the treatment, and why it would or would not be a helpful strategy
for this couple
...
g
...

IVF is another option
...

Resulting embryos would be implanted in the uterus
...

Not likely to be helpful: IUI uses drugs to increase egg production and directly delivers sperm to the uterus in cases of poor-quality sperm
...
Similarly, hormonal treatments to boost fertility would not be helpful, as any additional eggs produced or
ovulated will not be successfully fertilized and implanted if the blockage is still in place
...

Answer: Fertility clinics serve a variety of people, including infertile couples, single people wishing to be parents, and same-sex couples wishing to
be parents
...
They may have tried traditional
methods for achieving pregnancy for several years, and may already have had extensive medical tests to determine infertility
...
Their strong desire to achieve a successful pregnancy may lead them to pressure clinics to take steps to
increase the chances of a successful pregnancy
...
Limiting the number of embryos implanted protects the health of the mother and of the infants, as multiples are often
premature and at risk for adverse health outcomes
...
If the number of embryos were
regulated, then clinics would have to compete on other measures (not just pregnancy rate), and the focus may shift to safer pregnancies and
healthier children
...
People trying to become parents would experience more frustration
...
Higher costs
might drive patients to unregulated clinics in other countries, increasing costs and risks
...

b
...

d
...


DNA
RNA
a membranous envelope
a protein shell
a cell membrane

Answer: d

2 Explain how viruses replicate within humans
...
They direct the host cell to replicate the virus, using host
resources
...
Because nerve cells do not replicate, they cannot repair themselves
...


4 Both viruses and bacteria can be human pathogens
...
(Hint: You may
wish to refer to Chapter 3
...
Instead, they must infect a host cell in order to replicate
...


5 Why do poliovirus, influenza virus, and HIV infections cause different symptoms?
Answer: Each infects a different host cell
...
Influenza virus infects cells of the
respiratory tract, causing respiratory tract symptoms
...


DRIVING QUESTION 2
6 Name three components of the innate immune system
...

Answer: Skin provides a barrier to pathogen entry
...
Phagocytes ingest and
destroy pathogens
...


8 From what you know about innate immunity, would you predict different or identical innate responses to infections
from E
...
aureus (another bacterium)? Explain your answer
...
coli will be the
same as the innate response to S
...


9 Neutropenia is a deficiency in a type of phagocytic cell called neutrophils
...
Would you expect someone with neutropenia to be able to mount an effective inflammatory
response? Explain your answer
...


10 Why might someone taking anti-inflammatory drugs be more susceptible than others to bacterial infections?
Answer: The inflammatory response is important in killing and containing pathogens at their sites of entry
...


DRIVING QUESTION 3
11 Compare and contrast the features of innate and adaptive immunity
...
It does not have “memory
...
” Adaptive immunity exhibits “memory”: it
strengthens with repeated exposures to the same pathogen
...
Describe this relationship, using words, a diagram, or both
...
Upon activation, they become antibody-producing plasma
cells specialized to act against a specific pathogen
...


13 Anti–hepatitis C antibodies present in a patient’s blood indicate
a
...

c
...

e
...

that the patient has been exposed to HIV
...

that the patient was exposed to hepatitis C at least 2 weeks ago
...


Answer: d

14 Vaccination against a particular pathogen stimulates what type of response?
a
...

c
...

e
...
have memory B cells?
b
...
still be at risk for pandemic swine flu? Why?
Answer:

a
...
He or she will have memory B cells specific for the influenza virus they were exposed to
...
Yes
...
Flu varies seasonally as a result of mutations, so his or her memory cells
may not recognize the strain of seasonal flu circulating next year
...
Yes
...
Prior
exposure to seasonal flu will not protect against H1N1
...

a
...
Will the innate response to Staphylococcus aureus be equally effective against Streptococcus pyogenes, another bacterium
that can cause skin infections? Explain your answer
...
Will the adaptive response to Staphylococcus aureus be equally effective against Streptococcus pyogenes? Explain your
answer
...
S
...
Both innate and adaptive immunity act against foreign invaders
...
Yes
...
aureus
will be equally effective against S
...

c
...
The adaptive response to S
...
pyogenes
...
aureus is specific
to S
...

17 HIV is a virus that infects and eventually destroys helper T cells
...
In the absence of helper T cells, the ability to mount an adaptive
immune response is compromised, leaving someone with AIDS vulnerable to a variety of infections
...
The first patient was a 7-year-old unvaccinated boy who had
returned home from a family trip to Switzerland
...
He was taken to his pediatrician when he developed a rash, and then was sent to the emergency room
because of a very high fever
...
Eleven other children ended up developing
measles; none had been vaccinated
...
Of the 11 additional cases, 3
children were less than 1 year old
...
)
a
...

c
...


Why was the presence of antimeasles antibodies in the first case an important finding?
What can you infer about how easily measles spreads?
What does this case suggest about the importance of measles vaccinations?
Were all the unvaccinated children necessarily behind on their vaccination schedule? (Hint: Look up the recommended
measles vaccination schedule on the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention website, www
...
gov
...
Because the boy had not been vaccinated, the only way he would have antimeasles antibodies would be if he had been
exposed to the measles virus
...

b
...

c
...

d
...
Thus, the youngest children (those
less than a year old) were not behind on their vaccination schedule—they were too young to be vaccinated, and therefore
vulnerable to contracting measles
...
What is your local school district or state policy on vaccinations for enrolled students? This
information is typically available at the school district website or the state’s health department website
...
Some states allow exemptions for personal beliefs, and some allow exemptions for religious reasons; exemptions can be
requested because of allergies to the components of a vaccine
...


DRIVING QUESTION 4
20 What is the difference between antigenic shift and antigenic drift?
Answer: Antigenic shift occurs when viruses exchange genes, such that a virus can have genes from a completely different virus
...
Antigenic drift describes small changes , caused by mutations,
in the viral genome
...
The same
strain can be transmitted from birds to humans, causing severe illness in humans
...


22 What processes are responsible for the emergence of pandemic influenza strains such as swine
flu? Explain howthese strains can spread so successfully through the human population
...
When two different viruses (e
...
, a pig virus and a human
virus) co-infect a singlecell, they can swap genetic material, resulting in new viruses with genes from both starting
viruses
...
This allows the new virus to spread easily throughout the population
...
An individual infected with influenza is left vulnerable
to the entry and infection of pathogenic bacteria
...
As the flu season runs from the fall of one year through the spring of
the next, the data are reported by week (40th week of the first year to 12th week of the next)
...
(2010) Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report
59(29):901–908; Influenza activity—United States, 2014–15 season and composition of the 2015–16 influenza vaccine
...


a
...

b
...

Answer:

a
...
In the 2009–2010 season, both age groups were experiencing hospitalizations in week 40
...
In the 2009–2010 season, the 0–
4 age group had far more hospitalizations than the 65 and older age group
...




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