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Title: Module 13 questions
Description: EASA module 13 exam questions
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Module 13
...
01a
...

Question Number
...

Flaps at landing position
...
decrease landing speed
...
decrease take off and landing speeds
...
decrease take off speed
...

decrease landing speed
...

Although an aircraft will take-off with flaps at landing position, this is not normal
...

2
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change theory
...

3
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Page 1-17
...

4
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-12
...

5
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Page 1-16 fig 1-36
...

6
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Page 1-17
...

7
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

How does a balance tab move?
...
In the same direction a small amount
...
In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to
...
In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to
...

In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to
...

A&P General Textbook Pg 2-36
...

9
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?
...
Down
...
Up
...
Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation
...

Up
...

Automatic flight control, Pallett, 4th Edition Page 43
...

11
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-32
...

12
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
The down going aileron moves less, to reduce the induced drag
which causes adverse aileron yaw
...

13
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An aircraft left wing is flying low
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An elevator tab moves down
...
to make the nose go down
...
to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy
...
to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy
...

to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy
...

Elevator tab DOWN, elevator UP, aircraft nose UP
...

16
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
P
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?
...
Under the Fuselage
...
Either side of the Fuselage
...
On the wing
...

Either side of the Fuselage
...

Reference BAe 146 etc
...

18
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is
...
leading edge flaps
...
trailing edge flaps
...
spoiler
...

spoiler
...

Spoilers are sometimes called 'lift dumps'
...

20
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Large flap deployment
...
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface
...
causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface
...
has no effect on spanwise flow
...

causes increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface
...

Flaps increase the pressure differential between top and bottom surfaces, increase tip vortices and spanwise
flow
...

22
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer
...
there is an increased tail plane up-force
...
the elevator causes tail down movement i
...
increased tail plane down force
...
there is an increased tailplane down-force
...

there is an increased tailplane down-force
...

The lower cambered surface produces a down-force on the tail
...

25
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will
...
rise
...
not be affected
...
lower
...

rise
...

As ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases
...

27
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Servo tabs
...
enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
...
move in such a way as to help move the control surface
...
provide artificial feel
...

move in such a way as to help move the control surface
...

A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
...

Question Number
...
Spring Tabs
...
provide artificial feel
...
enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
...
move in such a way as to help move the control surface
...

move in such a way as to help move the control surface
...

A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
...

Question Number
...
Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?
...
Increase the angle of attack
...
Decrease the angle of attack
...
No effect on angle of attack
...

Decrease the angle of attack
...

NIL
...

31
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Krueger flaps make up part of the
...
wing lower surface leading edge
...
wing lower surface trailing edge
...
wing upper surface leading edge
...

wing lower surface leading edge
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-37
...
37 (Note:
lower surface when retracted, upper surface when extended
...

33
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Dutch role is movement in
...
yaw and pitch
...
yaw and roll
...
pitch and roll
...

yaw and roll
...

Avionic Fundamentals Jeppesen page 291
...

35
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
And Vise versa on
the other aileron
...

36
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If an aircraft moves in yaw, what axis is it moving about?
...
Longitudinal
...
Lateral
...
Normal
...

Normal
...

NIL
...

38
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What are ground spoilers used for?
...
To assist the aircraft coming to a stop
...
To slow the aircraft
...
To dump lift
...

To dump lift
...

NIL
...

40
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
What is a slot used for?
...
Increased angle of attack during approach
...
Increase the speed of the airflow
...
To reinforce the boundary layer
...

To reinforce the boundary layer
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 53
...

42
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A high lift device is used for
...
take-off only
...
take-off and landing
...
landing only
...

take-off and landing
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 50
...

44
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is aileron droop?
...
The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on
...
The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow
...
One aileron lowered
...

The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on
...

NIL
...

46
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An anti-balance tab is used
...
to relieve stick loads
...
for trimming the aircraft
...
to give more feel to the controls
...

to give more feel to the controls
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 1-29
...

48
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If an aircraft moves in roll, it is moving about the
...
longitudinal axis
...
normal axis
...
lateral axis
...

longitudinal axis
...

Mechanics of flight by A
...
Kermode page 241
...

50
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Jeppesen Page 244
...

51
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Jeppesen Page 244
...

52
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
At take-off, if the flaps are lowered there is a
...
large increase in lift and drag
...
large increase in lift and small increase in drag
...
small increase in lift and drag
...

large increase in lift and drag
...

Avionics Fundamentals
...

Question Number
...
Wing spoilers be used
...
to assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
...
as ground spoilers on landing
...
to assist the elevators
...

as ground spoilers on landing
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook by Jeppesen
...

Question Number
...
Differential aileron control will
...
cause a nose down moment
...
prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
...
cause a nose up moment
...

prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input
...

NIL
...

56
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett page 26
...

57
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A split flap
...
forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted
...
forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retracted
...
forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retracted
...

forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted
...

Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page1-30 /31
...

59
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Slats
...
keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
...
increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing
...
act as an air brake
...

keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
...

Jeppesen A & P technician airframe textbook page 1-32
...

61
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


angle and

Question Number
...
Flight spoilers
...
can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing
...
can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed
...
can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn
...

can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed
...

NIL
...

63
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Wing tip vortices are strongest when
...
flying high speed straight and level flight
...
flying into a headwind
...
flying slowly at high angles of attack
...

flying slowly at high angles of attack
...

NIL
...

65
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A balance tab
...
effectively increases the area of the control surface
...
assists the pilot to move the controls
...
is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft
...

assists the pilot to move the controls
...

Jeppesen A & P Technician Textbook pg 1-29
...

67
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Flutter can be reduced by using
...
a horn balance
...
mass balancing
...
servo tabs
...

mass balancing
...

NIL
...

69
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft
...
are isolated at high speeds
...
are isolated to improve sensitivity
...
are isolated at low speeds
...

are isolated at high speeds
...

NIL
...

71
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which flap will increase wing area and camber?
...
Slot
...
Split
...
Fowler
...

Fowler
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 20
...

73
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is
...
high
...
high or low
...
low
...

high
...

NIL
...

75
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A split flap increases lift by increasing
...
the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion
...
the surface area
...
the camber of the top surface
...

the angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion
...

Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30
...

77
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In aileron control
...
the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron
...
the down going aileron moves further than up going aileron
...
it is assisted by the rudder
...

the up going aileron moves further than down going aileron
...

NIL
...

79
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the
...
ailerons
...
elevator
...
rudder
...

rudder
...

NIL
...

81
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the
...
ailerons
...
elevator
...
rudder
...

ailerons
...

NIL
...

83
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16
...

84
...
the stick forces
Option B
...
the stick forces
Correct Answer is
...

NIL
...

will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability
...

when pitching the nose down will be very high
...


Question Number
...
What is the term used for the amount of water in the atmosphere?
...
Relative humidity
...
Absolute humidity
...
Dew point
...

Absolute humidity
...

NIL
...

86
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
G
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A servo tab is operated
...
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces
...
automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces
...
by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved
...

directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 23
...

88
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned by
...
moving them by hand directly until against the primary stops
...
moving them by hand directly until against the secondary stops
...
operating the control cabin controls until the system is against the primary stops
...

operating the control cabin controls until the system is against the primary stops
...

NIL
...

90
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A flying control mass balance weight
...
keeps the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible
...
tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line
...
ensures that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load
...

tends to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line
...

NIL
...

92
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?
...
Split flap
...
Fowler flap
...
Slotted flap
...

Fowler flap
...

NIL
...

94
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A leading edge slat is a device for
...
increasing the stalling angle of the wing
...
decreasing the stalling angle of the wing
...
decreasing wing drag
...

increasing the stalling angle of the wing
...

NIL
...

96
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in the opposite
direction to the control surface is called a
...
servo tab
...
geared balance tab
...
trim tab
...

geared balance tab
...

NIL
...

98
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in event of severe
turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the Never Exceed Limit?
...
Lift dumpers
...
Air brakes
...
Wheel brakes
...

Air brakes
...


NIL
...

100
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
"What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move
towards an undesirable flight attitude?
...
Trim tabs
...
Spring tabs
...
Balance tabs
...

Trim tabs
...

NIL
...

102
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A control surface which forms a slot when deployed is called a
...
slat
...
slot
...
flap
...

slat
...

NIL
...

104
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases, what takes
place?
...
Pressure decreases, lift increases
...
Pressure increases, lift decreases
...
Pressure increases, lift increases
...

Pressure increases, lift decreases
...

NIL
...

106
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Changes in aircraft weight
...
cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change
...
will not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed
...
will only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant
...

cause corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change
...

NIL
...

108
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed
...
roll will not occur
...
pitch trim is not affected
...
no yaw takes place
...

pitch trim is not affected
...

NIL
...

110
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
extra lift is
Option B
...
extra lift is
Correct Answer is
...

NIL
...
In a bank and turn
...

not required
...

extra lift is required
...

112
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Control surface flutter may be caused by
...
excessive play in trim tab attachments
...
high static friction in trim tab control tabs
...
incorrect angular movement of trim tabs
...

excessive play in trim tab attachments
...

NIL
...

114
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The primary function of a flap is
...
to trim the aircraft longitudinally
...
to alter the position of the centre of gravity
...
to alter the lift of an aerofoil
...

to alter the lift of an aerofoil
...

Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe Textbook page 1-30
...

116
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The stalling speed of an aircraft
...
is increased when it is heavier
...
does not change
...
is increased when it is lighter
...

is increased when it is heavier
...

NIL
...

118
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing
...
remains the same
...
increases
...
decreases
...

decreases
...

NIL
...

120
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to
...
assist the pilot in moving the control
...
increase stability
...
decrease the drag when the control is deflected
...

assist the pilot in moving the control
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 24 Para 7
...

122
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the tailplane
...
will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch
...
"may cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load
...
will tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch
...

will tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch
...

NIL
...

124
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided to
...
make the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control
...
provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder
...
prevent control surface flutter
...

provide aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 25 Para 7
...

126
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?
...
Flap and slat
...
Slat
...
Flap
...

Slat
...

NIL
...

128
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by
...
placing a weight ahead of the hinge point
...
placing a weight in the leading edge of the control surface
...
providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point
...

providing a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point
...

A
...
2
...

130
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A horn balance is
...
a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end
...
a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached
...
a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line
...

a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 16
...

132
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to
...
relieve stick loads
...
trim the aircraft
...
give more feel to the control column
...

give more feel to the control column
...

NIL
...

134
...
What was the direction of
travel of the trim tab?
...
The elevator trim tab has moved down
...
The elevator trim tab has moved up
...
The port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down
...

The elevator trim tab has moved down
...

NIL
...

135
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is
...
an increase in gradient with wing speed
...
no change in gradient with wing speed
...
decrease in gradient with wing speed
...

decrease in gradient with wing speed
...

NIL
...

137
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Instability giving roll and yaw
...
is dutch roll
...
is longitudinal stability
...
is lateral stability
...

is dutch roll
...

NIL
...

139
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Leading edge flaps
...
increase stalling angle of the wing
...
decrease stalling angle of the wing
...
do not change the stalling angle
...

increase stalling angle of the wing
...

NIL
...

141
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Sweepback will
...
decrease lateral stability
...
not affect lateral stability
...
increase lateral stability
...

increase lateral stability
...

NIL
...

143
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A split flap, when deployed
...
is used only on high speed aircraft
...
increases lift without a corresponding increase in drag
...
increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down
...

increases drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down
...

NIL
...

145
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An elevator controls the aircraft motion in
...
yaw
...
roll
...
pitch
...

pitch
...

NIL
...
01b
...

Question Number
...

Air above Mach 0
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition
Page 385
...

2
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed
...
No
...
not change
...
decrease
...
increase
...

decrease
...

Speed of sound INCREASES with DECREASING altitude, so mach number will decrease
...

4
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0°
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...

Shock stall
...
occurs at high speeds
...
is a flap down stall and occurs at high speeds
...
occurs at low speeds
...

occurs at high speeds
...

Shock stall (or shock induced stall) is caused by the formation of shock waves in the transonic speed range
Question Number
...

As you approach supersonic speed
...
thrust is reduced
...
total drag is increased
...
lift is reduced
...

total drag is increased
...

An additional drag - wave drag - is added to the total drag
...

8
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Before an aircraft reaches critical mach
...
the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward
...
the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave
...
the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
...

the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
...

Mechanics of Flight 10th edition Barnard and Philpott Pg 341
...

10
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?
...
Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
...
Decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings
...
Increasing the aspect ratio of the wings
...

Using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
...

NIL
...

12
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and
...
decrease temperature and increase density
...
increase temperature and decrease density
...
increase temperature and increase density
...

increase temperature and increase density
...

Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode 10th Edition Page 326 fig 11
...

Question Number
...
An increase in mach number will cause the
...
CofP to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane
...
CofP to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
...
CofP to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
...

CofP to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett
...

Question Number
...
At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing
...
at the trailing edge
...
at both the leading edge and the trailing edge
...
at the leading edge
...

at both the leading edge and the trailing edge
...

NIL
...

16
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Mach trim counters
...
longitudinal instability
...
vertical instability
...
lateral instability
...

longitudinal instability
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett page 231 and 50
...

18
...
2, some aircraft metals
...
such as aluminium, become brittle
...
lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect
...
will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved
...

lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect
...

NIL
...

19
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
To increase critical mach number
...
the wings are swept
...
elevons are fitted
...
tailerons are fitted
...

the wings are swept
...

NIL
...

21
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Airspeeds above the speed of sound, but not exceeding 4 times the speed of sound are
...
supersonic
...
hypersonic
...
hyposonic
...

supersonic
...

NIL
...

23
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A Mach Trimmer is a device which
...
prevents the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No
...
automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region
...
switches out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range
...

automatically compensates for trim changes in the transonic region
...

NIL
...

25
...

Option A
...
9 mach and 0
...

Option B
...
7 and 0
...

Option C
...
6 mach 0
...

Correct Answer is
...
7 and 0
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Mach trimming is initiated by an input signal from the
...
IRS
...
vertical gyro
...
CADC
...

vertical gyro
...

NIL
...

27
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Critical Mach No
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is
...
sonic upstream and downstream
...
sonic upstream, subsonic downstream
...
subsonic upstream, sonic downstream
...

sonic upstream, subsonic downstream
...

NIL
...

30
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to
...
enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
...
decrease wave drag
...
decrease boundary layer
...

enable the shockwave to be accurately positioned
...

NIL
...

32
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The transonic region is a region of
...
all subsonic
...
all supersonic
...
mixed airflow
...

mixed airflow
...

NIL
...

34
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Wave drag
...
increases in the supersonic region
...
increases at the low speed stall
...
increases in the transonic region
...

increases in the transonic region
...

NIL
...

36
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Symptoms of shock stall are
...
decrease in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of pressure
...
buffet, loss of control, and instability
...
compressibility effects, buffet and loss of control
...

buffet, loss of control, and instability
...

NIL
...

38
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Mach number is
...
the ratio of the aircrafts True Air Speed to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
...
the ratio of the aircrafts I
...
S to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
...
the ratio of the aircrafts True Air Speed to the speed of sound at sea level
...

the ratio of the aircrafts True Air Speed to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 19
...

40
...

Option A
...
when a shock wave forms at the leading edge
...
the Mach No
...

Option C
...
No
...

Correct Answer is
...
No
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Above the Critical Mach No
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

a nose down pitch
...

NIL
...

44
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What causes tuckunder?
...
Flap back effect
...
Shock stall
...
Aileron reversal
...

Shock stall
...

NIL
...

46
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
With an increase in altitude under I
...
A
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally
...
sonic
...
supersonic
...
subsonic
...

supersonic
...

NIL
...

49
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Speed of sound varies with
...
altitude
...
temperature
...
pressure
...

temperature
...

NIL
...

51
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Increased sweepback
...
improves tip stall characteristics
...
raises Mcrit
...
decreases stability
...

raises Mcrit
...

NIL
...

53
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic region
...
an all moving tailplane may be used
...
hydraulic powered elevators may be used
...
Frise ailerons may be used
...

an all moving tailplane may be used
...

NIL
...

55
...
No
...
remain the same
...
increase
...
decrease
...

decrease
...

NIL
...

56
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach
...
will
Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will
...
remain constant
...
increase
...
decrease
...

decrease
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 19
...

59
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Tuck-under is caused by
...
tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
...
tip stall on a swept wing aircraft
...
root stall on a swept wing aircraft
...

root stall on a swept wing aircraft
...

NIL
...

61
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will appear initially
...
at the leading edge
...
at the trailing edge
...
near the point of maximum curvature
...

near the point of maximum curvature
...

NIL
...

63
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
OR the centre of pressure initially moves
forward, then back
...

NIL
...
01c
...

Question Number
...

The angle of attack of a blade is the
...
angle between the spin axis and relative air flow
...
angle between the chord line and plane of rotation
...
angle between the chord line and relative airflow
...

angle between the chord line and relative airflow
...

NIL
...

2
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Lift generated by a blade is proportional to the
...
relative airflow and the pitch
...
aircraft airspeed and angle of attack
...
relative airflow and the angle of attack
...

aircraft airspeed and angle of attack
...

NIL
...

4
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

What damps vibrations on a helicopter?
...
Swashplate
...
Scissor levers
...
Bifilar damper
...

Bifilar damper
...

NIL
...

6
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

http://www
...
com/content/hseries/TM-1-1520-26523/css/TM-1-1520-265-23_104
...

7
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

When O
...
T increases, what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling?
...
Decrease
...
Increase
...
No effect
...

Decrease
...

As temperature increases, density decreases and aircraft performance decreases
...

Option A
...
pitch nose
Option C
...

Explanation
...


9
...

down with an increase in forward airspeed
...

up with an increase in forward in airspeed
...


Question Number
...
When a blade moves about the flapping hinge
...
the pitch angle of the blade always reduces
...
the drag forces on the blade change
...
the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack (AOA) changes
...

the drag forces on the blade change and the angle of attack (AOA) changes
...

NIL
...

11
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The forces which govern the coning angle are
...
lift and centrifugal force
...
thrust and centrifugal force
...
lift and thrust
...

lift and centrifugal force
...

NIL
...

13
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Assuming the phase lag of a rotor blade is 90 degree and the control advance angle is 15
degrees, then the pitch operating arm must be at the highest point of the swash plate:
...
90 degree ahead of the highest flapping position
...
75 degree ahead of the highest flapping position
...
105 degree ahead of the highest flapping position
...

75 degree ahead of the highest flapping position
...

NIL
...

15
...
Assuming the main rotor rotates anti
clockwise viewed from above, the helicopter will
...
descend, unless the pilot inches the throttle open
...
ascend, unless the pilot decreases rotor RPM
...
descend, unless the pilot applies more collective pitch
...

descend, unless the pilot inches the throttle open
...

NIL
...

16
...
It will tend to drift sideways to
...
port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the left side of the aircraft
...
starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted
...
port, if the tail rotor is mounted on the right side of the aircraft
...

starboard, whichever way the tail rotor is fitted
...

NIL
...

17
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
1-59
...

18
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
With the tail rotor pedals in neutral, the tail rotor blade pitch will be
...
positive
...
negative
...
neutral
...

positive
...

NIL
...

20
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Certain helicopters tend to tilt laterally when landing
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Ground cushion effect is produced by
...
recirculating air giving additional lift
...
increased pressure under the main rotor disc
...
increase in density above the fuselage
...

increased pressure under the main rotor disc
...

NIL
...

23
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by
...
flapping
...
dragging
...
centrifugal force
...

centrifugal force
...

Centrifugal force counteracts the droop of helicopter blades at low RPM
...

25
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A helicopter hovering 2m above the ground subject to a strong cross wind will
...
lose lift due to the removal of the ground cushion effect
...
increase lift due to ground cushion effect
...
lose lift due to recirculation
...

lose lift due to recirculation
...

NIL
...

27
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During an autorotative descent, rotor RPM will be
...
higher than in powered flight
...
lower than in powered flight
...
substantially the same as in powered flight
...

higher than in powered flight
...

NIL
...

29
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Autorotative force is the
...
component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane of rotation in opposition to drag
...
force required to turn in a hover
...
force the pilot must apply to the collective lever to obtain a controlled descent
...

component of the total reaction which acts forward in the plane of rotation in opposition to drag
...

NIL
...

31
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
If the main rotor of a helicopter rotates in an anti-clockwise direction when viewed from above,
and a hovering left turn is required, the following movements of the controls are selected:
...
Rudder pedal to the left, and decrease throttle
...
Rudder pedal to the left, and increase throttle
...
Rudder pedal to the right, and increase throttle
...

Rudder pedal to the left, and decrease throttle
...

NIL
...

33
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called
...
semi rigid rotor
...
fully articulated rotor
...
rigid rotor
...

semi rigid rotor
...

A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
...

Question Number
...
If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where, would a pitch input
be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, (90 degrees to what)?
...
In front of the lateral axis
...
Left of the longitudinal axis
...
Right of the longitudinal axis
...

Right of the longitudinal axis
...

Due to precession of the rotor disc, the input to tilt the disc backwards must be placed 90 degrees before, in
direction of motion of the disc
...

36
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Climbs with forward speed require less power than vertical climbs, because of
...
translational lift
...
increased inertia
...
forward momentum
...

translational lift
...

NIL
...

38
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The best design of a rotor blade is where the CofP
...
moves freely along the length of the blade
...
does not move
...
is insignificant
...

does not move
...

NIL
...

40
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The rotor cone is formed by
...
blade alignment
...
centrifugal force and lift
...
centrifugal force only
...

centrifugal force and lift
...

NIL
...

42
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving
...
one moving forward into relative airflow
...
highest blade
...
one moving in direction of relative air flow
...

one moving forward into relative airflow
...

NIL
...

44
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Static stability of a helicopter is
...
the stability of the helicopter when hovering
...
the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance
...
the tendency to oscillate until the neutral is achieved
...

the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance
...

NIL
...

46
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When moving from the hover to forward flight it is necessary to
...
increase the engine power
...
decrease the engine power
...
maintain constant engine power
...

increase the engine power
...

NIL
...

48
...
This is called
...
static droop
...
transient droop
...
under swing
...

transient droop
...

The Helicopter and How it Flies by John Fay Page 20/21
...
The change in stabilised RPM is referred to as static droop
...


Question Number
...
After a change in pitch of a rotor blade, the blade will be at maximum flap at
...
90°
...
0°
...
180°
...

90°
...

NIL
...

50
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...
42
...

51
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What principle does the delta 3 hinge use?
...
Triangular pitch change lever
...
Flapping actuators
...
Offset hinges
...

Offset hinges
...

NIL
...

53
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
With an increase in its angle of attack, the drag acting on a rotor blade
...
decreases
...
increases
...
remains constant
...

increases
...

NIL
...

55
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The bell stability augmentation system is based on
...
flapping hinges
...
offset hinges
...
gyroscopic forces
...

gyroscopic forces
...

NIL
...

57
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?
...
Going to the highest point
...
Increasing in lift
...
Increasing in drag
...

Increasing in lift
...

NIL
...

59
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Upwash on a helicopter would result in
...
decrease in lift
...
increase in lift without an increase in power
...
decrease in speed
...

increase in lift without an increase in power
...

Upwash increases angle of attack
...

61
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The difference between transient droop and static droop is
...
overswing
...
underswing
...
a hole in one
...

underswing
...

The Helicopter history, piloting and how it flies John Fay ISBN81-70002-030-1 Page No 21"
...

63
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The RPM of the rotor blades is constant, within small limits to
...
prevent blades over-speeding
...
prevent blades folding up during flight
...
reduce torque loading
...

prevent blades folding up during flight
...

NIL
...

65
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Relative airflow over a helicopter blade
...
increases at the tip
...
is unaffected by blade position
...
increases at the root
...

increases at the tip
...

NIL
...

67
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter, the helicopter would
...
continue to roll
...
come back to level flight
...
increases roll
...

come back to level flight
...

NIL
...

69
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which direction is the air flowing through the main rotor during autorotation?
...
Upwards
...
Parallel to the rotor chord line
...
Downwards
...

Upwards
...

NIL
...

71
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to
...
maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible, during forward flight
...
to reduce rotor head loads during translational flight
...
to stabilize the aircraft in the hover
...

maintain the aircraft in as near a horizontal attitude as possible, during forward flight
...

NIL
...

73
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In forward flight, the advancing blade would be expected to
...
lag
...
increase pitch
...
flap up
...

flap up
...

NIL
...

75
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If the blade angle of attack increases
...
lift increases only
...
lift and drag increases
...
drag increases only
...

lift and drag increases
...

NIL
...

77
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Vortex ring start requires
...
retreating blade stall
...
advancing blade stall
...
power on descent
...

power on descent
...

The helicopter and how it flies Page 117 by John Fay
...

79
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Tail rotor effects the helicopter in
...
pitch and roll
...
vertical axis
...
horizontal axis
...

vertical axis
...

NIL
...

81
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Helicopter rotor blades produce lift by
...
moving a small mass of air downwards slowly
...
moving a large mass of air downwards quickly
...
creating a lower pressure above the blade than below
...

creating a lower pressure above the blade than below
...

NIL
...

83
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...

Question Number
...
On a helicopter, rotor disc lift happens
...
180° later
...
90° later
...
immediately
...

immediately
...

NIL
...

85
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Lift in a helicopter is a result of
...
pitch * square root of speed
...
angle of attack * velocity squared
...
angle of attack * velocity squared and forward speed
...

angle of attack * velocity squared
...

NIL
...

87
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
When the rotor blade increases its angle of attack, the centre of pressure
...
does not move
...
moves rearwards
...
moves forward
...

does not move
...

NIL
...

89
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The ground effect is effective up to a height equalling
...
twice the diameter of the rotor disc
...
the length of the fuselage
...
the diameter of the rotor disc
...

the diameter of the rotor disc
...

NIL
...

91
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Rotor blade sailing is a problem at
...
low rotor RPM at engine shut down
...
normal rotor RPM in gusty conditions
...
high rotor RPM at engine start up
...

low rotor RPM at engine shut down
...

NIL
...

93
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During helicopter forward flight the retreating blade will tend to
...
flap down
...
no change
...
flap up
...

flap down
...

NIL
...

95
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?
...
Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior
...
Fineness ratio
...
Aspect ratio
...

Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior
...

NIL
...

97
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When an aerofoil stalls
...
lift and drag increase
...
lift decreases and drag increases
...
lift increases and drag decreases
...

lift decreases and drag increases
...

NIL
...

99
...
Increases
...
Remains constant
...
Decreases
...

Increases
...

NIL
...

100
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The blade stalling speed will
...
only change if the MTWA were changed
...
increase with an increase in helicopter weight
...
be unaffected by helicopter weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack
...

increase with an increase in helicopter weight
...

NIL
...

102
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When entering into a stable autorotative state, the main rotor RPM will initially
...
increase
...
decrease
...
be unaffected
...

decrease
...

NIL
...

104
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Helicopters in forward flight are usually
...
directionally stable
...
laterally stable
...
longitudinally stable
...

directionally stable
...

NIL
...

106
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In forward flight the relative air velocity at each blade
...
is greatest for the retreating blade
...
is equal at all blades due to compensation
...
is greatest for the advancing blade
...

is greatest for the advancing blade
...

NIL
...

108
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The ground cushion effect is apparent
...
in the hover only
...
in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground
...
on the ground only
...

in the hover and at low translational flight close to the ground
...

NIL
...

110
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A helicopter main rotor blade may be tapered from root to tip to
...
equalise lift along the blade
...
reduce induced drag
...
reduce the blade weight
...

equalise lift along the blade
...

NIL
...

112
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Translational drift is
...
the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally
...
the tendency for the aircraft to turn to port
...
the tendency for the aircraft to pitch nose up
...

the tendency for the aircraft to drift laterally
...

NIL
...

114
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When the rotor blade is flapping up, the angle of attack
...
remains the same as the pitch angle
...
is less than the pitch angle
...
is greater than the pitch angle
...

is less than the pitch angle
...

NIL
...

116
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The tropopause exists at about
...
18,000 feet
...
30,000 feet
...
36,000 feet
...

36,000 feet
...

NIL
...

118
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The centre of pressure of an aerofoil is that point on the cord line
...
which moves most, with changes in angle of attack, if the section is symmetrical
...
at which the highest pressure is said to act
...
at which the lift forces resultant is said to act
...

at which the lift forces resultant is said to act
...

NIL
...

120
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An advantage of the symmetrical section blades used on helicopters is that
...
the movement of the centre of pressure with changes of the angle of attack is greater than that of a fixed wing
...
the centre of pressure moves forward with changes in angle of attack
...
the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and centre of gravity coincide, providing stability
...

the position of the feather axis and the centre of pressure and centre of gravity coincide, providing
stability
...

NIL
...

122
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The aerofoil shape of a main rotor blade is symmetrical in order to make the blade have
...
the highest possible lift co-efficient when hovering
...
the best possible autorotative characteristics
...
a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in angle of attack
...

a relatively stable centre of pressure position with changes in angle of attack
...

NIL
...

124
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Disc loading is defined as the
...
ratio of gross weight to disc area
...
ratio of blade area to disc area
...
ratio of gross weight to total blade area
...

ratio of gross weight to disc area
...

NIL
...

126
...
What happens if a
loss of anti-torque device at cruise speed in flight?
...
Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right
...
Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to left
...
No appreciable change
...

Nose pitches up slightly + yaw to right
...

NIL
...

127
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A shrouded tail rotor
...
reduces need for cyclic feathering
...
gives control in pitch and yaw
...
has increased airflow so yaw can be controlled by the rudder
...

reduces need for cyclic feathering
...

NIL
...

129
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


13
...
Structures - General Concepts
...

1
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Eismin Page330
...

2
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Cargo compartment depressurised, cabin pressure caused floor to
collapse
...

Question Number
...

When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is
...
1/50 ohms
...
50 milliohms
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
8
...

4
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...

What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?
...
To provide a balance for CofG
...
To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor
...
To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
...

To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
...

The tail cone holds the stabilizers and tail rotors
...

6
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use
...
acid etch
...
solvent etch
...
alkaline etch
...

acid etch
...

Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash
...

8
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/6-20 PAra
...
1
...

9
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A cargo bay must have signs stating
...
maximum loadings
...
maximum dimensions
...
no hazardous cargo
...

maximum loadings
...

Usually, pallet size is fixed, but the weight is critical
...

11
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Composite materials are bonded by
...
copper wire
...
aluminium wire
...
special paint
...

special paint
...

CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3
...
4
...

13
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
It does not necessarily go through
the centre of the rotor disc, and the rotor shaft is not necessarily vertical
...

14
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
A
...
P A
...
6 (last sentence)
...

15
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Why is a wire H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?
...
Stringers
...
Frames
...
Bulkheads
...

Stringers
...

CAIPs A
...
2 para 3
...

Question Number
...
Damage tolerant design
...
allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure
...
allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance
...
is applied only to secondary structure
...

allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance
...

NIL
...

19
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/7-2 2
...

Question Number
...
In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?
...
Skin
...
Longerons
...
Stringers
...

Skin
...

A&P Mechanic Handbook Page 25-28
...

21
...

Option A
...
5 in
...

Option B
...
W
...

Option C
...
5 in
...

Correct Answer is
...
5 in
...

Explanation
...
E
...
3
...

Question Number
...
Paint remover substances
...
are not damaging to any aircraft parts
...
are damaging to some aircraft parts
...
should only be used once
...

are damaging to some aircraft parts
...

CAIPs B
...
1
...

23
...
Special paint
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/2-5 3
...
2
...

24
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Battery trays are
...
absorbent to soak up electrolyte
...
metal for earthing purposes
...
metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
...

metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems
...

Question Number
...
The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is
...
to provide external streamlining
...
to prevent corrosion
...
to seal the cabin
...

to seal the cabin
...

C
...
I
...
L/7-2 para
...
7 and http://www
...
com/content/aviation/14022/css/14022_156
...

Question Number
...
What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?
...
Drag Strut
...
Drag Wire
...
Shock Absorber
...

Drag Strut
...

NIL
...
tda-i
...
html
Question Number
...
What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the structure
that can be used as walls or partial walls?
...
Stringer
...
Bulkhead
...
Frame
...

Bulkhead
...

NIL
...

29
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the structure
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a
...
jury strut
...
tear stopper
...
shear tie
...

tear stopper
...

CAIPs A
...
4)
...

32
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Battery trays are
...
absorbent to soak up electrolyte
...
metal for earthing purposes
...
metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
...

metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems
...
Page 24
...

34
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
lasercom
...
htm
Question Number
...
The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are
...
20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%
...
15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%
...
15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%
...

15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%
...

B
...

Question Number
...
Slats, when stowed, make up part of the wing
...
leading edge upper surface
...
leading edge lower surface
...
trailing edge
...

leading edge upper surface
...

Mechanics of Flight AC Kermode Pages 117 and 118
...

37
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What are the types of true bonded joints?
...
Mechanical and cemented
...
Cemented and specific
...
Mechanical and specific
...

Mechanical and specific
...

NIL
...

39
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
With regard to extraneous spilt fluids
...
they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft
...
they may be harmful to the aircraft structure
...
they can be ignored, they provide extra protection
...

they may be harmful to the aircraft structure
...

NIL
...

41
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The life of the structure is counted by
...
flying hours
...
pressurization cycle
...
landings
...

pressurization cycle
...

NIL
...

43
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A semi-monocoque structure is one which has
...
a tubular internal structure fabric covered
...
an external load bearing skin with no internal load bearing structure
...
an external load bearing skin with internal load bearing structure
...

an external load bearing skin with internal load bearing structure
...

NIL
...

45
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Longitudinal members in a semi-monocoque fuselage supporting the skin between longerons are
called
...
ribs
...
stringers
...
frames
...

stringers
...

NIL
...

47
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Panels that are attached to the aircraft by quick release fasteners are:
...
secondary structure
...
tertiary structure
...
primary structure
...

tertiary structure
...

NIL
...

49
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Cantilever construction is structure supported at
...
each end
...
one end only
...
each end and in the centre
...

one end only
...

NIL
...

51
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A member taking a compression load is called a
...
beam
...
strut
...
cable
...

strut
...

NIL
...

53
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the normal form of construction of a spar?
...
Two webs separated by a boom
...
One boom mounted under a web
...
Two booms separated by a web
...

Two booms separated by a web
...

NIL
...

55
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?
...
Install critical stress panels or plates
...
Remove all optional equipment
...
Determine the fuel tanks are empty
...

Install critical stress panels or plates
...

NIL
...

57
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What load is a tie rod designed to accept?
...
Tensile
...
Bending
...
Torsion
...

Tensile
...

NIL
...

59
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Frame
...


Which of the following is primary structure?
...
Skin
...
Stringer
...

Skin
...

NIL
...

61
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the
...
longerons
...
skin
...
frames
...

skin
...

NIL
...

63
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Structure with built?in redundancy is called
...
double safe
...
safe life
...
failsafe
...

failsafe
...

NIL
...

65
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/7-2 2
...

Question Number
...
A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles, flying hours or
years, regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?
...
Condition monitored
...
Fail-safe
...
Safe-life
...

Safe-life
...

NIL
...

67
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Intercostals are
...
longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames
...
compression ribs in cantilever wings
...
vertical struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane
...

longitudinal fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames
...

NIL
...

69
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Bending stresses are a combination of
...
tension and shear stresses
...
tension and compression stresses
...
torsional and compression stresses
...

tension and compression stresses
...

NIL
...

71
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is
...
Notice 89
...
Notice 79
...
Notice 65
...

Notice 89
...

These AWNs are now transferred to CAP747
...

73
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
W
...

Question Number
...
If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be
...
aluminium alloy
...
plastic
...
stainless steel
...

stainless steel
...

NIL
...

75
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Symmetry checks should be carried out
...
in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks
...
on the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels
...
in the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels
...

in the hanger with the aircraft on jacks
...

CAAIPs Leaflet 6-5 para 2
...

77
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a
...
fail-safe design
...
safe-life design
...
monocoque design
...

fail-safe design
...

NIL
...

Option A
...


79
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates
...
shedding
...
sagging
...
hogging
...

sagging
...

NIL
...

81
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A redundant structure is
...
a safe-life structure
...
a failsafe structure
...
on-condition structure
...

a failsafe structure
...

NIL
...

83
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Option A
...


Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by
...
stringers
...
bulkheads
...

stringers
...

NIL
...

85
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?
...
Compression, Tension, Torsion, Stress
...
Compression, Torsion, Stress, Strain
...
Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear
...

Compression, Torsion, Tension, Shear
...

NIL
...

87
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An example of primary stress is
...
bending
...
shear
...
tension
...

tension
...

NIL
...

Option A
...


89
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward facing seat
...
This is to
...
to determine whether or not the ATD's head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to measure
the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC)
...
test the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity
...
to measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg
...

to determine whether or not the ATD's head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so to
measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC)
...

JAr25
...

13
...
Structures - General Concepts
...

1
...
I
...
F?
...
Shielding of all sensitive equipment
...
Bonding and insulation tests
...
Check of aircraft structure
...

Shielding of all sensitive equipment
...

The exact definition of H
...
R
...
But only interference from
outside sources
...
I
...
F By Gerald L
...

Question Number
...

Zone 320 under the ATA system is
...
vertical stabiliser
...
horizontal stabiliser
...
central fuselage
...

vertical stabiliser
...

Aircraft Maintenance and Repair Kroes/Watkins/Delp Page 22
...

3
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/2-5 3
...
2
...

4
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is
...
1 ohms
...
50 milliohms
...
1M - 100,000 ohms
...

50 milliohms
...

CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Table 1
...

6
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...

Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on H
...
R
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
I
...
F does not include electrostatic discharge (ESD)
...
Understanding H
...
R
...
Fuller
...

8
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
3
...
4
...

9
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is
...
zero
...
full scale deflection
...
centre scale
...

zero
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-6 Para
...
10
...


Question Number
...

Option A
...


Composite materials are bonded by
...
special paint
...
aluminium wire
...

special paint
...

CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3
...
4
...

12
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100 is the
...
right wing
...
left wing
...
door
...

left wing
...

Zone 500 is the left wing
...

14
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
3
...
2 and CAAIP's Leaflet 9-1, para
...
10
...

Question Number
...
For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
...
a thick metallic bonding strip
...
a corrugated bonding jumper
...
a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends
...

a corrugated bonding jumper
...

CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 Para
...
6
...

Question Number
...
What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be
subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system?
...
0
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq
...
surface area which ever is less
...

0
...
feet
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by
...
special conductive grease
...
conductive paint
...
bonding strips
...

conductive paint
...

CAIPs R
...
5
...

18
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Fibreglass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by
...
conductive paint
...
non conductive paint
...
earth primary conductors
...

earth primary conductors
...

CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 para 3
...


Question Number
...
The ground cable must be
...
single strand 18 A
...
G
...
copper stranded 0
...
cross sectional area
...
single strand copper wire 0
...
cross sectional area
...

single strand copper wire 0
...
cross sectional area
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-6 3
...
1 a (i)
...

21
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/7-2 fig 15
...

22
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/2-5 3
...
2
...

23
...
I
...
F installations?
...
Visual inspections
...
Insulation testing
...
CMC fault indications
...

Visual inspections
...

The exact definition of H
...
R
...
But only interference from
outside sources
...
I
...
F By Gerald L
...


Question Number
...
If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable, you must
...
splice the broken lead
...
replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger
...
defer the defect until correct spares are available
...

replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger
...

NIL
...

25
...

Option A
...
W
...

Option B
...
5inch wide by 26 A
...
G cable
...
0
...
W
...

Correct Answer is
...
25inch wide by 26 A
...
G cable
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-6 3
...

Question Number
...
What is the bonding value between parts of a secondary structure?
...
Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohms
...
1 ohm
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When using a bonding tester, you
...
use the 60ft lead for testing different points
...
use the 6ft lead for testing different points
...
use either leads for the testing
...

use the 6ft lead for testing different points
...

NIL
...

28
...
not bonded
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Secondary bonding is usually provided with
...
stranded copper 0
...

Option B
...
W
...

Option C
...
25 inch
...

18 A
...
G
...

CAAIPs Leaflet 9-1 3
...
1 (a) (ii)
...

30
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/7
...
2 Fig 15
...

31
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
M
...

Question Number
...
The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the
...
same potential by
...
earthing
...
bonding
...

bonding
...

NIL
...

33
...

Option A
...


Option B
...
25
...
22 SWG * 0
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
3
...

Question Number
...
345 inches
Option B
...
345 inches
Correct Answer is
...

NIL
...
Using the following: FS 345, RWS 45, where is this located?
...

back from the datum line, 45 inches from the longitudinal centre line of the right wing
...

345 inches back from the datum line, 45 inches from the longitudinal centre line of the right wing
...

35
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What are buttock lines?
...
Horizontal measurement lines
...
Measurements from the centre line
...
Vertical measurement lines
...

Measurements from the centre line
...

CAIPs A
...
2 Page 17 Para 6
...

Question Number
...
Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes, partially by
...
bonding
...
conductive paint
...
non-conductive paint
...

conductive paint
...

NIL
...

fastener
...


When attaching more than one jumper or ground lead terminal to structure with a single

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If earthing jumper leads terminate to a connector strain clamp, the expected resistance value
when carrying out a check should be
...
1
...

Option B
...
5 milliohms
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...
5 milliohms
...

NIL
...

40
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Wing stations are measured
...
outboard from the fuselage centreline
...
inboard from the wing upper surface
...
outboard from the wing root
...

outboard from the fuselage centreline
...

NIL
...

Option A
...


42
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Where is Zone 323?
...
Between front and rear spar
...
Tip of vertical stabiliser
...
Between rear spar and trailing edge
...

Between front and rear spar
...

Airbus A320 A
...
M 06-20-00-00 shows zone 323 as between the front and rear spar of the vertical stab
...

Question Number
...
The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in inches from
bottom of the fuselage is
...
water line
...
fuselage station
...
butt line
...

water line
...

NIL
...

45
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
nose
...


Lateral stations have station zero at the
...
centre line
...
left wing tip
...

centre line
...

NIL
...
03
...

Question Number
...

Autopilot servo brake is energised
...
to actuate off
...
to actuate on
...
at the same time as the clutch
...

to actuate off
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 142
...

2
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by
...
radio altimeters
...
pitch rate gyros
...
vertical accelerometers
...

radio altimeters
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 283
...

4
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

An automatic throttle, engaged in the E
...
R mode, will control
...
the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate
...
the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure
...
the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting
...

the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 286/288
...

6
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is
...
operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters
...
operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters
...
operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference
...

operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 69
...

8
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational
control and roll out guidance will have
...
a decision height depending upon the RVR
...
a decision height of about 50 feet
...
no decision height
...

no decision height
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 69
...

10
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
Stand-off errors on a localiser approach are washed out by
...
integrating course error
...
integrating deviation signal
...
differentiating deviation signal
...

integrating course error
...

Jepperson Avionics Fundamentals Page 355
...

12
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which modes are incompatible?
...
HDG + V/S HOLD
...
GLIDE SLOPE + ALTITUDE HOLD
...
VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
...

GLIDE SLOPE + ALTITUDE HOLD
...

Cannot have GLIDE SLOPE and Alt Hold at same time
...

14
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
FAIL PASSIVE means
...
system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autoland
...
system self monitors, failure does affect system
...
system self monitors, failure does not affect system
...

system self monitors, failure does affect system
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 281
...

16
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
CAIPs
...


The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in
...
JAR A
...
O
...
BCARs
...

JAR A
...
O
...

JAR A
...
O
...
jaa
...
html
Question Number
...
Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure
...
that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement
...
that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement
...
that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged
...

that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 105
...

19
...
M
...

Option A
...
P
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
P
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The Go Around mode is usually initiated by
...
pressing a button on the control wheel
...
making a selection on the mode control panel
...
pressing a button on thrust levers
...

pressing a button on thrust levers
...

Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 370
...

Question Number
...
On selection of the Turbulence Mode
...
the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced
...
the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe
...
the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation
...

the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 180
...

22
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When can the F
...
S be engaged with the autothrottle?
...
Only after take off
...
With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged
...
Only with the Flight Director selected
...

Only after take off
...

Only after take-off
...

24
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An autopilot P
...
C
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to
continue the approach to a landing is known as the
...
decision height
...
alert height
...
intercept height
...

decision height
...

Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 204
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
The ICAO weather category 3A is
...
operation down to 60 m and 800 m
...
operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference
...
operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m
...

operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett 4th Edition Page 279
...

28
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point
...
the localiser and glide path signals cross each other
...
where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal
...
where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals
...

the localiser and glide path signals cross each other
...

ICAO Annexe 10 Landing Aid Categories
...

than
...
1 * 10-8
...
1 * 10-6
...


The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
jaa
...
html Automatic Flight Control Pallett 4th
Edition Page 276/7
...

31
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is
...
mandatory
...
a matter of choice for the operator
...
dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed
...

dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed
...

JAR-A
...
O para 123 auto-throttle control
...

33
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
EHJ Pallett Page 277
...

34
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated
...
only when the autopilot is engaged
...
at any time
...
at any time after autoland has been engaged
...

at any time after autoland has been engaged
...

NIL
...

36
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
A
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will
...
increase speed and rotate nose up
...
rotate nose up
...
increase speed
...

increase speed and rotate nose up
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits
...


Question Number
...
VNAV can be selected
...
only if A/T selected
...
alone
...
only if A/P and F/D selected
...

only if A/T selected
...

FD not essential
...

39
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

a go-around is initiated
...

a go-around is initiated
...

NIL
...

40

...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to
...
assist with localiser tracking
...
assist with glideslope tracking
...
point the aircraft down the runway at touchdown
...

point the aircraft down the runway at touchdown
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 281, JAR A
...
O
...

42
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...
W
...

Question Number
...
The effective gain of the glide path receiver
...
is increased as the aircraft descends
...
remains constant as the aircraft descends
...
is decreased as the aircraft descends
...

is decreased as the aircraft descends
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 156
...

44
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
An autopilot with two separate power supplies is
...
fail operational
...
fail passive
...
fail redundant
...

NIL
Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
On touchdown, autopilot
...
drives the throttles forward
...
disconnects after a short time
...
remains engaged ready for Go Around
...

disconnects after a short time
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 286/290
...

47
...

Option A
...
H
...
After D
...

Option C
...
H
...

At D
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by
...
the area navigation system
...
the airfield marker beacon
...
the runway localiser
...

the runway localiser
...

NIL
...

49
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
A triplex system loses one channel
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
With a fail passive system, in the event of failure it will
...
produce a significant out of trim condition
...
ensure the aircraft can still land automatically
...
produce no significant out of trim condition
...

produce no significant out of trim condition
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 281
...

52
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
The two parameters used for category classification are
...
localiser and glideslope
...
decision height and runway visual range
...
radio height/runway visual range
...

decision height and runway visual range
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 279
...

54
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
CAT-3b allows
...
approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters
...
approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR
...
approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
...

approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 279
...

56
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?
...
No signal
...
Nose up bias
...
Nose down bias
...

Nose down bias
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 285/6
...

58
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 283
...

59
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Alert Height is when
...
an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
...
a decision of whether to land is made
...
an alert of the ground proximity is made
...

a decision of whether to land is made
...

NIL
...

61
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An aircraft will capture the autoland system at
...
3500 feet
...
1500 feet
...
2500 feet
...

1500 feet
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 284 fig 10
...

Question Number
...
An autopilot interlock circuit is to
...
disconnect the system if a fault appears
...
prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
...
both a & b
...

prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 100
...

64
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
In autopilot, the control column
...
does not move
...
moves in pitch and roll
...
moves in pitch
...

moves in pitch and roll
...

A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-47 (Parallel system)
...

Question Number
...
If on an ILS approach, Localiser signal is lost
...
aircraft moves in a circle
...
aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
...
aircraft continues descent with an accumulating drift
...

aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 185
...

67
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged
...
after reverse thrust is applied
...
after affixed period of the time after landing
...
manually after landing
...

after reverse thrust is applied
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 286
...

69
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in Localiser coupling?
...
Course error and Deviation
...
Heading ,Course error and Deviation
...
Heading and Deviation
...

Course error and Deviation
...

Jeppesen, Avionics Fundamentals Page 328
...

71
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is
prevented by
...
a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control
...
a lock on the cockpit control
...
synchros attached to the control
...

a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control
...

Automatic Flight Control
...

Question Number
...
An autopilot computer
...
is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS
...
is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR
...
is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS
...

is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR
...

Automatic Flight Control
...

Question Number
...
DH is based on
...
RVR transmitted by A
...
C
...
aircraft characteristics
...
experience of the crew
...

RVR transmitted by A
...
C
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 278
...

75
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Glideslope controls autopilot in
...
yaw
...
roll
...
pitch
...

pitch
...

Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 187
...

77
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
EHJ Pallett Page 152
...

78
...
L
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
02 degrees per microsecoond
...

79
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which of the following modes does an autopilot go through, in correct sequence?
...
Rollout, attitude, flare
...
Flare, attitude, rollout
...
Attitude, flare, rollout
...

Attitude, flare, rollout
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 284
...

81
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
F
...
S system
...
When reached a desired altitude
...

When reached a desired altitude
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 266
...

82
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is B-RNAV?
...
Indicates true airspeed
...
Ability to store 6 waypoints
...
Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint
...

Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint
...

See Module 11 Forum
...

84
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
M
...
D
...

Option C
...
D
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
F
...
S uses VOR and ILS (RA is not ground based)
...

85
...
L
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://nweb
...
edu/homepage/staff/tinman/tinman/avc227327/NAV/mls/sld007
...


Question Number
...
In M
...
S, the 12 bit preamble consists of
...
carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information
...
7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier
...
5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
...

5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
...

NIL
...

87
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
A triplex system loses one channel
...
pilot can continue with autoland
...
pilot must make a full manual approach and land
...
pilot can use auto approach
...

pilot can continue with autoland
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 282
...

89
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...


Question Number
...
The mach trim is initiated by
...
a PCU
...
the autopilot motor
...
an electric motor
...

the autopilot motor
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 231
...

91
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
Stand-off errors on localiser approach are washed out by
...
integrating deviation signals
...
differentiating deviation signals
...
integrating course error signals
...

integrating course error signals
...

NIL
...

93
...
Another failure will make the system
...
fail-passive
...
simplex
...
fail-operational
...

fail-passive
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems 6th Edition Harris Page 139, Automatic Flight
Control Pallett pg 282/3
...

94
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
On an autoland, during auto flare it will
...
reverse thrust
...
retard the throttle
...
control throttle for a I
...
S
...

retard the throttle
...

NIL
...

96
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Cat-1 autoland DH limits are
...
below 200 ft but not less than 100 feet
...
not less than 100 feet
...
not less than 200 feet
...

not less than 200 feet
...

ILS Category I (CAT I)
...
Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279
...

98
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A radio coupled approach is
...
in any order
...
localiser first, followed by glideslope
...
glideslope first, followed by localiser
...

localiser first, followed by glideslope
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 184-185
...

100
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel
...
for turn coordination
...
for turn command back-up
...
for yaw damping compensation
...

for turn coordination
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
4th Edition Page 121/122
...

102
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
During autoland, failure of one channel is detected
...
All channels will disconnect in triplex system
...
All channels will disconnect in dual-dual system
...
All channels will disconnect in duplex system
...

All channels will disconnect in duplex system
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 282
...

104
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During the flair mode, the autothrottle will
...
select reverse thrust
...
disconnect autothrottle
...
retard throttle to idle
...

retard throttle to idle
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 285
...

106
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
2
...

107
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Basic monitoring is a function of
...
signal summing
...
voting
...
signal comparison
...

signal comparison
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 282
...

109
...
This means it is
...
DC
...
AC
...
DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input
...

DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 148
...

110
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
On an ILS approach, what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
...
Radio deviation
...
Height Deviation
...
Course deviation
...

Radio deviation
...

NIL
...

112
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
2
...

113
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
F
...
S system
...

When reached a desired altitude
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 266
...

114
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
com
...
html
Question Number
...
Versine is used in which channel?
...
Roll
...
Yaw
...
Pitch
...

Pitch
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 144
...

116
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During an autopilot controlled turn
...
ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
...
ailerons and rudder will move
...
ailerons, rudder and THS will move
...

ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
...

NIL
...

118
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter, what effect will an
autopilot input have?
...
The cyclic lever will not move
...
The flight director bars only will move
...
The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input
...

The cyclic lever will not move
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems
...

Question Number
...
What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?
...
Trim tab position
...
Indicate the voltage activity in the servo amp
...
Control surface position
...

Indicate the voltage activity in the servo amp
...

NIL
...

121
...
L
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the glideslope frequency range?
...
108 - 112 GHertz
...
329 - 335 Mega Hertz
...
108 - 112 Mega Hertz
...

329 - 335 Mega Hertz
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...
Page 308
...

123
...
After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to
...
protect the servo motor
...
prevent control surface runaway
...
damp the system oscillation
...

prevent control surface runaway
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle
...

125
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is Localiser signal used?
...
Flare
...
Touchdown
...
Roll out
...

Roll out
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 285
...

Question Number
...
Autopilot will operate above what altitude?
...
750 feet
...
500 feet
...
1000 feet
...

500 feet
...

NIL
...

128
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses
...
VOR
...
glideslope
...
A
...
F
...

glideslope
...

NIL
...

130
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
F
...
S trims the horizontal stabilizer to eliminate the
elevator deflection load
...

131
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually
...
dependent on aircraft altitude
...
1
...
chosen as a compromise
...

dependent on aircraft altitude
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 156
...

133
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by
...
feedback from the control surface
...
feedback from the servo motor
...
use of a tachogenerator
...

use of a tachogenerator
...

utomatic FliAght Control by E
...
J
...

Question Number
...
In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?
...
During manual control only
...
During automatic control only
...
During either manual or automatic control
...

During either manual or automatic control
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 222 - 226
...

136
...
How
does it operate?
...
It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies
...
Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and
DOWN
...
It operates in conjunction with D
...
E at lower frequencies than ILS
...

Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP
and DOWN
...

Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224
...

137
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The components of an ILS are:
...
A localizer and the marker beacons
...
A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
...
A localizer and a glide slope
...

A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69
...

139
...
The aircraft will enter MCP SPD
mode when
...
APP switch is pressed
...
the aircraft receives the first ILS signal
...
the aircraft captures the glideslope
...

the aircraft captures the glideslope
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 288
...

140
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate
...
operation of the trim controls is required
...
autopilot need not be engaged
...
autopilot must be engaged
...

autopilot need not be engaged
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 213 - 218
...

142
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a triplex system, if an ILS receiver faILS before localizer capture
...
it reverts to cat II
...
there is no autoland
...
autoland Continues
...

autoland Continues
...

Manual of Avionics 3rd edition Kendal Page120 end of 2nd paragraph
...

144
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
How do the crew select decision height?
...
selecting a switch on the control panel
...
selected on the main altimeter
...
Selected on the radio altimeter display
...

Selected on the radio altimeter display
...

Powell Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 196
...

146
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The A
...
C
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How can ambiguity be avoided during the test of a microwave landing system?
...
Note scan cycle start time
...
Reverse the phases
...
TO/FRO
...

Note scan cycle start time
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by J Powell page 224
...

149
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The aircraft is programmed to leave the glideslope at
...
the decrab phase
...
300 feet
...
the start of flare
...

the start of flare
...

Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 285
...

151
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Go-around mode can be initiated
...
at any time
...
after glideslope capture
...
below 2000feet
...

below 2000feet
...

Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 290
...

153
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The integrity of an autopilot must be increased when the aircraft is flying at
...
higher speeds
...
lower speeds
...
approach and landing phases
...

approach and landing phases
...

Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 278
...

155
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An autoland is carried out in which sequence?
...
Glide Slope capture, Localiser capture, Attitude hold, Flare
...
Localiser capture, Glide Slope capture, Attitude hold, Flare
...
Localiser capture, Glide Slope capture, Flare, Attitude hold
...

Localiser capture, Glide Slope capture, Attitude hold, Flare
...

Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 285
...

157
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
L/dual system
...

duplex system
...

Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 282
...

158
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Glideslope gain programming is based on
...
radio altitude
...
altitude above MSL and radio altitude
...
pressure altitude
...

radio altitude
...


Automatic Flight control Pallett page 156
...

160
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
API trim pointers are fed by
...
an R
...
D
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
V
...
T
...

an L
...
D
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In autopilot with THS in motion, the
...
elevator is inhibited
...
Auto Trim is inhibited
...
Mach trim is inhibited
...

Auto Trim is inhibited
...

NIL
...

163
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The glideslope signal integrator
...
increases glideslope signal
...
maintains glideslope signal
...
decreases glideslope signal
...

decreases glideslope signal
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett page 187
...

165
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?
...
Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers
...
By deselecting auto-throttle first
...
It is not possible
...

Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers
...

NIL
...

167
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?
...
Within reach of the Captain
...
Within reach of the First Officer
...
Within reach of both pilots
...

Within reach of both pilots
...

NIL
...

169
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The autothrottle system at touchdown will
...
go to idle
...
apply reverse thrust
...
go to idle and disconnect
...

go to idle and disconnect
...

Pallett Automatic Flight Control Page 286
...

171
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...
F
...
S
Pallett pages 287,288 and Flight Instruments & A
...
C
...

Question Number
...
If radio deviation is fed only to the autopilot roll channel, what will happen?
...
Aircraft will drift from centreline
...
Aircraft will fly in circles
...
Aircraft will fly parallel to centreline
...

Aircraft will fly in circles
...

Automatic Flight Control EHJ Pallett Page 172
...

173
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the main operating principle of M
...
S?
...
Time difference between TO and FRO pulse
...
Signal strength (mV) difference between left and right beam
...
Phase shift between Tx and Rx
...

Time difference between TO and FRO pulse
...

NIL
...

175
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An AC tachogenerator stator has
...
two windings 90° apart
...
two windings 180° apart
...
three windings 120° apart
...

two windings 90° apart
...

NIL
...

177
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A servo tachogenerator feedback signal is required to
...
damp out oscillations of a control movement
...
assist the demand applied to servo-motor
...
ensure proportional control movement for a given command signal
...

ensure proportional control movement for a given command signal
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 88
...

179
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Option A
...
to produce
Option C
...


180
...

only a small pitch down signal
...

NIL
...


NIL
...

181
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In the electro pneumatic servo-motor using dual poppet valves and dual roll-fram actuator,
when there is zero command output from the autopilot servo amplifier
...
both valves will be open for an equal period of time
...
both roll fram actuators will fully retract
...
both valves will be closed
...

both valves will be open for an equal period of time
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 205
...

183
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When internal navigation control is used, the roll channel signals used are
...
beam deviation and course error
...
drift angle and cross track distance
...
cross track distance and track angle error
...

NIL
...

(If the aircraft is at altitude)
...

185
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Rate feedback signal in a rate/rate system
...
prevents oscillations of the control surfaces
...
indicates control surface feedback
...
provides proportional response to commanded inputs
...

prevents oscillations of the control surfaces
...

NIL
...

187
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An autopilot transfer valve
...
converts electrical power to hydraulic power
...
converts hydraulic power to electrical power
...
converts hydraulic power to electrical power and converts electrical power to hydraulic powe
...

converts electrical power to hydraulic power
...

NIL
...

189
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Speed information to the autothrottle is derived from
...
the IRS
...
the CADC
...
the D
...
E
...

the CADC
...

NIL
...

191
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
On replacement of an autopilot servo motor
...
position feedback must be checked
...
elevator and aileron must be checked
...
torque limiting settings must be checked
...

torque limiting settings must be checked
...

NIL
...

193
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An automatic disengagement of an autopilot will cause
...
an aural warning only
...
a red warning light to illuminate and an aural warning
...
a red warning light to illuminate
...

a red warning light to illuminate and an aural warning
...

NIL
...

195
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Automatic trimming starts on the detection of
...
standing load on the elevator
...
loss of servo input
...
loss of position feedback
...

standing load on the elevator
...

NIL
...

197
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An autopilot hardover runaway is caused by
...
loss of servo power supply
...
loss of clutch supply
...
loss of position feedback
...

loss of position feedback
...

NIL
...

199
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the
...
side of the controls away from the throttles
...
left of the control column
...
right of the control column
...

side of the controls away from the throttles
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 133
...

201
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
W
...

Question Number
...
For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is
...
mandatory
...
dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds
...
a matter of choice for the operator
...

dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds
...

JAR A
...
O Para 306 b
...

203
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?
...
Yaw
...
Pitch
...
Roll
...

Pitch
...

NIL
...

205
...
P
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
H
...
Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd paragraph
...

206
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


13
...
Communication/Navigation (ATA 23/24)
...

1
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...

A buffer amp on a transmitter is between
...
local oscillator and demodulator
...
modulator and power amp
...
local oscillator and modulator
...

local oscillator and modulator
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...


Question Number
...

Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 R
...
I
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

What is the power at pulse?
...
Pulsed power
...
Average power
...
Peak power
...

Peak power
...

NIL
...

5
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...

If radar pulse is reduced, there is
...
reduced relative range
...
increased relative range
...
no effect
...

no effect
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, Page 340
...


Question Number
...

If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be
...
160 ohm
...
80 ohm
...
0 ohm
...

80 ohm
...

Terminating a transmission line in its characteristic impedance makes a the transmission line look infinitely
long, and would therefore measure its characteristic impedance
...

8
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Page 191
...

9
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Emergency frequency is
...
123
...

Option B
...
5 Hertz
...
125
...

Correct Answer is
...
5 Hertz
...

JAR OPS 1
...
850
...


Question Number
...
How many satellites are required for G
...
S?
...
8
...
4
...
6 90 degree apart
...

4
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...

Question Number
...
121
...

Option A
...
H
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
H
...

Explanation
...
H
...
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13
...

13
...
1 Mega Hertz is what frequency?
...
VOR
...
V
...
F
...
ILS
...

VOR
...

112-118 Mega Hertz is VOR frequency
...
Jeppesen A&P
Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14
...

14
...
L
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
fiu
...
htm
Question Number
...
What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?
...
QDM
...
QDR
...
QDH
...

QDM
...

QDM, stands for 'query directional magnetic'
...

16
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/2-2 8
...
2
...

17
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
G0-around is armed when glideslope is captured or flaps are not
up
...

18
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/2-2 8
...
2
...

19
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Jeppesen Pages 320, 328
...

20
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
To know the valid data base on the F
...
S
...
call up the relevant page on the CDU
...
perform a BITE check
...
call up the relevant current status
...

call up the relevant page on the CDU
...

Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 386
...

22
...
F aerial cables?
...
75 ohms and 25 ohms
...
50 ohms
...
25 ohms
...

50 ohms
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 30
...


23
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The polythene coating on an H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
ILS marker beacon lights are
...
blue, white, green
...
green, blue, amber
...
blue, amber, white
...

blue, amber, white
...

Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 312
...

Question Number
...
111
...

Option A
...
F frequency
...
a VOR frequency
...
an ILS frequency
...

an ILS frequency
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 69 shows this as a localiser frequency
...

Question Number
...
The aviation distress frequency is
...
121
...

Option B
...
5 Mega Hertz
...
122
...

Correct Answer is
...
5 Mega Hertz
...

JAR OPS 1
...
850 c
...


Question Number
...
A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to
...
100 feet
...
2000 feet
...
2500 feet
...

2500 feet
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...

Question Number
...
112
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
D
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-14
...

30
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which of the following has an hyperbolic curve?
...
D
...
E
...
VOR
...
Loran C
...

Loran C
...

Loran C is a type of LF Navigation
...
Also Aircraft Radio Systems by
James Powell Page 101
...

32
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to
...
transport category aircraft only
...
aerial work and transport category aircraft
...
private aircraft
...

transport category aircraft only
...

ANO Schedule 4 Scale N
...

34
...
M
...
If the course knob is adjusted to
010 what happens to the pointer?
...
Moves left then hard right
...
Move left
...
Move right
...

Move right
...

NIL
...

35
...
H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause
...
poor channel selectivity
...
poor audio output
...
poor volume output
...

poor channel selectivity
...

Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 7
...

37
...
C
...
S transmits and receives on a frequency of
...
1030Mega Hertz and 1090Mega Hertz respectively
...
1090Mega Hertz and 1030Mega Hertz respectively
...
1090Mega Hertz
...

1030Mega Hertz and 1090Mega Hertz respectively
...

12 of An Introduction to T
...
A
...
eurocontrol
...
htm
...

38
...
D
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Powell Page 52
...

39
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
0 to 100 feet
...
from 0 to 2,500 feet
...

from 0 to 2,500 feet
...

The radio altimeter is operational from 0 - 2500 ft Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 223
...

40
...
C
...
S system?
...
1
...
2
...
3
...

2
...

Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 160
...


41
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Precipitation static is caused by
...
lightning strikes
...
skin to air particle collisions
...
H
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/2-2 para 2
...
4
...

44
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated on the Weather Radar by a
...
red colour
...
green colour
...
yellow colour
...

yellow colour
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 14-43 p691
...

46
...
H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
5
...
131
...

Correct Answer is
...
5
...

Jeppesen - Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Page 29
...

47
...
H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...


When the VOR reference and variable phases are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the
...
180° radial
...
275° radial
...
090° radial
...

090° radial
...

Jeppesen - Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Page 60
...


49
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Suppressor line is required for
...
T
...
A
...

Option B
...
C
...
S
...
A
...
C and D
...
E only
...

all L band equipments including T
...
A
...

Explanation
...
Powell Page 126
...

Option A
...
3 satellites
Option C
...

Explanation
...


51
...
P
...

and 2 ground based transmitters
...

and 1 ground based transmitter
...

http://www
...
com/gps/how1
...

Option A
...
4 satellites
Option C
...

Explanation
...


52
...
P
...

in 3 orbits
...

in 4 orbits
...

http://samadhi
...
nasa
...
html

Question Number
...
In ACARS, if an upcoming message is received
...
a selcal light along with a chime comes on
...
a designated light comes on
...
a chime sounds in the cockpit
...

a chime sounds in the cockpit
...

NIL
...
sasflightops
...
htm
Question Number
...
A hyperbolic system is
...
LORAN C
...
ILS
...
VOR
...

LORAN C
...

Loran C is a type of Omega Navigation
...


Question Number
...
In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?
...
Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second
...
Number of pulses per signal
...
Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
...

Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
...

NIL
...

56
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
High range resolution is obtained by
...
shorter pulse width
...
shorter beam width
...
high PRF
...

shorter pulse width
...

Aircraft Radio Systems
...

Question Number
...
In weather radar, short range targets are missed by
...
larger beam width
...
larger pulse width
...
larger frequency
...

larger pulse width
...

Aircraft Radio Systems
...

Question Number
...
If an aircraft is east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are
...
opposite phase
...
phase quadrature
...
in-phase
...

phase quadrature
...

Avionics Fundamentals
...


Question Number
...
In a radio altimeter system, if you decide to increase the T cable and R cable each by 3 inch the
total correction factor is
...
3 inch
...
9 inch
...
6 inch
...

9 inch
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 191
...

61
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
If two aircraft decide to issue the same Resolution Advisory for a potential conflict, which aircraft
changes the decision?
...
The one with the smaller address
...
The one with the higher address
...
Neither changes the decision
...

The one with the higher address
...

NIL
...
arinc
...
pdf
Question Number
...
G
...
S antenna is
...
circular polarized
...
vertically polarized
...
horizontally polarized
...

circular polarized
...

NIL
...
avionics
...
htm
Question Number
...
How many programs can a F
...
C store?
...
One current
...
Two
...

Option C
...
Both active
...

Two
...

Explanation
...
Boeing 757 chapter 34-61-00 page 201
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


65
...
P
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How does an I
...
S calculate velocity?
...
Double integration of accelerometers
...
Differentiation of laser gyro
...
Integration of accelerometers
...

Integration of accelerometers
...

Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 191
...

67
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Doppler flag comes on when it receives
...
excessive ground clutter
...
no signal
...
excess signals
...

no signal
...

NIL
...

69
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During testing of A
...
C altitude function, the pressure altimeter is set
...
sea level pressure
...
1013
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
25 mb
...

NIL
...

71
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Powell Page 135
...

72
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If you carry out a V
...
W
...
F system what should you do with the control
switch? Select it to
...
OFF
...
either USB or LSB
...
AM
...

AM
...

SSB transmissions require a modulating signal before any real power is transmitted (the carrier wave is
suppressed)
...
S
...
R
measurements
...

74
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the wavelength of C band radar?
...
17 m
...
3 cm
...
7 cm
...

7 cm
...

C Band is 4 - 8 cm
...
6cm
...

Question Number
...
If a VOR R
...
I indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the
TO/FROM indicator indicate?
...
Neither
...
TO
...
FROM
...

TO
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 61 R
...
I showing 000 implies that aircraft is on 180 radial
and selected course is 000
...

Question Number
...
What does the Radar contour button do?
...
Alter the transmitter power
...
Alter the video amplifier
...
Alter the beam shape
...

Alter the video amplifier
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell page 143/page 150 fig9
...
This changes
video amp output
...

78
...
How far away is the target?
...
12 miles
...
40 miles
...
25 miles
...

25 miles
...

1 nautical mile=12
...
36 = 25 Miles
...

79
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is
...
28feet
...
16feet
...
12feet
...

28ft
Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of
...
12bits
...
24bits
...
64bits
...

24bits
...

NIL
...

82
...

Option A
...
C
...
S
...
can be used for T
...
A
...


Option C
...
C
...
S on ILS approach only
...

can be used for T
...
A
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The audio select panel allows the crew to
...
transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others
...
receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others
...
transmit on one channel, listen on one
...

transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others
...

NIL
...

84
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider
...
power requirements
...
the diameter of cables
...
the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
...

the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 198
...

86
...

Option A
...
M
...

Option B
...
M
...

Option C
...
M
...

Correct Answer is
...
M
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is primary radar?
...
Radar that gives height and position
...
Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse
...
Land based
...

Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse
...

NIL
...

88
...
P
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Radio switches are normally
...
latched on R/T, latched on I/C
...
latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
...
sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
...

sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
...

I/C R/T switch is latched to I/C for normal conversation on the flight deck and sprung loaded for R/T so that
you don't continually transmit without intending to
...

90
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett, 4th Edition Page 183/4
...

91
...
C
...
S, with aircraft below 180feet
...
all traffic produces aural alert
...
system is disabled
...
no traffic will be shown
...

system is disabled
...

T
...
A
...
eurocontrol
...
htm on page 29, left
column, last paragraph, there is mention of aircraft when below 1,720 feet
...
C
...
S will assume the other aircraft is on the
ground and will inhibit advisories to it
...

92
...
C
...
S is selected
...
not available in cruise
...
by a switch, by pilot on selector panel
...
automatically
...

by a switch, by pilot on selector panel
...

NIL
...

93
...
Which are used?
...
s1, p1, p3, p4
...
s1, s2, p1, p2
...
F1, F2, F4, F5
...

s1, p1, p3, p4
...

NIL
...

94
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Back beam is captured
...
by manually selecting the back beam mode
...
by manually selecting the LNAV mode
...
this automatically trips the LNAV mode
...

by manually selecting the back beam mode
...

NIL
...

96
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
M
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
D
...
E reply pulses are 63MEGA HERTZ
...
lower
...
higher or lower
...
higher
...

higher or lower
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 105
...

98
...
H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
G
...
S sends L1 and L2
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
com/Briefs/Mar03/NPO30367
...

100
...
P
...
S derives warnings from
...
rad alt decrease
...
comparison of rad alt to barometric
...
approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold
...

rad alt decrease
...

NIL
...

101
...
R
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://digilander
...
it/andreatheone/irs
...

102
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Microwave landing systems are modulated with
...
Manchester code
...
phase drift keying
...
FM
...

phase drift keying
...

NIL
...
pct
...
htm
Question Number
...
A CVR is found to be unserviceable
...
flights must not continue after four days
...
flights must not continue after 72 hours
...
flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined
...

flights must not continue after 72 hours
...

JAA MEL Temporary Guidance Leaflet Number 26
...
Also cannot fly if combined CVR/FDR or no more than 8 flying hours
...

105
...
D
...
The R
...
I pointer indicates
...
30 degrees
...
60 degrees
...
90 degrees
...

90 degrees
...

NIL
...

106
...
P
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier, for good pulse shape,
should be
...
narrow and wide
...
wide and narrow
...
wide and wide
...

narrow and wide
...

NIL
...

108
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
White
...
What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?
...
Amber
...
Blue
...

Amber
...

Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals, Page 219 fig 14-2
...

110
...
P
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
af
...
htm
Question Number
...
The glideslope equipment operates in the
...
V
...
F band
...
H
...

Option C
...
H
...

Correct Answer is
...
H
...

Explanation
...
Eismin
...

Question Number
...
For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it
...
must be connected to the left side
...
can be connected to either side
...
must be connected to the right side
...

must be connected to the left side
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Fifth Edition Eismin Chap 13 page 271
...

113
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Laser gyros
...
do not have rotational parts
...
have rotational parts
...
have movable parts
...

do not have rotational parts
...

Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 99
...

115
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a Doppler VOR, the 30Hertz reference signal is
...
AM Modulated
...
FM Modulated
...
modulated with a 9960Hertz
...

AM Modulated
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 62
...


117
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Eismin
...

Question Number
...
On an H
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Page 32
...

119
...

Option A
...
S
...
R
...
stop moisture entering the wave guide
...
stop arcing between the wave guide
...

stop moisture entering the wave guide
...

NIL
...

120
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Eismin
...


Question Number
...
G
...
S Telemetry consists of
...
8 bits of preamble and position information
...
satellite position information
...
week number and time label
...

satellite position information
...

NIL
...

122
...
M
...

Option A
...
M
...


Option B
...
C
...
S is transmitting
...
the A
...
C transponder is transmitting
...

the D
...
E receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 106
...


123
...
What is the R
...
I displaying?
...
0°
...
180°
...
90°
...

180°
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 61
...


124
...
The aircraft would
...
continue on flying on the localizer
...
fly parallel to the localizer
...
drift of from the localizer on the same heading
...

fly parallel to the localizer
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 185
...

125
...
P
...
S
...
changes with barometric altitude
...
does not change
...
changes with radio altitude
...

changes with radio altitude
...

Avionic Fundamentals page 263
...

Option A
...
F
...
What frequency are VOR and ILS?
...
U
...
F
...
V
...
F
...

V
...
F
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 426
...

127
...
M
...

Option A
...
M
...

Option B
...
M
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
M
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
To carry out a database update on the F
...
S
...
insert new data via the CDU
...
use the database loader
...
insert a new EPROM
...

use the database loader
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 400
...

129
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


130
...
21 microseconds
...
17 microseconds
...
8 microseconds
...

8 microseconds
...

Mode A is 8 microseconds, but Mode C is 21 microseconds
...

131
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Page 154
...

132
...
How far away is the target?
...
25 miles
...
12 miles
...
40 miles
...

25 miles
...

1 nm round trip = 12
...
359 = 25 nm round trip approx
...

133
...
H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An R
...
I in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an A
...
F signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what
is the A
...
F pointer indicating?
...
30
...
60
...
90
...

60
...

NIL
...

136
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
F communications
...

H
...

Explanation
...
F COMM as 2-30 Mega Hertz
...

137
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?
...
Polarity sensitive AC
...
Either AC nor DC
...
Polarity sensitive DC
...

Polarity sensitive DC
...

NIL
...

139
...
N
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A
...
F is
...
Rho-Theta
...
Rho
...
Theta
...

Theta
...

Rho-Theta = Distance-Angle
...
D
...

Question Number
...
What is jitter used for in a D
...
E transmission?
...
To make an aircraft recognise a D
...
E in a quiet area
...
To make an installation recognise its own transmission
...
To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area
...

To make an installation recognise its own transmission
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell Page 106
...

142
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
com/docs/allabout
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


143
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
T
...
A
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
www
...
no/flynytt/download/TCAS_II_V7
...

145
...
M
...
D
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
www
...
int/sma/SPG%20Positions%20documents/spg13p20-NDB
...

146
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere
...
increase with the frequency
...
is not affected by frequency
...
decrease with frequency
...

increase with the frequency
...

NIL
...

148
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
ILS and VOR operate in which range
...
H
...

Option B
...
H
...

Option C
...
H
...

Correct Answer is
...
H
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Localiser signal modulation is
...
0
...

Option B
...
1
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...
2
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell
...

Question Number
...
F
...
C secondary flight-plan is selected
...
by calendar date monthly
...
in the air by the pilot
...
on the ground by the pilot
...

in the air by the pilot
...

F
...
C has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan
...

152
...
D
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Powell Page 4
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


153
...
M
...


Option C
...
M
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
EHJ Pallett Page 405
...

154
...

Option A
...
3 microseconds
...
8 microseconds
...
21 microseconds
...

20
...

Explanation
...
Page 123 Fig 8
...

Question Number
...
Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system?
...
Transfer the code displayed by the A
...
C-600 into binary
...
Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table
...
Read the altitude directly from A
...
C-600 panel
...

Read the altitude directly from A
...
C-600 panel
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell
...

Question Number
...
The components of an ILS are
...
a localizer and the marker beacons
...
a localizer and a glide slope
...
a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
...

a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 69
...

157
...
P
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
com/gps/how1
...

158
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If the 90 Hertz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the deviation indicator will
show
...
fly right
...
fly left
...
the flag
...

fly right
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 73
...

160
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost when following the FD commands
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Flight director on GLIDE SLOPE capture, the pitch integration is
...
to maintain Glide Slope signal
...
to increase Glide Slope signal
...
to decrease Glide Slope signal
...

to increase Glide Slope signal
...

NIL
...

163
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When an AM carrier is modulated, its bandwidth
...
decreases
...
increases
...
remains the same
...

decreases
...

NIL
...

165
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
The purpose being
to tell the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i
...

Question Number
...
In audio clipping
...
there is no
Option B
...
vowels are
Correct Answer is
...

NIL
...

strengthened relative to the remaining signal
...

vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
...
cbcintl
...
htm

Question Number
...
How can it be verified if F
...
C update is correct?
...
BITE
...
Dataplate on the F
...
C
...
F
...
C via CDU
...

F
...
C via CDU
...

NIL
...

168
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Powell, page 38/39
...

169
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected to a dipole of 120 ohms
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
G
...
W
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
P
...
S has only connection to the RA
...

Question Number
...
In a large transport aircraft, to check V
...
W
...
F system with a long aerial feeder, the
V
...
W
...

Option A
...
T
...

Option B
...
T
...

Option C
...
T
...

Correct Answer is
...
T
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
With no
...
F system transmitting the interlock circuit
...
allows no
...
F to transmit and receive
...
allows no
...
F to receive only
...
does not allow no
...

Correct Answer is
...
2 to transmit or receive
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, Pg31
...

Option A
...


174
...
The R
...
I indicates
...
180°
...
0°
...

180°
...

Avionics Fundamentals by Jepperson Pg 188 Fig 10-36
...

175
...
M
...
What is the slant range to the station?
...
96 nautical miles
...
104 nautical miles
...
100 nautical miles
...

96 nautical miles
...

Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 106 R=(T-50)/12
...

Question Number
...
If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off-track is the aircraft?
...
10°
...
5°
...
2
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
What frequency range does ACARS operate in?
...
2-30 Mega Hertz
...
118-136 Mega Hertz
...
4-5 GHertz
...

118-136 Mega Hertz
...

NIL
...

178
...
N
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An FM signal would have its sideband signals
...
below the carrier signal
...
above the carrier signal
...
No sidebands present
...

No sidebands present
...

NIL
...

180
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A radar antenna is facing left
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Standing waves in a co-axial feeder cable are proportional to
...
transmitter power output
...
length of the cable
...
degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna
...

degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna
...

NIL
...

183
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach, the aircraft must fly
...
nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach
...
up
...
down
...

down
...

NIL
...

185
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?
...
1025 - 1150 Kilo Hertz
...
190 - 1759 Kilo Hertz
...
108
...
95 Mega Hertz
...

190 - 1759 Kilo Hertz
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13
...

187
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic
indicator (D
...
R
...
I)?
...
From VOR only
...
From A
...
F only
...
From VOR and A
...
F systems
...

From VOR and A
...
F systems
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 197
...

189
...

Option A
...
H
...

Option B
...
F
...
V
...
F and U
...
F
...

V
...
F and U
...
F
...

NIL
...
tpub
...
htm
Question Number
...
Directional property is exhibited by
...
the sense antenna
...
the loop antenna
...
both the sense and loop antenna
...

the loop antenna
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 46
...

191
...
F) communication system?
...
To select the transmission/reception frequency in the H
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://dspace
...
pipex
...
html
Question Number
...
In an A
...
F system, the goniometer
...
effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna
...
alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense antenna
...
combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense antenna
...

effectively simulates a rotating loop antenna
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 46
...

193
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
com/radar
...

194
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System
(G
...
W
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In CVOR, 9960 c/s AM subcarrier is used in the
...
REF phase
...
VAR phase
...
station identification Morse code
...

REF phase
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 59/62
...

197
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation operates on
...
a frequency of 1030 Mega Hertz and pulse spacing depending on mode of interrogation
...
a frequency of 1030 Mega Hertz and pulse spacing of 20
...


Option C
...
3 microseconds
...

a frequency of 1030 Mega Hertz and pulse spacing depending on mode of interrogation
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 123
...

199
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If the 90 Hertz tone predominates in a localizer receiver, the deviation indicator will show
...
fly right
...
the flag
...
fly left
...

fly right
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by James Powell page 73
...

201
...

Option A
...
5
...
0
...

Option C
...
2
...

0
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


π
...
The aerial element of a V
...
F comms transmitter/receiver should have a midband length of
...
π/2
...
π/4
...

π/4
...

NIL
...


203
...
H
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An isotropic radiator
...
has a cardioid shaped polar diagram
...
has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern
...
is an end fed π/2 unipole
...

has a perfectly spherical radiation pattern
...

NIL
...

205
...
S
...
R of a V
...
F system with a forward power of 100W and a reflected power of 4W will
be
...
2:1
...
2
...

Option C
...
5:1
...

1
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When an A
...
F antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselage to the top, the wiring of
the bearing indicator must be
...
reverse R1+S2 connections
...
reverse R1+R2 and S1+S2 connections
...
reverse R1+R2 connections only
...

reverse R1+R2 connections only
...

NIL
...

207
...
R
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
(Note: in b, it is the system which is strapdown, not the
accelerometers, in c, azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved)
...

208
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
C
...
S mode S all call interrogation
...

contain the aircraft identity
...

NIL
...

209
...
N
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
(Note: the mass is suspended in fluid, and is
not remote)
...

210
...
P
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for
...
communications between the aircraft and base
...
as part of the passenger telephone system
...
reporting defects on the aircraft automatically
...

communications between the aircraft and base
...

NIL
...

212
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In a CVR system, hot mics
...
is a term applied to all the aircraft's mics
...
are as selected by the boom/mic switches
...
get their power supply from the selected T* via the r/t switch
...

is a term applied to all the aircraft's mics
...

NIL
...

214
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
36 (remember to subtract teh 50 microseconds hol time)
...

215
...
N
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A laser dither mechanism ensures that
...
optical backscatter does not cause the contra rotating beams to lock together
...
the contra rotating beams are synchronised together
...
that the two contra rotating beams are each at different frequencies
...

optical backscatter does not cause the contra rotating beams to lock together
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 272
...

217
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
www
...
com/support/ downloads/tutorials/ARINCTutorial
...

218
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
What is the millivolt deflection per dot on ILS/VOR?
...
75/75
...
25/75
...
25/5
...

75/75
...

Avionics fundamentals Page 200
...

Question Number
...
An accelerometer in an I
...
S must be able to detect accelerations down to
...
10 to -6 g
...
10 to -3 g
...
10 to -2 g
...

10 to -6 g
...

NIL
...

221
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Bandwidth of H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
5Kilo Hertz
...
3Kilo Hertz
...

3Kilo Hertz
...

NIL
...

223
...
P
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
What manoeuvre does T
...
A
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What are the shapes of traffic shown on a T
...
A
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
V
...
F frequency is
...
108 - 118 Mega Hertz
...
108 - 136 Mega Hertz
...
108 - 112 Mega Hertz
...

108 - 136 Mega Hertz
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 295
...

227
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Channel 3 on a CVR records
...
first officer
...
captain
...
flightdeck
...

flightdeck
...


JAR 25
...


Question Number
...
D
...
E works on the frequency of
...
V
...
F
...
U
...
F
...
H
...

Correct Answer is
...
H
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
T
...
A
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A radial is referenced
...
from a beacon
...
to a VOR
...
on a compass
...

from a beacon
...

NIL
...

232
...
D
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is set
...
by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality is obtained
...
in the workshop
...
by the manufacturer
...

by the manufacturer
...

Aircraft Radio Systems by J Powell page 144
...

234
...
N
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
www
...
com/global_positioning_system
...

235
...
D
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A receiver having an IF of 465 Kilo Hertz
...
, which of the following
signals could interact with the L O second harmonics to produce a receiver output if no RF amplifier was used?
...
465 Kilo Hertz
...
3995 Kilo Hertz
...
2230 Kilo Hertz
...

3995 Kilo Hertz
...

To work out possible 2nd channels use (2xlo)+(IF of Receiver given) in this case (2*1765)+465=3995 or (2
* 835)+465=2135 Aircraft Radio Systems Powell pages 1 - 17
...

237
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
17
...

238
...

Option A
...
H
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
2 page 4
...

239
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
M
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
M
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The plane of polarisation is defined as the plane in which the
...
H field lies
...
E and H fields are parallel
...
E field lies
...

E field lies
...

NIL
...

241
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
How is the next database on the F
...
C activated?
...
Automatically by due date
...
Manually, on the ground
...
Manually in the air
...

Manually in the air
...

NIL
...


243
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
5
...


Question Number
...
The distance over which V
...
F communication may be achieved is limited
...
by local weather conditions in the troposphere
...
to conditions in the ionosphere
...
to radio line of sight
...

to radio line of sight
...

Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 20
...

245
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Crystals operate reliably at fundamental frequencies up to
...
100 Mega Hertz
...
1000 Mega Hertz
...
30 Mega Hertz
...

30 Mega Hertz
...

NIL
...

247
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
At its resonant frequency, a parallel tuned circuit
...
offers minimum impedance
...
has minimum voltage developed across it
...
has maximum circulating currents
...

has maximum circulating currents
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Page 288
...

249
...
M
...

Option A
...
D
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
D
...

Correct Answer is
...
D
...


Explanation
...
The word CDU is displayed on the CDU and it can be selected to
adifferent source
...

250
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which of the following has the best frequency stability?
...
Hartley
...
Colpitts
...
Tuned collector tuned base
...

Colpitts
...

NIL
...

252
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Time base of PPI display is
...
a ramp
...
a square wave
...
a trapezoid
...

a trapezoid
...


Aircraft Radio Systems Powell page 150
...

255
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Single Side Band filters are
...
6Kilo Hertz
...
1Kilo Hertz
...
3Kilo Hertz
...

3Kilo Hertz
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 32, 34
...

258
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
com/content/neets/14189/css/14189_56
...

259
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A receiver having an IF of 465Hertz
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
With a Vertical Gyro simulated to aircraft right bank, the scanner in left hand position will
...
tilt up
...
tilt down
...
tilt right
...

tilt down
...

NIL
...

262
...
C
...
S system would be
...
Mode A
...
Mode S
...
Mode C
...

Mode S
...

Introduction to T
...
A
...

Question Number
...
G
...
S
...
uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
...
uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
...
uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
...

uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
...

NIL
...

264
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Three RF amplifiers of 10dB and 10Kilo Hertz are in cascade, what is the output?
...
30dB and 10Kilo Hertz
...
30dB and 1000Kilo Hertz
...
10dB and 1000Kilo Hertz
...

30dB and 10Kilo Hertz
...

NIL
...

266
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Voice clipping
...
decreases the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice signals
...
maintains an average depth of modulation
...
increases the depth of modulation
...

decreases the depth of modulation of high amplitude voice signals
...

Manual of Avionics page 51\52
...

268
...
R
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed
...


Question Number
...
A padder capacitor has most efficiency at
...
the lowest frequency of the LO
...
the middle frequency of the LO
...
the highest frequency of the LO
...

the lowest frequency of the LO
...

NIL
...
midnightscience
...
htm
Question Number
...
What manoeuvre does T
...
A
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
C
...
S version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection)
...

271
...
T
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What are the shapes of traffic shown on a T
...
A
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
C
...
S version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection)
...

273
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The laser ring gyro
...
does not have gimbal and rotating parts
...
does not have gimbal
...
has a stabilized platform
...

does not have gimbal and rotating parts
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics 5th Ed
...

Question Number
...
Radio waves are said to have line-of-sight propagation
...
from about 10 Mega Hertz upwards
...
above about 100Mega Hertz
...
not below 1000Mega Hertz
...

above about 100Mega Hertz
...

NIL
...


276
...
H
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A valid interrogation will
...
disable the R, disable the encoder and enable the D
...
E
...
enable the R, disable the encoder and disable the D
...
E
...
disable the R, enable the encoder and disable the D
...
E
...

disable the R, enable the encoder and disable the D
...
E
...

Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 128
...

278
...

Option A
...
T
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
On an F
...
CS CDU, you can select
...
VOR
...
N1 Thrust
...
VNAV
...

VNAV
...

NIL
...

280
...
S
...
R on a Radio Transmission line?
...
2:1
...
1:1
...
1
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is Track angle?
...
The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft ground track
...
The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft longitudinal axis
...
The angle between true heading (HGD) and ground track
...

The angle, measured clockwise, between true north and the aircraft ground track
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 254
...

282
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://users
...
gr/ath/mpang/whatis
...

283
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
With an A
...
C code of 0600 selected, the pulses transmitted are
...
B0 and B6
...
B2 and B4
...
B1 and B5
...

B2 and B4
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 123 Table 8
...

Question Number
...
What is needed for RHO-RHO navigation?
...
1 VOR and 1 D
...
E signals
...
1 VOR/D
...
E signal
...
2 D
...
E signals
...

2 D
...
E signals
...

NIL
...

286
...
Master frequency is
...
same as slave
...
higher than slave
...
lower than slave
...

same as slave
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 101
...

287
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Single Side Band filters are
...
3Kilo Hertz
...
1Kilo Hertz
...
6Kilo Hertz
...

3Kilo Hertz
...

NIL
...

289
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
com/content/neets/14189/css/14189_56
...

290
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
5 Nautical miles
...
30 Nautical miles
...

25 Nautical miles
...

1 nm round trip = 12
...
36 = 25 nm round trip approx
...

291
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The noise factor of a receiver whose I/P signal to noise ratio is 15:1 and O/P signal to noise ratio
is 12:1 is
...
1
...

Option B
...
5
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...
25
...

NIL
...

293
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The frequency spectrum of noise is
...
infinitely wide
...
restricted to the audio band
...
restricted to the H
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Man made noise causes interference
...
only in the LF band
...
mainly below 12Mega Hertz
...
mainly above 12Mega Hertz
...

mainly below 12Mega Hertz
...

NIL
...

296
...

Option A
...
P
...
S
...
Mode S transponder
...
nav management systems
...

G
...
W
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A Mode S equipped aircraft has its Resolution Advisory area breached by a Mode A only equipped
aircraft
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
C
...
S Flight crew and Engineer training notes
...

298
...

Option A
...
27ms
...
6 pulses each 270 microseconds long
...
8 pulses each 270 microseconds long
...

8 pulses each 270 microseconds long
...

Principles of Avionics Helfrick page 68
...

299
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Transmission line losses have what effect on V
...
W
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
S
...
R is as a result of incorrect termination of the load
...
V
...
W
...


Question Number
...
G
...
S L1 and L2 signals are
...
1 Kilo Hertz send rate
...
Bi-phase 50 bit/sec
...
10
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Voice/Range switch selected to range
...
allows NAV/A
...
F and D
...
E through cancelling out voice spectrum
...
allows NAV/A
...
F and cancels out voice spectrum
...
allows noise spectrum through
...

allows NAV/A
...
F and cancels out voice spectrum
...

NIL
...

303
...
D
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
With AGC inoperative, sensitivity will be effected to signals with
...
both high and low signal strength
...
low signal strength
...
high signal strength
...

low signal strength
...

NIL
...

305
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
there is no
Option B
...
vowels are
Correct Answer is
...

NIL
...
In audio clipping
...

strengthened relative to the remaining signal
...

vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
...
cbcintl
...
htm

Question Number
...
For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbal would be moved to correct the pitch
movement?
...
Lateral
...
Longitudinal
...
Normal
...

Longitudinal
...

NIL
...

308
...

Option A
...
F
...
V
...
F
...
LF
...

LF
...

NIL
...
idirect
...
html
Question Number
...
A Mode S transponder makes a Mode A/C only call, what is the length of the P2 pulse?
...
2 μs
...
1
...

Option C
...
8 μs
...

0
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
There are two F
...
S installed on the aircraft
...
M
...

Option A
...
M
...

Option B
...
M
...

Option C
...
M
...

Correct Answer is
...
M
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A
...
C
...
B
...

Option A
...
8 μs wide
...
1
...

Option C
...
45 μs wide
...

0
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
What is the time between the F2 framing pulse and the SPI?
...
1
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
35 μs
...

4
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Range resolution in a radar system is improved by a
...
narrower beam
...
shorter pulses
...
longer pulses
...

shorter pulses
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 141
...

314
...
C
...
S warnings?
...
Stall warning
...
Gear position warning
...
Resolution Advisories
...

Stall warning
...

NIL
...

Option A
...
3 μs
...
21
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
What is the time between the framing pulses F1 and F2 in an A
...
C
...
B
...


20
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of
...
75 Mega Hertz
...
50 Mega Hertz
...
100 Mega Hertz
...

75 Mega Hertz
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 311
...

317
...
N
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to
...
the ILS system
...
the R
...
I
...
the C D I offset bar
...

the C D I offset bar
...

NIL
...

319
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The term 'oblate spheroid' refers to
...
flattening at the polar regions
...
tilting of the earth about its axis
...
the network of meridians imagined to cover the earth
...

flattening at the polar regions
...

Aircraft Instrument & Integrated System - Pallett Chap - 10 Pg 250
...

321
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
To obtain an accurate G
...
S fix, the G
...
S receiver must be in line of sight of
...
6 satellites
...
4 satellites
...
3 satellites
...

4 satellites
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 319
...
http://www
...
com/gps/basics
...

Question Number
...
Glideslope frequency is
...
108
...

Option B
...
6-335
...

Option C
...
10-119
...


Correct Answer is
...
6-335
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad
...
system?
...
G
...
W
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
C
...
S
...

G
...
W
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A
...
F operation range is at
...
H
...

Option B
...
H
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A
...
F system sense aerial is
...
null
...
rotating figure of 8
...
null cardioid
...

null cardioid
...

NIL
...

327
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The G
...
S satellite system consists of
...
20 satellites and 5 standby satellite
...
24 satellites and 1 standby satellites
...
21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
...

21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 318 and 319
...

329
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
F
...
C provides data envelope for
...
G
...
W
...

Option B
...
C
...
S
...
A
...
C
...

G
...
W
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The alignment position of an IR Mode Selector unit enables
...
sets the start co-ordinates
...
the accelerometers to correct the axes
...
gyro run up, levelling, azimuth determination
...

gyro run up, levelling, azimuth determination
...


Aircraft instrument's and Integrated systems Pallett pages 279, 280
...

332
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
M
...

Correct Answer is
...
M
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The Janus beam is for
...
to compensate for attitude changes
...
working out acceleration
...
levelling the aerial
...

to compensate for attitude changes
...

To compensate for pitch attitude change
...


Question Number
...
Sonar Locator Beacons are a
...
ANO Requirement
...
ICAO Requirement
...
Company Requirement
...

ICAO Requirement
...

NIL
...

335
...
N
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Aircraft is 9000feet
...
H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
25 * square root of altitude
...

337
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Before processing an AM USB signal, what needs to be done?
...
Carrier removed
...
Carrier added
...
Carrier integrated
...

Carrier added
...

NIL
...

339
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
When performing an A
...
F bearing check, commercial stations
...
can be used
...
can not be used as they are the wrong frequency
...
can be used in addition to A
...
F nav stations
...

can be used in addition to A
...
F nav stations
...

Providing their position on the map is known
...

341
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 110
...

342
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Confirmation of the correct operation of an A
...
C transponder ident function, is verified by
...
use of a ramp test set
...
telephone contact with the receiving A
...
C cell
...
observation of the A
...
C transponder control head ident light
...

use of a ramp test set
...

Modern Aviation Electronics Helfric Page 281
...

344
...
R
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In an I
...
S system, the accelerometer is double integrated for
...
acceleration
...
distance
...
velocity
...

distance
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 257 Fig 10
...

Question Number
...
During an ACARS transmission, a 1 is generated by
...
a 2400 Hertz waveform
...
the -ve half of a 1200Hertz waveform
...
the +ve half of a 1200Hertz waveform
...

the -ve half of a 1200Hertz waveform
...

NIL
...

347
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
RNAV uses which inputs?
...
IRS, A
...
F, VOR, D
...
E
...
A
...
F, G
...
S, VOR
...
IRS, VOR, G
...
S, D
...
E
...

IRS, VOR, G
...
S, D
...
E
...

NIL
...

349
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A
...
C altitude readout is
...
series transmitted with octal encoding
...
parallel transmitted with binary encoding
...
series transmitted with binary encoding
...

series transmitted with binary encoding
...

The mode C altitude is binary and serial
...

351
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How does a receiver know whether an ILS or a VOR frequency has been selected?
...
A different receiver is used
...
Manually selected by operator
...
Logic control circuit in control unit
...

Logic control circuit in control unit
...

NIL
...

353
...
What is the difference in depth of modulation
(DDM)?
...
0
...

Option B
...
2
...
zero
...

zero
...

http://en
...
org/wiki/Instrument_Landing_System
...

354
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
H
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...
H
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Peak power = 10kW, duty cycle =2
...
What is mean power?
Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The flight data recorder underwater locator beacon operates at a frequency of thirty seven kilohertz
...
and is able to withstand immersion to twenty thousand metres
...
with an operational time of at least thirty days
...
and has a maximum detection range of two thousand to four thousand feet
...

with an operational time of at least thirty days
...

CAA Airworthiness spec no 12, para 2 e/f
...
M
...

Question Number
...
A resistance-capacitor low pass filter will have
...
both resistance and capacitor in parallel
...
the out put taken across the capacitor
...
the output taken across the resistor
...

the out put taken across the capacitor
...

NIL
...

358
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
8 satellites
Option B
...
4 satellites
Correct Answer is
...

NIL
...
How many satellites comprise the space segment for G
...
S?
...

in four orbits
...

4 satellites in six orbits
...

360
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Peak power is 10kW, pulse period 6?s and duty cycle is 2
...
What is the average power
transmitted?
...
14
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
4 ms then the power o/p is ransmitted for only
6 micro seconds in every 2400 microseconds or in other words one 400th of a second
...

Question Number
...
In a triple RAD ALT installation on a large aircraft, interference is prevented by
...
varying the modulating frequency of each system
...
by using a different PRF for each system using PIN Programming
...
changing the antenna orientation with phased signal control
...

varying the modulating frequency of each system
...

Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 199
...

364
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Data communication between the aircraft and the operational control centre is possible through
...
ACARS system
...
satcom system
...
selcal system
...

ACARS system
...

NIL
...

366
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In an interrogator Mode S addressing format when does the first sync phase reversal occur?
...
2
...

Option B
...
25 µ seconds after P2
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...
75 µ seconds after P2
...


NIL
...

369
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When the pilot depresses the IDENT button, where does the ident pulse appear?
...
0
...

Option B
...
6 µ seconds after the P2 pulse
...
4
...

Correct Answer is
...
35 µ seconds after the last frame pulse
...

NIL
...

371
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which of the following navigation system is not a hyperbolic navigation system?
...
Doppler
...
VLF omega
...
Loran C
...

Doppler
...

NIL
...

373
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The pulse repetition frequency (PRF) should be
...
low for long ranges
...
low for short ranges
...
high for long ranges
...

low for long ranges
...

NIL
...

375
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
G
...
S consists of 24 orbiting satellites located
...
in a 5000 miles high orbit
...
in a 10900 miles high orbit
...
in a 8800 miles high orbit
...

in a 10900 miles high orbit
...

NIL
...

377
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A selcal signal transmits
...
two pair of tones - one pair after the other
...
four tones continuously
...
a pair of tones continuously
...

two pair of tones - one pair after the other
...

NIL
...

379
...
1 Mega Hertz is used by
...
VOR
...
ILS glideslope
...
ILS localiser
...

ILS localiser
...

NIL
...

380
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The impedance of an H
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
On an R
...
I, the input to the A
...
F pointer is fed via
...
a matching unit
...
a differential synchro
...
a synchro
...

a synchro
...

NIL
...

383
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A V
...
F comm blade aerial has a length of
...
a quarter wavelength
...
a half wavelength
...
a full wavelength
...

a quarter wavelength
...

NIL
...

385
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
At resonance in a series tuned circuit the impedance is
...
high
...
reactive
...
low
...

low
...

NIL
...

387
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the time taken for one radar statute mile?
...
11
...

Option B
...
36 µs
...
10
...

Correct Answer is
...
36 µs
...

12
...

Question Number
...
What is the main cause of standing waves in waveguide?
...
The velocity of propagation is too high
...
The frequency transmitted is too high
...
Mismatch of impedance
...

Mismatch of impedance
...

NIL
...

390
...
This can cause
...
at least one C pulse
...
C1 and C4 to be received pulses together
...
all C pulses to be received together
...

at least one C pulse
...

NIL
...

391
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In the OBS, the printing report system is activated
...
automatically
...
either manually or automatically
...
manually
...

either manually or automatically
...

NIL
...

393
...
5 per second pulse in the first half of the slot represents
...
the start of the preamble
...
a logic zero
...
a logic one
...

a logic one
...

NIL
...

394
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a universal all-call transponder interrogation P2 is radiated by the
...
omnidirectional aerial
...
directional aerial
...
horizontal dipole
...

omnidirectional aerial
...

NIL
...

396
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
1030 Mega
Option B
...
1090 Mega
Correct Answer is
...

NIL
...
T
...
A
...

Hertz
...

Hertz
...


Question Number
...
T
...
A
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a radio altimeter installation, the aerial spacing between aerials must be
...
12 feet
...
8 feet
...
10 feet
...

8 feet
...

NIL
...

400
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A Class 3 fault reporting failure
...
may have an operational consequence
...
does not have an operational consequence but may do if a second failure occurs
...
has no consequences on aircraft safety
...

has no consequences on aircraft safety
...

NIL
...

402
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A signal at 120 Mega Hertz freq will normally propagate by means of
...
ground waves
...
sky waves
...
space waves
...

space waves
...

NIL
...

404
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a vertically polarized electromagnetic wave
...
the electric field vectors are vertical
...
both electric and magnetic are vertical
...
the magnetic field vectors are vertical
...

the electric field vectors are vertical
...

NIL
...

406
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must
...
insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS
...
insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS
...
set the altitude to be fed into the INS
...

insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 82
...


408
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to
...
10 power -2 g
...
10 power -3 g
...
10 power -6 g
...

10 power -6 g
...

NIL
...

410
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by
...
two successive integrations
...
a differential followed by an integration
...
a single integration
...

two successive integrations
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 81
...

412
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a
...
linear spring
...
force balance system
...
pendulous suspension
...

force balance system
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 76
...

414
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to
...
prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
...
provide attitude reference
...
stop the gyros from toppling
...

prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 77
...

416
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Earth rate is approximately
...
15 degrees per hour
...
84 degrees per hour
...
5 degrees per hour
...

15 degrees per hour
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 37
...

418
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use
...
a pitch gimbal
...
three gimbals
...
four gimbals
...

four gimbals
...

NIL
...

420
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of
...
84
...

Option B
...
4 seconds
...
8
...

Correct Answer is
...
4 minutes
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 86
...

422
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When in manual mode, the C
...
U
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The output of an I
...
S can be fed to
...
vertical speed indicators
...
altimeters
...
attitude indicators
...

attitude indicators
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 85
...

425
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A basic I
...
S
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Using I
...
S
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What must be entered in to the I
...
S
...

Option A
...
T
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Selection of the I
...
S Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to Attitude REF is made
...
when attitude information is lost
...
when navigation information is lost
...
to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays
...

when navigation information is lost
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 85
...

430
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays
...
difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track
...
distance perpendicular from the selected track
...
difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track
...

difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 88
...

432
...
N
...

Option A
...
A
...

Option B
...
A
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Centripetal error compensation is achieved by
...
the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis
...
an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error
...
allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate
...

an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error
...

NIL
...

434
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If the battery faILS on the ground (I
...
S System)
...
a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
...
an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
...
a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds
...

a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 85
...

436
...
R
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the
...
V
...
F comm system
...
flight director computer
...
V
...
F nav system
...

V
...
F nav system
...

NIL
...

438
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or Localiser modes is displayed by the
...
selected course counter
...
difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading
...
difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading
...

difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading
...

NIL
...

440
...

Option A
...
M
...

Option B
...
H
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
H
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is
...
90 Hertz
...
90 KILO HERTZ
...
150 Hertz
...

90 Hertz
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 181, Figure
...
6 and Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, Page 72, top of
L/H column
...

442
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the
...
150 Hertz modulation sector
...
90 Hertz modulation sector
...
equi-signal sector
...

equi-signal sector
...

NIL
...

444
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The glideslope transmitter is located
...
adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway
...
at the approach end of the runway
...
at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway
...

adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 181 (bottom of the page) and Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page
72, Figure
...
5
...

446
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, page 71 and Avionics Fundamentals, Jeppesen, page 206
...

447
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The glideslope equipment operates in the
...
V
...
F band
...
U
...
F band
...
H
...

Correct Answer is
...
H
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The localiser equipment operates in the
...
V
...
F band
...
H
...

Option C
...
H
...

Correct Answer is
...
H
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing
...
the phase of one 30 Hertz modulation with that of a 9960 Hertz modulation
...
the amplitude of two 30 Hertz modulations
...
the phase of two 30 Hertz modulations
...

the phase of two 30 Hertz modulations
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 59 and 60 and Radio Aids, R
...
Underdown and David Cockburn Page
72
...

451
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
e
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?
...
114
...

Option B
...
9 Mega Hertz
...
127
...

Correct Answer is
...
3 Mega Hertz
...

Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 58 All frequencies between 112
...
95 Mega Hertz (High Power
VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108
...
95 Mega Hertz (Terminal VORs)
...

453
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Most radio aerial masts are
...
not bonded
...
bonded
...
insulated from the fuselage
...

bonded
...

NIL
...

455
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The middle marker modulation is keyed with
...
dots
...
alternate dots and dashes
...
Nothing
...

alternate dots and dashes
...

NIL
...

457
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is
...
7 miles
...
3 miles
...
3500 feet
...

3500 feet
...

NIL
...
avionicswest
...
htm
Question Number
...
Marker information is usually provided to the pilot
...
visually
...
aurally
...
both visually and aurally
...

both visually and aurally
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311
...


460
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Incompatible Flight Director modes are
...
altitude hold and ILS
...
VOR and glidepath
...
VRU and compass
...

altitude hold and ILS
...

NIL
...

462
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is
...
VOR
...
they both have the same sensitivity
...
ILS
...

ILS
...

NIL
...

464
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?
...
Frequency discriminator in receiver
...
Discriminator on control panel
...
Trigger pulse from ground station
...

Frequency discriminator in receiver
...

NIL
...

466
...

Option A
...
H
...

Option B
...
H
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
H
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have
...
a decision height of 50feet
...
a decision height depending on RVR
...
no decision height
...

a decision height of 50feet
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279
...

468
...
T
...

Option A
...
M
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
M
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During operation of a twin H
...

Option A
...
F system can transmit but not receive
...
both systems can be operated simultaneously
...
#1 H
...

Correct Answer is
...
F system operation is inhibited during #2 operation
...

NIL
...

Option A
...
2210 Mega
Option C
...

Explanation
...


470
...
M
...

Hertz
...

Hertz
...


Question Number
...
Function of A
...
F & VOR and D
...
E in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon
is;
...
the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon
...
None of above
...
the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon
...

the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and
beacon
...

NIL
...

472
...

Option A
...
M
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
M
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway
threshold by
...
700 feet
...
7 feet
...
70 feet
...

700 feet
...

Avionics Fundamentals Page 200
...

474
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?
...
The aerial becomes inductively reactive
...
The aerial becomes inductively capacitive
...
The aerial becomes capacitively reactive
...

The aerial becomes inductively reactive
...

NIL
...

476
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Most aerials are
...
made from non-conductive material
...
bonded
...
not bonded
...

bonded
...

NIL
...


478
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Laser gyros have
...
no rotating parts
...
moving parts
...
rotating parts
...

no rotating parts
...

A laser gyro has moving parts (dither motor vibrates) but not rotating parts
...

480
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Flight management control system (F
...
CS) utilises
...
VOR, A
...
F, D
...
E
...
ILS, VOR, A
...
F
...
ILS, D
...
E, ADC,
...

ILS, D
...
E, ADC,
...

F
...
CS does not normally utilise A
...
F
...

482
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How many data bases are required in an F
...
S system?
...
3 (one is used for redundancy)
...
2
...
1
...

2
...

NIL
...

484
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is Mode 1 & 2 of G
...
W
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use
...
VLF
...
V
...
F
...
H
...

Correct Answer is
...
F
...

NIL
...
05
...

Question Number
...

A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the
...
cells begin to gas freely
...
SG and voltage remain constant for specified period
...
SG reaches 1
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
4
...


Question Number
...

The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant
...
voltage
...
current
...
power
...

current
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-5 Para 4
...

Question Number
...

When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be done?
...
Left open circuit
...
Terminals shorted
...
Resistor placed across terminals
...

Terminals shorted
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 61
...

4
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

If, on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?
...
Electrical systems shut down
...
No effect
...
Battery is disconnected from charge circuit
...

No effect
...

If the generator is functional, switching the battery switch to OFF isolates the battery bus bar and prevents
the battery charging
...

7
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

A fuse-type current limiter
...
limits current flow to a load
...
opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded
...
can be used as a radio suppressor
...

opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded
...

See Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 112, or, Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin
Page 99
...

Question Number
...

When a load is shed from a busbar, the
...
busbar voltage increases
...
busbar voltage decreases
...
current consumption from the bar decreases
...

current consumption from the bar decreases
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, Page 241
...

Question Number
...

others
...
must be BCA
...
is unimportant
...
must be synchronised prior to paralleling
...

is unimportant
...

Phase relationship is unimportant in an unparalleled system (although answer b says it will be paralleled,
thereby changing the question???)
...

12
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Generators are
always controlled by adjusting the field strength
...

13
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft
...
allow to stabilise for one hour
...
carry out a capacity test
...
take the temperature of the electrolyte
...

take the temperature of the electrolyte
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-1
...

Option A
...


15
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Over-voltage protection circuits are activated
...
before the over voltage limit is exceeded
...
dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage
...
after a fixed time delay
...

dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 119
...

17
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://homepages
...
net/~paul
...
html
Question Number
...
Differential protection in a generating system
...
detects voltage difference between source and load
...
uses the volts coil to trip the GCR
...
detects current difference between source and load
...

detects current difference between source and load
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121
...

19
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
To flash a generator field the
...
generator rotates but is not on line
...
generator must be stationary
...
generator is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage
...

generator must be stationary
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 4
...

21
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The ground interlock pins are numbered
...
E and F
...
C and N
...
A and B
...

E and F
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page
...

23
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In a vibrator type voltage regulator
...
parallel with the field
...
the resistor is in series with the field
...
in series with the voltage coil
...

the resistor is in series with the field
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett 3rd Edition Page 11
...
Eismin Page
199
...

25
...
This can be
done
...
the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench
...
at the manufacturers only
...
with the generator fitted to the aircraft
...

the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench
...

Generator brushes are never bedded in on aircraft because an engine driven genny has too high an rpm and
the brushes would glaze the commutator and render the genny unusable
...

26
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
SG = mass/volume
...

27
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
All cells must be checked
...


28
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
A
...
P E
...
L/1-3 para 4
...

29
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by
...
underfrequency
...
undervoltage
...
overcurrent
...

undervoltage
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 120
...

31
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent
...
voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits
...
large circulating currents developing
...
overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
...

overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 52
...

33
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for
...
differential current protection
...
negative sequence protection
...
overload protection
...

differential current protection
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 121
...

35
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Sparking in a generator would be caused by
...
brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis
...
low spring tension
...
bedding of brushes
...

low spring tension
...

Sparking can be caused by low spring tension
...

37
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit?
...
Short the terminals together
...
Leave the terminals open circuit
...
Put a set resistance across the terminals
...

Leave the terminals open circuit
...

The secondary of a transformer should always be open circuit or on load (except for a current transformer,
which should be shorted)
...

39
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://homepages
...
net/~paul
...
html
Question Number
...
Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will
...
disconnect all power to the main busbar
...
shut down the APU
...
isolate the battery from the main busbar
...

isolate the battery from the main busbar
...

The Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar, allowing it to be charged from
the generator(s)
...

41
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field
...
uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output
...
uses a current coil in parallel with generator output
...
uses a voltage coil in series with generator output
...

uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin page 199-200
...

43
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by
...
an hydraulically actuated swash plate
...
an IDG
...
a CSD
...

an hydraulically actuated swash plate
...

NIL
...

45
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Trip signals for a GCR are
...
underfrequency and overcurrent
...
differential protection and undervoltage
...
overfrequency and undervoltage
...

differential protection and undervoltage
...

NIL
...


47
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with
...
PVC
...
Nomex
...
Teflon
...

Teflon
...

This is probably referring to the Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by Eismin 5th
Edition Page 69
...
11
...


Question Number
...
A heat gun should be operated at
...
100°C below the specified
...
100°C above the specified
...
the specified temperature
...

the specified temperature
...

A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature, or 100°C (approx) above the heatshrink
temperature
...

50
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Over-voltage condition trips the generator
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, page 203
...

52
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Circulating currents is caused by unbalanced
...
AC and DC generators
...
DC generators
...
AC generators
...

AC generators
...

Balancing' refers to three phase generators
...

Question Number
...
A permanent magnet should have
...
low retentivity, high coercivity
...
low retentivity, low coercivity
...
high retentivity, low coercivity
...

high retentivity, low coercivity
...

A permanent magnet should have a low coercivity (so it is easy to magnetise) and high retentivity (so it is
difficult to demagnetise)
...

55
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?
...
The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode
...
The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery
...
The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted
...

The battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode
...

B737 switches to trickle charge
...
32 for
charger disconnect system
...

57
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A CSD is monitored for
...
low temperature and high oil pressure
...
high temperature and high oil pressure
...
high temperature and low oil pressure
...

high temperature and low oil pressure
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett third Edition Page
...

Question Number
...


Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by
...
excessive electrical loading
...
low charge current
...
high charge current
...

excessive electrical loading
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett 3rd Edition page 21
...

60
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
IDG output voltage
...
voltage is regulated by GCU
...
voltage is regulated by IDG
...
does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant
...

voltage is regulated by GCU
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...

Question Number
...
On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?
...
On the GCU
...
In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel
...
By means of a remote trimmer
...

By means of a remote trimmer
...

Adjusted with a remote trimmer
...


63
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In a modern aircraft, power distribution of generators are controlled by
...
PCDU (power control distribution unit)
...
BPCU
...
SPCU
...

BPCU
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...
Page 241
...

65
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120 VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its
secondary
...

Option A
...
2 A
...
0
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
2 A
...

NIL
...

67
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ
...
is not allowed
...
is permitted
...
is only allowed in the shop
...

is not allowed
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-3 Para 6
...


Question Number
...
In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading
...
It needs topping up
...
It is defective
...
It must be replaced
...

It must be replaced
...

NIL
...

70
...
What time duration would the
battery be expected to power essential equipment?
...
Forever
...
30 minutes
...
60 minutes
...

30 minutes
...

A
...
N 81 para 3
...
2 - now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 4
...

71
...
These are used for
...
a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket
...
the interlock circuit
...
ground handling bus
...

the interlock circuit
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 290
...

72
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery
...
subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell
...
measure the discharge time
...
subject the battery to load and check the voltage
...

measure the discharge time
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-3 4
...
6 and 4
...

Question Number
...
Circulating currents are associated with
...
AC and DC generators in parallel
...
AC generators in parallel
...
DC generators in parallel
...

AC generators in parallel
...

NIL
...


75
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
3
...

Question Number
...
A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause
...
only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
...
the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled
...
one generator always comes on line before the other
...

the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled
...

NIL
...

77
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When removing the load from a current transformer
...
short the terminals
...
place a resistor across each terminal
...
leave the terminals open
...

short the terminals
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett Page 61
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


79
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Pitot tubes are heated by
...
AC
...
DC
...
AC or DC
...

AC or DC
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett 3rd edition Page 32
...

81
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Paralleling is used for
...
AC and DC electrical generators
...
DC electrical generators only
...
AC electrical generators only
...

AC and DC electrical generators
...

NIL
...

Option A
...
Chapter 31
Option C
...

Explanation
...


83
...

Section 31
...

Section 21
...


Question Number
...
In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is
...
in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length
...
in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
...
in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
...

in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-2 3
...

Question Number
...
Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is
...
144 degrees C
...
144 degrees F
...
71 degrees F
...

144 degrees F
...

NIL
...

86
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is
...
fluctuating
...
stationary
...
pulse width modulating
...

stationary
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-2 3
...
1
...

88
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
3
...

Question Number
...
A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by
...
voltage coil
...
voltage and current coil
...
current coil
...

voltage and current coil
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 16, 17, 18
...

90
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Inductive reactive load causes
...
no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
...
increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
...
increase in torque only
...

no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
...

NIL
...

92
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Differential protection in an AC system protects against
...
line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
...
short circuits
...
a reverse current flowing from the battery
...

short circuits
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems
...

Question Number
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
...
rotating at Nsync
...

stationary
...

NIL
...

95
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is
...
energise the bus tie relay
...
activation of the time delay circuit
...
deactivation of the field regulatory TRs
...

activation of the time delay circuit
...

NIL
...

97
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they are connected in
...
series
...
either parallel or series and switched between as an option
...
parallel
...

either parallel or series and switched between as an option
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems
...


Question Number
...
What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?
...
Positive to external power relay
...
Ground or earth
...
Positive to battery relay
...

Positive to external power relay
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems
...

Question Number
...
How is RAT driven?
...
Compressor
...
Fan
...
Airstream
...

Airstream
...

Ram Air Turbine
...

101
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?
...
Fluctuations in the terminal voltage
...
Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
...
Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
...

Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 23
...

103
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery?
...
The outside temperature
...
Charge state of the battery
...
Electrolyte temperature
...

Electrolyte temperature
...

NIL
...

105
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in
...
increased torque and reduced speed
...
reduced torque and increased speed
...
increased torque and speed
...

increased torque and speed
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 138 (reduces Back EMF)
...

107
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?
...
Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit
...
To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection
...
To help plug location/fit
...

To prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection
...

The short prongs are for DC only
...

Question Number
...
A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a
...
voltage regulating coil in series
...
voltage regulating coil in parallel
...
current regulation coil in series
...

current regulation coil in series
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems
...


Question Number
...
What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?
...
To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay
...
To speed up the operation
...
To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil
...

To prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil
...

The diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off
...

111
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
com/search?q=define:Eddy+Currents
Question Number
...
neutral
...
negative
...
The small pins in the power connector plug are
...
positive
...

positive
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 70
...

113
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to
...
provide interconnection between the generator load busbars
...
supply essential services
...
provide a means of monitoring the load
...

provide interconnection between the generator load busbars
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 81
...

115
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...

Question Number
...
A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for
...
load monitoring
...
differential protection
...
phase sequence monitoring
...

differential protection
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 121
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


117
...
What is the output voltage?
...
460 V
...

460 V
...

An old Module 3 question
...

118
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Although Zener diodes can be used (back-to-back) to protect equipment from
voltage spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with voltage regulation
...

119
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

However, a DC generator is rated in KW only
...

120
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in
...
series
...
parallel
...
either parallel or series and switched between as an option
...

either parallel or series and switched between as an option
...

Option is available on some aircraft e
...
Shorts Skyvan (please report other examples you know of)
...

122
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
Load shedding allows
...
more voltage to the busbar
...
less current to the busbar
...
more current to the busbar
...

less current to the busbar
...

Load shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant)
...

124
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?
...
Variable AC
...
Pulse width modulated DC
...
Slightly variable DC
...

Pulse width modulated DC
...

A voltage regulator has two outputs, one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a sistorised
regulator) and one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load)
...


Question Number
...
If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by
...
constant current
...
constant current until a predetermined limit when it
...
automatically switches to constant voltage constant voltage
...

constant voltage
...

NIL
...

127
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
5
...

Question Number
...
Chapter 31
Option B
...
Chapter 24
Correct Answer is
...

NIL
...
Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
...

Section 31
...

Chapter 24 Section 31
...

129
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
1
...

Option A
...


130
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is
...
pulse width modulating
...
stationary
...
fluctuating
...

stationary
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-2
...

132
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
3
...

Question Number
...
Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by
...
voltage coil
...
voltage and current coil
...
current coil
...

voltage and current coil
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems by Pallett page 70/71 fig 4
...

Question Number
...
Increasing the real load primarily
...
decreases output voltage
...
decreases frequency
...
increases output voltage and increases frequency
...

increases output voltage and increases frequency
...

NIL
...

135
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a generator system, a stability winding is used
...
to control output current
...
in series with the field to prevent oscillations
...
to prevent voltage overshoot
...

to prevent voltage overshoot
...

E
...
L/1-2 3
...
5 (d)
...

137
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?
...
Under-frequency
...
Under-current
...
Under-volt
...

Under-frequency
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 120
...

139
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?
...
Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Differential protection in an AC system protects against
...
line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
...
A reverse current flowing from the battery
...
short circuits
...

line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
...

NIL
...

142
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
One of the main purposes of a CSD is to
...
maintain constant load on the generator
...
prevent engine overload
...
enable generators to be paralleled
...

enable generators to be paralleled
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett page 37
...

144
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that
the
...
phase sequence detection circuit has operated
...
bus tie interlock is inoperative
...
CSD drives shaft had sheared
...

CSD drives shaft had sheared
...

NIL
...

146
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the
charger switched off automatically?
...
When the alternators are fully loaded
...
When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting
...
When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system
...

When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting
...

NIL
...

148
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...


Question Number
...
When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset
...
after the fault has been cleared
...
by cycling the generator switch
...
on the ground only
...

on the ground only
...

NIL
...

150
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When loads are shed from a busbar automatically
...
bus bar current rises
...
bus bar voltage rises
...
bus bar current decreases
...

bus bar current decreases
...

NIL
...

152
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
electrolyte
Option B
...
charge
...

Explanation
...


153
...

level
...

charge
...

154
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During a system overload, load sharing will first affect
...
first officers transfer bus
...
galley services
...
IFE
...

galley services
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics (Fifth Edition), Eismin, page 241
...

156
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
5 kVA
...
63 kVA
...

7
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that
the
...
phase sequence detection circuit has operated
...
CSD drive shaft has sheared
...
bus tie interlock is inoperative
...

CSD drive shaft has sheared
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics (Fifth Edition), Eismin, Page 221
...

158
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
...
real power from the generator that does work
...
apparent power from the generator that does work
...
reactive power from the generator that does work
...

real power from the generator that does work
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics (Fifth Edition), Eismin, page 90
...

160
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Aircraft generators are connected in
...
series to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other
...
series to the busbar, parallel to the load and the loads parallel to each other
...
parallel to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other
...

series to the busbar, series to the load and the loads parallel to each other
...

Aircraft Electricity and electronics, (Fifth edition), Eismin, page 235, figure 12-4
...

162
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The generator warning light will come on when
...
voltage is too high
...
voltage is above battery voltage
...
voltage is below battery voltage
...

voltage is below battery voltage
...

NIL
...

164
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The economy coil on a relay
...
reduces current required to hold closed
...
reduces current required to close
...
makes it cheaper to make
...

reduces current required to hold closed
...

NIL
...

166
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
2
...

167
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The current consumed by a DC starter motor will
...
increase as the engine speed increases
...
decrease as the engine speed increases
...
remain constant
...

decrease as the engine speed increases
...

Decreases due to the back EMF as engine speed increases
...

169
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a split bus power distribution system
...
power is split between 115 V AC and 28 V DC
...
generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus
...
each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation
...

each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation
...

NIL
...

171
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken into account?
...
Electrolyte temperature
...
Battery charge
...
Ambient temperature
...

Electrolyte temperature
...

E
...
L/1-1 4
...
4
...

173
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system
...
modifies generator drive speed
...
modifies generator field excitation voltage
...
modifies generator field excitation current
...

modifies generator field excitation current
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 49
...

175
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
2
...

Question Number
...
The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to
...
reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed
...
prevent contact pitting and burning
...
close the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts
...

reduce the current required to hold the contacts closed
...

NIL
...

177
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...

Question Number
...
Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out
...
when 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench
...
only off the aircraft
...
during flight
...

only off the aircraft
...

NIL
...

179
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a synchronous motor the rotor is
...
self excited
...
excited by DC
...
excited by AC
...

excited by DC
...

NIL
...

190
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low temperatures are reached
because
...
most of the acid is in the solution
...
the acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution
...
increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing
...

most of the acid is in the solution
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-1 4
...
2
...

192
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes
...
constant current and varying voltage
...
constant voltage and varying current
...
constant current and constant voltage
...

constant voltage and varying current
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 52
...
E
...
5
...


Question Number
...
The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of nickel-cadmium
battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of
...
excessive plate sulphation
...
normal operation
...
excessive gassing
...

excessive gassing
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 23 and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 50 but see also CAIPs
E
...
L/1-3 4
...

Question Number
...
The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in the same
service area is likely to result in
...
contamination of both types of batteries
...
normal battery service life
...
increased explosion and/or fire hazard
...

contamination of both types of batteries
...

CAIPs E
...
L/2-1 Page 1 Para 2
...

Question Number
...
If the current drawn from No
...
2 generator, the current in the No
...

Option A
...
2 generator
...
in the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No
...

Option C
...
2 generator
...

in the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No
...

Explanation
...
E
...
2 (h)
...

197
...
S
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating the
...
voltage regulator
...
generator speed
...
generator drive torque
...

generator drive torque
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems, Pallett Page 48-49
...

199
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is
...
in a discharged condition
...
under load condition
...
being charged
...

in a discharged condition
...

E
...
L/1-3 3
...
2
...

201
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
a) could alsobe correct
...

202
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the purpose of the current transformer on a Neutral phase of an AC generator?
...
Negative phase sequencing
...
Differential protection
...
Open phase
...

Differential protection
...

NIL
...

204
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
5
...

Question Number
...
What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged?
...
Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle
...
The cell temperature will run too low for proper output
...
No adverse results since water may be added anytime
...

Excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-3 4
...

Question Number
...
How do you reset a GCR trip?
...
Automatically once the fault goes away
...
Manually at the GCU
...
Manually from the flight deck
...

Manually at the GCU
...

NIL
...

207
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
5
...


Question Number
...
When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only
...
toward the end of the charging cycle
...
if they are defective
...
when the electrolyte level is low
...

toward the end of the charging cycle
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-3 4
...
5
...

209
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by regulating the
...
generator speed
...
voltage regulator
...
generator drive torque
...

voltage regulator
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems Page 48
...

211
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains
...
nitric acid
...
hydrochloric acid
...
sulphuric acid
...

sulphuric acid
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-1 4
...
4
...

213
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Frequency (Hertz) is the number of cycles per
...
revolution
...
second
...
minute
...

second
...

NIL
...

215
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing during battery
charging
...
distilled water must be added
...
sulphuric acid must be added
...
electrolyte of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added
...

distilled water must be added
...

CAIPS E
...
L/1-1 4
...
1
...

217
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The active component of an A
...
circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
4 amps
...
7 amps
...

5 amps
...

Total current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents
...

Question Number
...
In a delta connected generator
...
line volts equals phase volts
...
phase volts equals 1
...

Option C
...
73 phase volts
...

line volts equals phase volts
...

NIL
...

220
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
...
remain constant and the amperage output will decrease
...
decrease and the amperage output will increase
...
remain constant and the amperage output will increase
...

decrease and the amperage output will increase
...

Assuming no voltage regulator is considered, otherwise b is the answer
...

222
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the
...
S
...
reaches 1
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
G
...

Correct Answer is
...
G
...

Explanation
...
E
...
7
...

224
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery
...
petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
...
the connectors may be painted
...
copper connectors are used
...

petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-1 4
...

Question Number
...
Before taking S
...
readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an aircraft
...
the electrolyte temperature must be noted
...
the battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour
...
a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S
...
to stabilize
...

the electrolyte temperature must be noted
...

NIL
...

227
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0
...

Option A
...
5 kW
...
30 kW
...
24 kW
...

24 kW
...

PF = TP/AP 0
...

Question Number
...
The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery
...
remains constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid contained in the
electrolyte
...
remains substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the state of charge
Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60 ampere-hours at
the 10 hour rate will deliver
...
6 amps for 10 hours
...
60 amps for 10 hours
...
60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand
...

6 amps for 10 hours
...

NIL
...

231
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Constant speed drive is monitored in the cockpit for
...
oil pressure and speed
...
low oil pressure and high oil temperature
...
oil pressure and quantity
...

low oil pressure and high oil temperature
...

NIL
...

233
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator
...
the battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator
...
the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases
...
the generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current
...

the battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases
...

NIL
...

235
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A vibrating contact voltage regulator
...
has a resistor in series with the voltage coil
...
has a resistor in parallel with the two contacts
...
has a resistor in series with the two contacts
...

has a resistor in parallel with the two contacts
...

E
...
L/1-2 fig 3
...

237
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be
...
DC
...
AC at 400 c
...
s
...
AC at 50 c
...
s
...

DC
...

NIL
...

239
...
C
...
C
...

Option A
...
C
...

Option B
...
C
...

Option C
...
C
...

Correct Answer is
...
C
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
12 V e
...
f
...
24 V e
...
f
...
24 V e
...
f
...

Explanation
...


240
...

with twice the capacity of each battery
...

with the same capacity as each battery
...
m
...
with twice the capacity of each battery
...

241
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability
...
a hydrometer must be used
...
the electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips
...
a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted
...

a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted
...

NIL
...

243
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by
...
circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming
...
tachogenerators varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies
...
the load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed
...

circulating currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming
...

NIL
...

245
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...

Question Number
...
The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is
...
by checking the specific gravity of each cell
...
by a complete discharge and a measured recharge
...
by checking the voltage of each cell under load
...

by a complete discharge and a measured recharge
...

E
...
L/1-3 4
...
6
...

247
...

Option A
...
5 V battery voltage higher than generator
...
increasing generator voltage
...
increasing battery voltage
...

increasing generator voltage
...

NIL
...

248
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
To restore electrolyte after spillage
...
add a mixture of acid and water of the same s
...
as that in the battery
...
add distilled water only
...
add acid only
...

add a mixture of acid and water of the same s
...
as that in the battery
...

NIL
...

250
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The purpose of an inverter is to convert
...
AC to a higher frequency AC
...
AC to DC
...
DC to AC
...

DC to AC
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems Pallett Page 66
...
06
...


Question Number
...

Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should
be carried on an aircraft
...
Maintenance Manual
...
BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4
...
JAR OPS
...

JAR OPS
...

JAR OPS subpart K
...
jaa
...
html
...

2
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

When the captain calls the attendant
...
a low chime and blue light comes on
...
a high/low chime and pink light comes on
...
a high chime and pink light comes on
...

a high/low chime and pink light comes on
...

NIL
...
meriweather
...
html
Question Number
...

PTV type entertainment equipment
...
is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques
...
is not the part of maintenance schedule
...
has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting
...

is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques
...

PTV = Personal Television
...

5
...
To reset the
light
...
the button is pushed again
...
the button is pulled out
...
a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated
...

the button is pushed again
...

NIL
...

Option A
...
activates a
Option C
...

Explanation
...


6
...

high chime and an amber light
...

musical fanfare and a red light
...

http://www
...
com/777/fd-777
...

7
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

A typical emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
...
receives 2 frequencies
...
transmit 3 frequencies
...
transmits 2 frequencies
...

transmit 3 frequencies
...

Boeing 737 ELT 23-24-00 121
...
0Mega Hertz, 406Mega Hertz
...

9
...
H
...

Option A
...
5 Mega Hertz
...
121
...

Option C
...
5 Mega Hertz
...

121
...

Explanation
...


13
...
Flight Controls (ATA 27)
...

1
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

A full time yaw damper system detects
...
only low frequencies
...
all frequencies
...
band pass frequencies
...

band pass frequencies
...

Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 222 on
...

3
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, Page 63
...

4
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Automatic trim is used to
...
prevents standing loads on the elevator
...
maintain level flight
...
allow full authority to be regained by the aileron
...

prevents standing loads on the elevator
...

Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 371-372
...

6
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted
...
the secondary stops will just be in contact
...
a clearance exists at the secondary stops
...
the secondary stops have been over-ridden
...

a clearance exists at the secondary stops
...

The clearance is on the secondary stops
...

8
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Stall warning will be given at speeds
...
at the actual stall speed
...
that are lower than stall speed
...
that are higher than stall speed
...

that are higher than stall speed
...

As the aircraft slows, the stall warning is given 'prior to' the stall
...


Question Number
...
When working on an hydraulic operated flight control, it is sensible to
...
remove/disconnect hydraulic power
...
pull the appropriate CB
...
remove/disconnect electrical power
...

remove/disconnect hydraulic power
...

Removing/disconnect hydraulic power will ensure that the system is safe
...

11
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
In the air - 30 degrees and a further 15 degrees
with ailerons
...

12
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During a left turn
...
right rudder to be used
...
left rudder to be used
...
ball is to be maintained in centre of turn and slip indicator
...

ball is to be maintained in centre of turn and slip indicator
...

Normally a small amount of rudder is used to produce a more coordinated turn
...

14
...
in the centre
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
1-64
...

15
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails
...
the failed system stops and it remains in this position
...
the pilot feels air loads higher than normal
...
the pilot feels air loads lower than normal
...

the pilot feels air loads lower than normal
...

The 'Q' feel system is to simulate air loads
...

17
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right, the
...
rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
...
rotating aerofoil tilts forward
...
pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another
...

rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-47 p82
...


19
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
1-29
...

20
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevons will
Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Artificial feel is gained by using a
...
spring bias unit
...
hydraulic damper
...
'feel' generator
...

spring bias unit
...

NIL
...

23
...
The primary
control method is
...
design of engine and gearbox supports
...
inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft
...
inspect loose fixtures and fittings
...

design of engine and gearbox supports
...

Engine and gearbox rotate faster than the rotor
...

24
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-29
...

25
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to
...
the left
...
the right
...
the left with some aileron assistance
...

the right
...

NIL
...

27
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to
...
attitude of aircraft
...
rate of yaw
...
amount of aircraft disturbance
...

rate of yaw
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 225
...

29
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be
...
flap tracks out of rigging
...
bearing seized
...
flap motor internal leakage
...

flap motor internal leakage
...

Jeppesen Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-19
...

31
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...
8, and page 219
...

32
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Yaw damping rate changes with
...
airspeed
...
altitude
...
flap position
...

airspeed
...

Avionic Fundamentals page 292
...

34
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by
...
feedback from the servo motor
...
feedback from control surface
...
fitting a tachogenerator
...

fitting a tachogenerator
...

tomatic Flight Control by E
...
J
...

Question Number
...
Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
...
0
...

Option B
...
04
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...
07
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin 5th Edition Page-370
...

37
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab?
...
It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface
...
It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface
...
It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface
...

It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface
...

A and P Mechanics Airframe Handbook Page 23
...

40
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A wing mounted stall warning vane
...
gives a visual indication of impending stall
...
moves up at impending stall
...
moves down at impending stall
...

moves up at impending stall
...

NIL
...

42
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The neutral shift system augments control of the
...
elevator
...
stabiliser
...
spoilers
...

elevator
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 216
...

44
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
With a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is
moved?
...
It moves in the same direction as the control surface
...
It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
...
It remains in the neutral position
...

It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 43
...


Question Number
...
If the cyclic is moved to the right
...
the rotor blades on the right flap down
...
the rotor blades on the left flap down
...
POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another
...

the rotor blades on the right flap down
...

Rotor blades on right flap down to tilt the rotor disk to right
...

Question Number
...
What would happen to an aircraft at low speed, at high angle of attack, if it had an aileron going
down?
...
Have no effect on the stall speed
...
Increase stall speed
...
Decrease stall speed
...

Increase stall speed
...

Deflecting aileron down decreases local stall angle, thus increasing local stall speed
...

48
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Active load control uses
...
aileron and spoiler
...
elevator and aileron
...
elevator and stab
...

aileron and spoiler
...

Transport Category Aircraft Systems 5-29 (Load Alleviation Function)
...

50
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will
...
move down
...
remain at the same place
...
move up
...

move up
...

NIL
...

52
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to
...
prevent nose pitching up
...
prevent nose pitching down
...
prevent adverse yaw in a turn
...

prevent adverse yaw in a turn
...

NIL
...

54
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A helicopter needs to re-trim
...
indication is shown on the API
...
indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
...
indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator
...

indication is shown on the API
...

Automatic Flight Control
...

Question Number
...
Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by
...
continued pitch input
...
C of G movement
...
pitch of aircraft in cruise
...

continued pitch input
...

NIL
...

57
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
...
0
...

Option B
...
10321
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...
07
...

NIL
...

Option A
...


59
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Elevons combine the functions of both
...
rudder and aileron
...
elevator and aileron
...
rudder and elevator
...

elevator and aileron
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 1-16 Fig 1-36
...

61
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An artificial feel system is required
...
for power operated control systems
...
for proportional control systems
...
for power assisted control systems
...

for power operated control systems
...

NIL
...

63
...
F
...
U
...
has two control surfaces under its control
...
has the actuator rams parallel
...
has the actuator rams co-axial
...

has the actuator rams co-axial
...

NIL
...
tpub
...
htm
...

64
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Active load control uses
...
ailerons and spoilers
...
elevator and ailerons
...
elevator and stab
...

ailerons and spoilers
...

NIL
...

66
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the manual
reversion is that it must be
...
possible, but not recommended
...
operated by the standby hydraulic system
...
automatic and instantaneous
...

automatic and instantaneous
...

NIL
...

68
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by
...
travel of the jack body
...
travel of the jack ram
...
mechanical stops in the control system
...

mechanical stops in the control system
...

NIL
...

70
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the
...
rudder
...
ailerons
...
elevator
...

rudder
...

NIL
...

72
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A stick shaker is a device which
...
helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground
...
gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off
...
vibrates the control column near stalling speed
...

vibrates the control column near stalling speed
...

NIL
...

74
...

Option A
...
G
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A servo tab is operated
...
by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved
...
automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces
...
directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces
...

directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 23
...

76
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Active load control on a large transport aircraft's aileron system is fitted to
...
improve fatigue life, due to aeroelasticity and high lift loads
...
improve trim control due to lateral centre of gravity changes
...
increase roll control authority of the autopilot
...

improve fatigue life, due to aeroelasticity and high lift loads
...

NIL
...

78
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A stick shaker operates
...
after the stall
...
at the onset of the stall
...
just before the stall
...

just before the stall
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 168
...

80
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Q feel units use
...
static pressure only
...
pitot pressure only
...
pitot and static pressures
...

pitot and static pressures
...

Avionics Fundamentals pg 257 fig 17-31
...

82
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A lift transducer is normally fitted
...
to the nose area of the aircraft
...
on the leading edge of the wing
...
on the elevator control system
...

on the leading edge of the wing
...

Lift transducer, also known as a stall sensor
...

84
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of
...
rolling
...
yawing
...
pitch changes
...

rolling
...

NIL
...

86
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A series yaw damper
...
moves the rudder and the rudder pedals
...
moves ailerons and rudder
...
moves the rudder only
...

moves the rudder only
...

NIL
...

88
...
dutch roll
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
moves the
Option B
...
moves the
Correct Answer is
...

NIL
...
A series type yaw damper
...

rudder only
...

moves the rudder only
...

90
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/3-21 page 22 para 13
...
2 and Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 211
...

Option A
...
left aileron
Option C
...

Explanation
...


91
...

moves up, right aileron down, elevator down
...

moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up
...


Question Number
...
When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to fly left wing
low, an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will
...
move up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser degree
...
move up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral
...
move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up
...

move up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up
...

NIL
...


93
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the
...
aircraft tends to go nose up
...
aircraft tends to go nose down
...
aircraft tends to roll to the right
...

aircraft tends to go nose up
...

NIL
...

95
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

13
...
Flight Controls (ATA 27)
...

1
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using
...
L
...
D
...

Option B
...
V
...
Ts for roll control surfaces and R
...
D
...

Option C
...
V
...
Ts for roll and pitch control surfaces
...

L
...
D
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...


Question Number
...

A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of
...
electronic engine control unit only
...
electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
...
electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter
...

electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
...

NIL
...

4
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...

What controls are used in response to the PVD?
...
Nose-wheel steering or rudder pedals
...
Throttles
...
Ailerons
...

Nose-wheel steering or rudder pedals
...

PVD = Para Visual Display
...

6
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...


Question Number
...

If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
...
remains in the previous position
...
controls the aircraft in trim
...
remains at the neutral position
...

remains in the previous position
...

NIL
...

8
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

In a fully fly by wire system, if the rudder becomes disconnected
...
it is centralised by the airflow
...
it is centralized by a spring
...
its control is maintained by electric trim
...

it is centralised by the airflow
...

NIL
...

10
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
F
...
S computer produces a signal
...
sensor located along the control run produces a signal
...

sensors located under the control column produces a signal
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett Page 200
...

11
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
V
...
T and R
...
D
...


Option C
...
V
...
T is used hence ensuring interchangeability
...

L
...
D
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...
Example of spoilers is given
...

12
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot?
...
0
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
5
...

0
...

Explanation
...
EHJ Pallett Page 239
...

14
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Electrical stabilizer trim switches are found on the
...
behind thrust levers
...
control column
...
flight control panel
...

control column
...

NIL
...

16
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
The versine signal is used in the
...
roll channel only
...
pitch channel only
...
pitch and roll channel
...

pitch channel only
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 144
...

18
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...

Question Number
...
In a series rudder system
...
the pilot can input to the system
...
the pilot cannot input to the system
...
yaw damping is only possible signal input
...

the pilot can input to the system
...

NIL
...

20
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
...
remains in the previous position
...
remains at the neutral position
...
controls the aircraft in trim
...

remains in the previous position
...

NIL
...

22
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?
...
Flight control computer
...
Flight management computer
...
Flight augmentation computer
...

Flight control computer
...

Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26
...

24
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give?
...
Up Elevator
...
Left rudder
...
Down elevator
...

Up Elevator
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 144
...

ground and
...


In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
b737
...
uk/flightcontrols
...

Question Number
...
In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the
...
Flight Augmentation Computers
...
Flight Guidance and Management Computer
...
electric flight control unit
...

Flight Augmentation Computers
...

Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 5-26
...

28
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
On a modern aircraft about to stall
...
engine power increases automatically
...
the flaps retract automatically
...
the outboard slats extend automatically
...

engine power increases automatically
...

NIL
...

30
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Pallett
...

Question Number
...
SEC
...


On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?
...
E
...
A
...
E
...

Option C
...
L
...
C
...

E
...
A
...
E
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power
...
servos lock at last position
...
servos move to neutral and lock
...
servos remain stationary and provide damping
...

servos remain stationary and provide damping
...

A319/A320/A321 Flight Crew Operating Manual
...

33
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The stall margin mode is controlled by
...
E
...
R limits
...
angle of attack and flap position sensors
...
speed bug cursors
...

angle of attack and flap position sensors
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Page 143/4
...

35
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Stab trim goes into high speed mode when
...
Flaps are retracted
...
cruise altitude is reached
...
Flaps are extended
...

Flaps are extended
...

Automatic Flight Control
...
Page 215 fig 7
...

Question Number
...
The FLY BY WIRE system uses two elevator and aileron computers (E
...
A
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
11
...


Question Number
...
What achieves control and monitoring of the three electric motors which power the trimmable
horizontal stabiliser (THS)
...
flap and computer stall margin speed circuits to maintain the correct angle of attack within the stall margin
...
flap position sensors to maintain the minimum safe approach speed
...
landing gear position sensors to maintain the aircraft speed above stall
...

flap position sensors to maintain the minimum safe approach speed
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 288
...

39
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...


In a FLY BY WIRE system, a complete failure of the electronic flight control system in pitch
...
is not possible because of the built-in redundancy for all elements
...
would require the aircraft to be manually controlled in pitch using pitch trim wheel
...
would cause the captain's sidestick controller to take over pitch functions
...

would require the aircraft to be manually controlled in pitch using pitch trim wheel
...

NIL
...

41
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to
...
the pilots input
...
the hydraulic actuator
...
the control system computer
...

the hydraulic actuator
...

NIL
...

43
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads
...
greater than 75%
...
greater than 50%
...
greater than 90%
...

greater than 75%
...

NIL
...

45
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


13
...
Instrument Systems (ATA 31)
...

1
...

Option A
...
S
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, Radio deviation is shown on
...
EHSI & EADI
...
EHSI
...
EADI
...

EHSI & EADI
...

Radio deviation is VOR or ILS
...
It is on the EHSI and EADI
...


3
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced in the
...
Indicated Airspeed Module
...
Mach Module
...
Altitude Module
...

Altitude Module
...

NIL
...

5
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from
...
static pressure only
...
pitot pressure only
...
pitot and static air pressure
...

pitot and static air pressure
...

NIL
...

7
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at
...
10000 ft radio alt
...
1000 ft radio alt
...
2500 ft radio alt
...

2500 ft radio alt
...

Jeppesen Avionics Fundamentals Page 223
...

9
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-
...
Aircraft in the air with both engines running
...
Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
...
Aircraft on the ground with one engine running
...

Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
...

Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 391
...

11
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
160feet
...


In an RVSM system, what is the tolerance level of separation (+ or - feet)?
...
400feet
...
80feet
...

80feet
...

JAA Administrative and Guidance Material Temporary Guidance Leaflet No
...
3
...

Question Number
...
The runway heading is
...
QFU
...
QDM
...
QDR
...

QFU
...

NIL
...
tky
...
ne
...
html
Question Number
...
An aircraft in climb maintains the same I
...
S
...

Option A
...
A
...

Option B
...
A
...

Option C
...
A
...

Correct Answer is
...
A
...

Explanation
...
A
...
True Air Speed is greater than I
...
S at altitude
...

15
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
For a vertical gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbol would be moved to correct the pitch
movement?
...
Normal
...
Longitudinal
...
Lateral
...

Longitudinal
...

Jeppesen, Avionics Fundamentals Page 91
...

17
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A Master Warning is issued when
...
cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs
...
overspeed and cabin altitude occurs
...
engine fire and generator trip occurs
...

overspeed and cabin altitude occurs
...

Boeing 757 has overspeed and cabin altitude as red master WARNINGS, although engine fire is a red master
WARNING, GEN trip is a ORANGE master CAUTION
...

19
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning?

Option A
...

Option B
...
P
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Jeppesen Page 266/267
...


21
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-1 p14 para 15
...

Question Number
...
When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an
error of plus or minus
...
3 degree
...
5 degree
...
1 degree
...

3 degree
...

CAIPs A
...
3)
...

23
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A unit with two springs and a mass pick-off is
...
a gyroscope
...
an accelerometer
...
a tachogenerator
...

an accelerometer
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits
...

Question Number
...


The units of vibration are measured in
...
relative amplitude
...
decibels
...
phons
...

relative amplitude
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits
...

Question Number
...
A fuel flow measurement system
...
cannot be adjusted
...
can be adjusted for minimum flow rate
...
can be adjusted for maximum flow rate
...

cannot be adjusted
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 367-375
...

27
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between
...
magnetic heading and aircraft heading
...
the compass north and magnetic north
...
true north and magnetic north
...

true north and magnetic north
...

NIL
...
google
...


29
...
P
...
S mode 1 is excessive
...
rate of ascent
...
rate of descent
...
terrain closure
...

rate of descent
...

Avionics Fundamentals
...

Question Number
...
How many bits make up the mode 'S' address?
...
12
...
24
...
36
...

24
...

NIL
...
cena
...
htm

Question Number
...
The applied pressure to an A
...
I varies with the
...
square of the speed
...
cube root of the speed
...
square root of the speed
...

square of the speed
...

An A
...
I measures 1/2 * density * velocity-squared
...

32
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


Radio marker information is displayed on
...
EICAS
...
HSI
...
ADI
...

ADI
...

Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 358
...

34
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
Jeppesen Page 304
...

35
...
Rectification is to
...
move probe up
...
move probe down
...
move probe laterally
...

move probe up
...

Move probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point, so it operates sooner
...

36
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


In a capacitive fuel gauging system, an increase in fuel level would
...
increase capacitance
...
increase capacitive reactance
...
decrease capacitance
...

increase capacitance
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits
...

Question Number
...
A foat fuel gauge system is
...
cannot be adjusted
...
adjusted when tanks are full
...
adjusted when tanks are empty
...

cannot be adjusted
...

NIL
...

39
...
P
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation, you would carry out
...
damping and periodicity checks
...
damping and pivot friction check
...
damping and alignment checks
...

damping and pivot friction check
...

CAIPs A
...
1, 5
...

Question Number
...


Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?
...
Inner gimbal
...
Rotating vane
...
Outer gimbal
...

Inner gimbal
...

NIL
...

42
...
carry out a check swing after fitment
...
align the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error is induced
...
fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux valve was
removed from
...

fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux
valve was removed from
...

NIL
...

43
...

Option A
...
25
...
QFE
...
QNH
...

1013
...

Explanation
...
25 mb or QNE
...

Question Number
...
Equivalent airspeed is
...
calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility
...
rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility
...
indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error and pressure error
...

calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility
...

Calibrated Airspeed is indicated airspeed corrected for position installation error (IE)
...
Equivalent airspeed will always be lower than calibrated airspeed
...

45
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The compensator in a fuel tank measures
...
specific gravity of fuel
...
fuel quantity
...
K value of fuel
...

K value of fuel
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits EHJ Pallett Page 333
...

47
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Flight director command bars indicate
...
direction in which the beacon is
...
direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred
...
direction in which aircraft is flying
...

direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits EHJ Pallett Page 219
...

Option A
...
12 address
Option C
...

Explanation
...


50
...

bits
...

bits
...


Question Number
...
In RVSM, the error allowed is
...
300 feet
...
500 feet
...
80 feet
...

80 feet
...

NIL
...

52
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be
...
lower mach number
...
higher mach number
...
not effected
...

lower mach number
...

Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals Page 235
...


54
...
M
...
M
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would
...
indicate climb
...
indicate decent
...
not be affected
...

indicate decent
...

If there is a static leak,(i
...
pressure is increasing), the capsule in the VSI will increase in size, leading to a
descent indication
...


Question Number
...
In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most likely
to be effected by over pressure?
...
VSI
...
A
...
I
...
Altimeter
...

VSI
...

NIL
...

57
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-5 CAAIP Chap 8-2 Para 5
...


Question Number
...


Duringa compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is
...
1 degree
...
10 degree
...
5 degree
...

5 degree
...

CAIPs A
...

Question Number
...
In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer coupling
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a horizontal gyro, the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by
...
mercury switches on the outer ring
...
flux valve slaving
...
mercury switches on the inner ring
...

flux valve slaving
...

NIL
...

61
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-5 page 1
...


62
...
what happens to the display?
...
Error warning in view
...
Rad
...
flag in view
...
Rad
...
goes out of view
...

Rad
...
goes out of view
...

Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems Page 195
...

63
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-1 Para 3
...


Question Number
...
EICAS indicates
...
engine performance only
...
engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions
...
engine performance and aircraft status
...

engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 378
...

65
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
...
It stays fixed on magnetic north
...
It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading
...
It move as the aircraft moves
...

It stays fixed on magnetic north
...

Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals Page 107
...

67
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...


In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar signifies
...
speed decrease
...
speed increase
...
height decrease
...

speed decrease
...

Jeppesen, Avionics Fundamentals Page 356/7 and 364 together
...

69
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as
...
real A
...
apparent A
...
true A
...

apparent A
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 91
...

Question Number
...


Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________________________ when close to stall
...
flap position
...
thrust levers
...
fast/slow switch
...

thrust levers
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 91
...

Question Number
...
An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause
...
the pointer to read full scale
...
the pointer to read mid scale
...
the pointer to read zero
...

the pointer to read full scale
...

Automatic Flight Control, Pallett page 35/36
...

73
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a
quick release disconnect connection is disturbed
...
a full test of the system should be carried out
...
the allowances for the system should be halved
...
a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so
...

a full test of the system should be carried out
...

Download TGL No
...
eur-rvsm
...
htm PAra
...
3
...

75
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
EHJ Pallett Page 99
...

76
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
6 at http://www2
...
com/library
...
8
...

Question Number
...
A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's
...
longitudinal axis
...
lateral axis
...
vertical axis
...

lateral axis
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett page 117 fig 4
...

Question Number
...
The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause
...
aircraft to overbank
...
aircraft to remain in level flight
...
aircraft to underbank
...

aircraft to overbank
...

NIL
...

79
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A fuel quantity test set consists of
...
resistance decade
...
inductance decade
...
capacitance bridge
...

capacitance bridge
...

NIL
...

81
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
EICAS provides the following
...
engine warnings and engine parameters
...
engine parameters and system warnings
...
engine parameters
...

engine parameters and system warnings
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...
Page 359
...

83
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An R
...
I requires the following inputs:
...
Heading and radio deviation
...
Radio deviation only
...
Course and radio deviation
...

Heading and radio deviation
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 196
...

85
...
The coefficient C is
...
-2 degrees
...
+2 degrees
...
0 degrees
...

0 degrees
...

A
...

Question Number
...
Magnetic heading errors will be
...
negative if easterly
...
positive if easterly
...
negative if northerly
...

positive if easterly
...

CAIPs A
...

Question Number
...
When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is
...
1 degrees
...
3 degrees
...
5 degrees
...

5 degrees
...

CAIPs A
...


Question Number
...
The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimbol would be moved to correct the pitch
movement?
...
Lateral
...
Longitudinal
...
Normal
...

Longitudinal
...

NIL
...

90
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...


What altitude, relative to sea level, does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?
...
18,000 feet
...
5,000 feet
...
12,000 feet
...

18,000 feet
...

NIL
...

92
...
P
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What colour is the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments, with excess
deviation?
...
Amber
...
Red
...
White
...

Amber
...

NIL
...

94
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?
...
3000 psi
...
1000 psi
...
300 psi
...

3000 psi
...

NIL
...

96
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of freedom
...

Question Number
...
What does a piezoelectric type vibration sensor detect?
...
Velocity
...
Disturbances
...
Pressure changes
...

Pressure changes
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 376 last paragraph and also refers you to page
165
...

98
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?
...
Clacking sound
...
Bell sound
...
Horn sound
...

Clacking sound
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 69 and Fig 2
...


Question Number
...
A Boost Gauge reads
...
absolute pressure
...
above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
...
above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
...

absolute pressure
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits EHJ Pallett Page 355
...

101
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system?
...
100 Kilo Hertz
...
2 - 6 Giga Hertz
...
2
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the calibration law of a ratiometer?
...
Material of the indicator needle
...
Material of the coil
...
Material of the sensing element
...

Material of the sensing element
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 318
...


104
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected
...
in series with capacitance probes
...
by replacing capacitance probes
...
in parallel with capacitance probes
...

in parallel with capacitance probes
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 341
...

106
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?
...
Press relief valve
...
Bellows and diaphragm
...
Alcohol is used as it does not get effected by temperature
...

Bellows and diaphragm
...

NIL
...

108
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is lapse rate?
...
Density changes with altitude
...
Temperature changes with altitude
...
Pressure changes with altitude
...

Temperature changes with altitude
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 27
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


110
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Where is the placement of a mercury switch?
...
Outer gimbal
...
Instrument case
...
Gyro case
...

Outer gimbal
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 116 and 117
...

112
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Random drift of a gyro is caused by
...
gyro friction and unbalance
...
aircraft turning with an error in roll
...
error in roll when aircraft is turning
...

gyro friction and unbalance
...

Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 104
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
S
...

Option C
...


114
...


Correct Answer is
...
S
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If increasing altitude at constant I
...
S, True Air Speed will
...
decrease
...
increase
...
remain the same
...

increase
...

Mechanics of Flight by A
...
Kermode page 64/65
...


116
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What does a vibration type sensor measure?
...
Direction of flexing
...
Frequency of deflections
...
Maximum deflection
...

Frequency of deflections
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Circuits
...

Question Number
...
Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?
...
Piston and oil
...
No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient
...
Bellows or diaphragm
...

Bellows or diaphragm
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 83
...

119
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession?
...
Increase
...
Remain unaffected
...
Decrease
...

Increase
...

NIL
...

121
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-5 9
...
7
...

122
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...
L/10-5 9
...


Question Number
...
A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?
...
24 inches
...
So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass
...
20 inches
...

24 inches
...

A
...
2
...

124
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
EHJ Pallett Page 120
...

125
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
org
...
htm
Question Number
...
On the CWP, what does amber indicate?
...
Warning
...
Present status
...
Cautionary info
...

Cautionary info
...

NIL
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


127
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?
...
Pitot static probes
...
EICAS
...
INS
...

INS
...

Avionics Fundamentals Page 128
...

129
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When power is switched off, the gimbal brake
...
restricts inner gimbal
...
restricts outer gimbal
...
stops outer gimbal
...

restricts inner gimbal
...

Used for gimbal lock prevention
...

Question Number
...
On an Autoland coupled approach, a G
...
W
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
When more than one D
...
compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D
...
compass serves as a
standby to a remote reading compass
...
all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading
...
all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading only
...
only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with
master compass
...

all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading
...

CAIPs A
...
2 Note
...

133
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-5 9
...
8
...

134
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-5 9
...
8
...

135
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-1 14
...


Question Number
...
A D
...
compass fitted on an aircraft
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-5 4
...
2
...

137
...
The alignment of pitot head is carried out with
...
micrometer
...
spirit level
...
an inclinometer
...

an inclinometer
...

NIL
...

138
...
This is the
...
internal dia
...

Option B
...
of pitot head
...
external dia
...

Correct Answer is
...
of pitot head
...

NIL
...

139
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-1
...


140
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The airdata computer inputs to
...
mach meter, standby altimeter, A
...
I
...
altimeter, F
...
C, secondary radar
...
cabin rate sensors, mach-meters, A
...
I, altimeter
...

altimeter, F
...
C, secondary radar
...

F
...
C for nav
...
T
...

Question Number
...
What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?
...
10°
...
6°
...
2
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
http://www
...
fiu
...
htm
(Note: VOR is 5° per dot
...

143
...

Option A
...
25mb)
...
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly
below the aircraft
...
As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of an
evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer
...

As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the
ground directly below the aircraft
...

NIL
...

144
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An R
...
I has inputs from VOR and
...
no other sources
...
a remote compass input
...
an azimuth gyro
...

an azimuth gyro
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 194
...

146
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which modes of the G
...
W
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The vocal repetition for Mode 6 warnings are repeated
...
twice only
...
once only
...
three times only
...

once only
...

NIL
...

149
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
At what height does the rising runway appear?
...
200 feet
...
500 feet
...
300 feet
...

200 feet
...

Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 199
...

152
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
M
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
M
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When servicing an RVSM aircraft
...
the alt
...

Option B
...
hold must be serviceable
...
all pitot/static instruments must be serviceable
...

the alt
...


Explanation
...
872
...

154
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An A
...
I compressibility error correction will be
...
negative
...
positive
...
both
...

negative
...

NIL
...
26
...
131/aerodynamics1/Basics/Page7
...

156
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from
...
compressor inlet
...
compressor outlet
...
reservoir
...

reservoir
...

NIL
...

158
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Compass error 'Q' corrections correct
...
A error
...
C error
...
B error
...

C error
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Pages 88 and 92
...

Option A
...
taken from
Option C
...

Explanation
...


160
...

set parameters
...

data measured at 45 degrees North
...

http://amsglossary
...
com/glossary/browse?s=s&p=88

Question Number
...
An aircraft airspeed indicator has
...
pitot to the capsule
...
static to the capsule
...
pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule
...

pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule
...

NIL
...

162
...
the rad
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A typical ratiometer indicating system would use
...
single phase AC for indicator and dc for transmitter
...
single phase AC for indicator and transmitter
...
3-phase AC
...

single phase AC for indicator and transmitter
...


ircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems by EHJ Pallett p316/7
...

164
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An aircraft increases in altitude The A
...
I indication remains constant
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How does a machmeter work?
...
Indicated airspeed / temperature
...
True airspeed / indicated airspeed
...
True airspeed and speed of sound
...

True airspeed and speed of sound
...

Kermode Mechanics of Flight 10th edition pg 339, and Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control,
Harris Page 20
...

167
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
2
...


Question Number
...
When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings
...
a leak check is not required
...
a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer
...
a leak check is always required
...

a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer
...

NIL
...

169
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
M
...

Question Number
...
Flight Director bars move up in slow increments, what controls their rate/speed?
...
Instrument amplifier gain
...
Position feedback
...
Rate feedback
...

Instrument amplifier gain
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 213
...


171
...
The instrument that is most affected is the
...
airspeed indicator
...
rate of change indicator
...
altimeter
...

rate of change indicator
...

The Rate of Change (VSI) is most sensitive
...

172
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will
...
oscillate
...
go hard over
...
be sluggish
...

oscillate
...

NIL
...

174
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The needle of a resolver is connected to
...
two coils and a permanent magnet
...
two coils and an electromagnet
...
two coils only
...

two coils only
...

NIL
...

176
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the maximum value of installation tester that may be used on a fuel contents system?
...
250 Volt
...
You cannot use one on the fuel contents system
...
300 Volt
...

You cannot use one on the fuel contents system
...

NIL
...

178
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A rate gyro has
...
a calibrated spring to restrain movement about longitudinal axis
...
one degree of freedom along the lateral axis
...
a calibrated spring between inner gimbal and case
...

a calibrated spring to restrain movement about longitudinal axis
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page129
...

180
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Water contamination in a capacitance fuel system will
...
cause contents to overead
...
short out capacitance probe and trip CB
...
cause contents to under read
...

cause contents to overead
...

The dielectric constant of water is 81
...

Question Number
...
An ILS indicator is
...
parallel to filters
...
across filters
...
series with filters
...

series with filters
...

NIL
...

183
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
When a compass is in the slave mode
...
the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchroniser circuit
...
the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensated
...
azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve
...

azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the flux valve
...

NIL
...

185
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
8 5
...

186
...
M
...

Option A
...
M
...

Option B
...
M
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
M
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude
...
this is due to insufficient de-aeration
...
this is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying
...
this has no influence on compass readings
...

this is due to insufficient de-aeration
...

NIL
...
silva
...
html#BUBBLES

Question Number
...
Cyclic shift of the stator connections in a torque synchro results in
...
output datum advanced 240 deg
...
output datum advanced 180 deg
...
data to coincide
...

output datum advanced 240 deg
...

Aircraft Instrument & Integrated System - Pallett Chap - 5 Pg 139
...

189
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a turn coordinator, the output axis of the rate gyro is
...
set at 30° to the longitudinal axis
...
parallel to the lateral axis to make the gyro sensitive to rolling and banking as well as turning
...
parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
...

set at 30° to the longitudinal axis
...

Aircraft Instrument & Integrated System - Pallett Chap - 4 Pg 133
...

191
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In an EICAS display, all scales, normal operating range of pointers and digital readouts are
displayed in
...
white
...
magenta
...
green
...

white
...

Aircraft Instrument & Integrated System - Pallett Chap - 16 Pg 379
...

193
...
M
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Thermocouple combination mostly used for exhaust gas temperature indications are
...
Copper-Constantan
...
Iron-Constantan
...
Chromel-Alumel
...

Chromel-Alumel
...

Aircraft Instrument & Integrated System - Pallett Chap - 13 Pg 321
...

195
...
Which of the following is correct?
...
A compass swing must be performed
...
No swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old
...
The swing can be performed at a later date
...

A compass swing must be performed
...

A
...


Question Number
...
A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-5 Table 1 columns 7 and 8
...

197
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a capacitive fuel contents system, changes in temperature are compensated by
...
placing a capacitor in parallel with the tank unit capacitance
...
placing a resistor in series with the tank unit capacitance
...
adjustment of a potentiometer
...

placing a capacitor in parallel with the tank unit capacitance
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated systems Pallett page 331 -333
...

199
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The true airspeed output from a CADC will be determined by information fed from
...
The Pitot and Static sensors
...
The Mach unit
...
The Mach unit and Temperature Sensor
...

The Mach unit and Temperature Sensor
...

Aircraft Instrument's and Integrated Systems Pallett page 167 and diagram page 162
...

201
...

Option A
...
7 PSI
...
10
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
3 PSI
...

Gauge Pressure = Absolute Pressure - Atmospheric Pressure
...

202
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
160
...

203
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-5 Para 9
...

204
...
S
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
15
...

all the time airspeed is present
...

NIL
...


205
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?
...
Square-Law compensation
...
Compensation is not required
...
Hair spring
...

Square-Law compensation
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems - Pallett, page 45
...

207
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Normal vertical minimum separation allowed is
...
1000feet
...
800feet
...
2000feet
...

2000feet
...

NIL
...
faa
...
htm (note 'Normal'
...

209
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The instrument supplied with pitot and is affected by altitude is a
...
Mach Meter
...
A
...
I
...
VSI
...

Mach Meter
...

NIL
...

211
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Component P relates to
...
coefficient C
...
coefficient B
...
coefficient A
...

coefficient B
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems EHJ Pallett Page 91 Fig 3
...

Question Number
...
A standby artificial horizon uses a
...
free gyro
...
space gyro
...
earth gyro
...

earth gyro
...

NIL
...

214
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
1323 implies that this is the correct answer
...

215
...
P
...
S mode 2 announces
...
too low flaps
...
whoop whoop pull up
...
sink rate
...

whoop whoop pull up
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Harris Page 160
...


216
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Alpha angle relates to which system?
...
Mach trim system
...
Flap blowback system
...
Angle of attack system
...

Angle of attack system
...

NIL
...

218
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Compensator magnets in a standby compass exert greatest influence at
...
when parallel to each other
...
45°
...
90°
...

90°
...

NIL
...

220
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
EFIS display, SG1 + SG2 are for captain and FO displays
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The compensator tank unit in a fuel system adjusts fuel readings for
...
zero reading
...
SG of fuel
...
permittivity
...

permittivity
...

NIL
...

223
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...


Explanation
...


Question Number
...
As part of the checks on the DFDR system, you are required to carry out a check using the selftest switch on the aircraft integrated data system (AIDS) printer
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When the 'busy' indicator lamp flashes on the QAR in a DFDR system, this indicates that the
...
cartridge is loaded correctly and the QAR is ready for use
...
data is being received and the cartridge cannot be ejected
...
data is not being received and the cartridge can be ejected
...

cartridge is loaded correctly and the QAR is ready for use
...

NIL
...

226
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
During a change to a lower altitude, the piston unit in an IVSI (instantaneous vertical speed
indicator) will create, for an instant
...
more suction to the capsule only
...
pressure to both case and capsule
...
more pressure to the capsule only
...

more pressure to the capsule only
...

NIL
...

228
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The full testing of a FDR system is accomplished by
...
bite test of the FDR acquisition unit
...
real time monitoring of system with ground test equipment
...
bite test of the FDR
...

bite test of the FDR acquisition unit
...

NIL
...

Option A
...
2500 radio
Option C
...

Explanation
...


230
...
P
...
S Mode 7 Windshear is activated at
...

altimeter for take-off and landing
...

1500 radio altimeter for take-off and landing
...

231
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A mach meter reads the correct value
...
at any altitude
...
above 10,000 feet only
...
at sea level only
...

at any altitude
...

NIL
...


233
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which is not displayed on an attitude director indicator (ADI)?
...
Glideslope deviation
...
VOR lateral deviation
...
Localizer deviation
...

VOR lateral deviation
...

NIL
...

235
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A turn and slip needle/pointer moves to the left
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?
...
Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
...
Decrease the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
...
No effect
...

Increase the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33
...

238
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession
...
increases with a higher rotor speed
...
is unaffected by changes in rotor speed
...
increases with a lower rotor speed
...

increases with a lower rotor speed
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33
...

240
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the principle of
...
decreased reaction of the air from a fully open port
...
increased reaction of the air from a fully open port
...
increased reaction of the air from a bisected port
...

increased reaction of the air from a fully open port
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 49
...

242
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set period after
switching on because
...
the normal erection switch contact will burn out
...
overheating of the gyro rotor windings will occur
...
excessive hunting will take place
...

excessive hunting will take place
...

A
...
3
...

Question Number
...
The erection system on a directional gyroscope has
...
a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal
...
a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal
...
a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal
...

a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 46/7
...

245
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The Turn and Slip indicator employs
...
an azimuth gyro
...
a rate gyro
...
a vertical gyro
...

a rate gyro
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 54
...

247
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?
...
By a switch on the outer gimbal
...
By a switch on the inner gimbal
...
By a flux take-off device
...

By a flux take-off device
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 77/78
...

249
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately
...
22,500 rpm
...
4,200 rpm
...
2,400 rpm
...

4,200 rpm
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 53
...

251
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon
...
change in resistance to operate
...
change in voltage applied to operate
...
change in inductance to operate
...

change in resistance to operate
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 50/51
...

253
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on
...
moment of inertia of the rotor
...
angular velocity of the rotor
...
moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
...

moment of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 33
...


255
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Gyro rigidity is proportional to
...
mass and speed
...
mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis
...
mass, and radius of mass from spin axis
...

mass, speed and radius of mass from spin axis
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 33
...

257
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately
...
4,200 rpm
...
15,000 rpm
...
22,000 rpm
...

15,000 rpm
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 46
...


259
...
S
...
is connected to
...
static pressure
...
vacuum
...
pitot pressure
...

static pressure
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22/23
...

260
...
S
...
pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates
...
1,000 ft/minute rate of descent
...
1,000 ft/minute rate of climb
...
100 ft/minute rate of climb
...

1,000 ft/minute rate of climb
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 24
...

261
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10
...
1 c)
...

262
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?
...
Running gyro at low speed
...
Running gyro at high speed
...
Inverting the gyro
...

Running gyro at low speed
...

NIL
...

264
...
S
...
will indicate
...
horizontal to left
...
vertically up
...
vertically down
...

horizontal to left
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22
...

265
...
S
...
capsule
...
is the same as case pressure
...
lags the case pressure
...
leads the case pressure
...

leads the case pressure
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22
...

266
...
S
...
fitted in a pressurized aircraft would, during level
flight, cause the instrument to indicate
...
a rate of climb
...
a rate of descent
...
zero
...

zero
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 22
...


267
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An artificial horizon has
...
the inner gimbal pivoted laterally
...
the inner gimbal pivoted vertically
...
the inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally
...

the inner gimbal pivoted laterally
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 47
...

269
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
7 PSI
...

14
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In the directional gyro
...
the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically
...
the outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally
...
the outer gimbal is pivoted laterally
...

the outer gimbal is pivoted vertically
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 42
...

271
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In the Turn and Slip indicator
...
the spin axis is lateral
...
the spin axis is longitudinal
...
the spin axis is vertical
...

the spin axis is lateral
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 53
...

273
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The units on the calibrated scale of a V
...
I
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from
...
a tapping from the induction manifold
...
a pitot head
...
a venturi
...

a venturi
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 40
...

276
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A rate two turn is
...
180 degrees per minute
...
360 degrees per minute
...
90 degrees per minute
...

360 degrees per minute
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 54, Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
Systems Page 131
...

278
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a
...
bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule
...
U-spring acting on the capsule
...
balance weight
...

bi-metal U-spring acting on the capsule
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 8
...

280
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group, it is necessary to
...
carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)
...
blow through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply
...
calibrate the instrument concerned
...

carry out a leak test on the appropriate system(s)
...

A
...
5
...

282
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause
...
a pitch error and gyro topple
...
a roll error and gyro topple
...
a continual precession in roll
...

a continual precession in roll
...

NIL
...

284
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-1 15
...


Question Number
...
The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and Centigrade scale is
...
212 deg
...
respectively
...
180 deg
...
respectively
...
100 deg
...
respectively
...

212 deg
...
respectively
...

NIL
...

286
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
69°C
...

15°C
...

NIL
...

287
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to
...
reduce gimbal nutation
...
limit the outer gimbal movement
...
prevent gimbal lock
...

prevent gimbal lock
...

NIL
...

289
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Agonic lines link places of
...
different variation
...
zero variation
...
equal variation
...

zero variation
...

NIL
...
cap
...
mil/ops/DOT/school/L23CockpitFam/magneticcompass
...

291
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin
...
add 273 degrees
...
use the formula (°C * 9/5) + 32
...
add 112 degrees
...

add 273 degrees
...

NIL
...

293
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is
...
by a control synchro
...
by a differential synchro
...
by a torque synchro
...

by a control synchro
...

Avionics Fundamentals Page 93 Fig 5-20
...

295
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit to the bulb
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
If the bulb circuit
is broken, the resistance will be infinite
...

297
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the altimeter case
...
will cause the aneroid capsule to expand
...
will cause the aneroid capsule to contract
...
will not affect the aneroid capsule
...

will cause the aneroid capsule to contract
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 5
...

299
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A sensitive altimeter reading 100 feet
...

Option A
...
S
...
standards
...
indicates that the instrument is unserviceable
...
indicates that the airfield is 100 feet
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should be released to
the atmosphere by
...
removing the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes
...
removing the static connector from its static vent
...
venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set
...

venting the static system via an internal bleed in the test set
...

NIL
...

302
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?
...
Compensates for change in density
...
Corrects for capsule elasticity
...
Compensates for non-linear tension in the hairspring
...

Corrects for capsule elasticity
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 5
...

304
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The capsule in an altimeter responds to
...
gauge pressure
...
differential pressure
...
absolute pressure
...

absolute pressure
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 36
...

306
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of
...
airspeed and altitude
...
mach number and temperature
...
airspeed and temperature
...

mach number and temperature
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 272
...

308
...
S
...
over a conventional one is
...
it does not require pitot/static pressure
...
it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one
...
it does not require warming up
...

it has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 27
...


309
...
A
...
as the density decreases with altitude, the T
...
S
...
decreases
...
increases
...
remains the same
...

increases
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 24
...

310
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A desiccant used in the storage of instruments
...
is sodium-bicarbonate
...
is silica-gel
...
is anti-freeze oil
...

is silica-gel
...

NIL
...

312
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Bourdon Tubes have
...
circular cross section
...
oval cross section
...
toroidal cross section
...

oval cross section
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182 Figure 7
...

Question Number
...
In a Bourdon tube
...
one end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere
...
one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source
...
both ends sealed
...

one end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems David Harris Page 182
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
kerosene
...

Explanation
...


315
...

oil
...

http://www
...
com/pressure/datasheets/PDH
...

316
...

Option A
...
M
...

Option B
...
T
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...
M
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation, and its gimbal
restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as
...
a rate gyro
...
an earth gyro
...
a tied gyro
...

a rate gyro
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 52
...

318
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
One dot VOR deviation represents
...
1 1/4°
...
5°
...
2 miles
...

5°
...

NIL
...

320
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An absolute pressure gauge measures
...
pressures extremely accurately
...
the applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure
...
the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum
...

the applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum
...

NIL
...


322
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking relative to
...
an ILS station
...
an A
...
F station
...
a VOR station
...

a VOR station
...

NIL
...

324
...
s
...
In terms of
absolute pressure, this represents
...
1,014
...
s
...

Option B
...
s
...

Option C
...
3 p
...
i
...

1,014
...
s
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
To fill a Dead Weight Tester
...
screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir
...
remove platform and fill cylinder
...
screw in hand wheel and fill reservoir
...

screw out hand wheel and fill reservoir
...

NIL
...

326
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection
...
the ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale
...
the standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale
...
the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale
...

the ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale
...

QFE is set and it should read airfield height
...

328
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
D
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The applied pressure to an A
...
I
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The supply to an A
...
I
...
are pitot and static pressure
...
is pitot pressure only
...
is static pressure only
...

are pitot and static pressure
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 13
...

331
...
S
...
will be expanding when the aircraft is
...
climbing
...
accelerating
...
decelerating
...

accelerating
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 13
...

332
...

Option A
...
f
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be
...
greater than the ground speed
...
equal to the ground speed
...
less than the ground speed
...

equal to the ground speed
...

NIL
...

334
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
To provide a linear scale on an A
...
I
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
18 and text below
...

336
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
4 and para below
...


337
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1 0 1 3
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The command bars in a flight director system indicate
...
the required path with respect to actual path
...
true horizon
...
the actual path with respect to required path
...

the required path with respect to actual path
...

NIL
...

340
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
On a conventional R
...
I the angle between the compass datum and the radio pointer arrow is
...
the magnetic bearing
...
the relative bearing
...
the complimentary bearing
...

the relative bearing
...

NIL
...


342
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Isogonal lines link places of
...
zero variation
...
different variation
...
equal variation
...

equal variation
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 81
...

344
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?
...
278 knots
...
550 knots
...
662 knots
...

278 knots
...

True airspeed is always higher than EAS (or I
...
S) at any altitude above Sea Level
...

346
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by
...
displacement of erection control device
...
bottom lightness of inner gimbals
...
bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
...

displacement of erection control device
...

NIL
...

348
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
The manual VOR input is for
...
the radio magnetic indicator
...
the ADI
...
the course deviation bar
...

the course deviation bar
...

NIL
...

is known as
...
After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing, the resultant correction

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by
...
series of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor
...
an adjustment nut on inner ring
...
mercury switch on outer ring
...

an adjustment nut on inner ring
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems Page 45
...

352
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees
...


Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
L/10-5 Table 1
...

Question Number
...
Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of
...
approach to or deviation from selected altitude
...
selection of altitude
...
altitude information
...

approach to or deviation from selected altitude
...

NIL
...
domingoaereo
...
ig
...
br/Boeing727/ManuA
...
htm
Question Number
...
Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system is
...
+/-200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
...
+/-300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
...
+/-500ft system tolerance
...

+/-300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error
...

Download TGL No
...
eur-rvsm
...
htm Para
...
3
...

356
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
An aircraft with Mach warning will warn
...
when envelope limit is reached
...
when Mach 1 is exceeded
...
when Mcrit is reached
...

when Mcrit is reached
...

NIL
...

358
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by
...
compression of air in the tube at high speed
...
blockage in the pitot tube
...
misalignment of pitot head
...

compression of air in the tube at high speed
...

Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems - David Harris P17 A
...
I Errors (3)
...

360
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A flux detector output is a
...
A
...
voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage
...
A
...
voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage
...
rectified D
...
voltage
...

A
...
voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage
...

Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 189
...
09
...

Question Number
...

Galley and cabin lighting operate from the
...
AC bus
...
GND services bus
...
DC bus
...

AC bus
...

NIL
...

2
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then
...
the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only
...
the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired
...
the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base
...

the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base
...

Can fly without passengers in accordance with the MEL
...


Question Number
...

If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative
...
the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed
...
the aircraft cannot fly i
...
grounded until the defect is fixed
...
the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/shut off
...

the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...

Question Number
...
120°
...
180°
...
140°
...


The tail navigation light
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

A fluorescent tube contains
...
orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
...
phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
...
iodine coatings and rare gases
...

phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
...

NIL
...
users
...
net/~pthrush/lighting/flour
...

7
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?
...
0
...

Option B
...
25
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...
25
...

A
...
N 56 2
...

Question Number
...

Runway turn-of lights have a beam width of
...
110°
...
10°
...
50°
...

50°
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett 3rd Edition Page 146
...

10
...

Option A
...


Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What is the power supply to cabin flourescent tubes?
...
115 VAC
...
200 VAC
...
High voltage stepped up
...

115 VAC
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook
...

Question Number
...
What is the arc of a landing light is?
...
11°
...
20°
...
15°
...

11°
...

Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 146 Fig 10-1
...

13
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
1387
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


14
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
1387, and E
...
L/1-10 301 a)
...

15
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Wing steady light must be visible through
...
110 degrees
...
180 degrees
...
70 degrees
...

110 degrees
...

Aircraft Electrical Systems EHJ Pallett Page 146
...

17
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by
...
the battery bus
...
DC handling bus
...
AC handling bus
...

AC handling bus
...

BAe 146 A
...
M (AC ground service busbar) although other aircraft (A340, B747) use 28 VDC ground bus
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


19
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?
...
Dome lights will illuminate
...
Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate
...
All lights will illuminate
...

Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate
...

NIL
...

21
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?
...
None
...
0
...

Option C
...
25
...

0
...

Explanation
...
812 (l) (1), and CAAIPs Leaflet 5-11 2
...
1
...

23
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

Option A
...


Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with
...
28 V DC
...
28 V AC
...

115 V AC
...

Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 7-76 (figure 7-115)
...

25
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system
during flight?
...
ON
...
Armed
...
OFF
...

Armed
...

Transport Category Aircraft Systems 11-23
...

27
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical
separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that faILS is
...
0
...

Option B
...
25
...
0
...

Correct Answer is
...
25
...

JAR 25
...

Question Number
...
Rear navigation lights have
...
steady white light with a viewing angle of 60°
...
flashing white light with a viewing angle of 60°
...
steady white light with a viewing angle of 140°
...

steady white light with a viewing angle of 140°
...

NIL
...

30
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of
...
50 candelas
...
100 candelas
...
20 candelas
...

20 candelas
...

CAP 393 Section 2 Rules of the Air Para
...

Question Number
...
Service lights include
...
avionics bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage compartment lights
...
refuelling lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights
...
baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights
...

baggage compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights
...

E
...
L/1-10 3
...

Question Number
...
Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse to avoid
electrical shock or burning
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
5
...

34
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
1 c)
...

35
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
8
...

36
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured
...
green
...
red
...
amber
...

amber
...

CAIPs E
...
L/1-10 4
...
1
...

38
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?
...
enon
...
Halon
...
Freon
...

enon
...

NIL
...

40
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
7
...

Question Number
...
Tritium Gas is used in a
...
self illuminating lights
...
strobe light
...
landing Light
...

self illuminating lights
...

E
...
L/1-10 4
...
1
...

42
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...
E
...
2
...

Question Number
...
The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system
...
continue with reduced passenger load
...
ground the aircraft
...
ferry flight to main base for rectification
...

continue with reduced passenger load
...

that the answer is b
...

Question Number
...
Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit:
...
Single circuit
...
Dual circuit
...
Individual circuits
...

Single circuit
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 250
...

45
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

13
...
On Board Maintenance Systems (ATA 45)
...

1
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...

One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by
...
the electronic interface units (EIU)
...
the central warning computer (CWC)
...
the engine indicating and crew alert system (EICAS)
...

the electronic interface units (EIU)
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...

Question Number
...

What type of memory do CMCs have?
...
Volatile
...
Hard
...
Non-volatile
...

Non-volatile
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...

Question Number
...

In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC
...
only Primary Faults are recorded
...
all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
...
all faults are recorded in Volatile memory
...

all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
...

Aircraft Electricity and Avionics (5th Edition) Eismin Page 271
...

6
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...

In case the aeroplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and
only one computer is to be installed
...
it may be installed either on LH or RH side
...
it must be installed on LH side
...
it must be installed on RH side
...

it must be installed on LH side
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...

Question Number
...

An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC
...
It records all faults in non-volatile memory
...
All memory is erased when aircraft lands
...
It records all faults in volatile memory
...

It records all faults in non-volatile memory
...

Aircraft Electricity and Electronics
...

Question Number
...

With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF)
is to
...
log relevant maintenance data
...
provides detaILS of defect action
...
transmits to the CMC
...

log relevant maintenance data
...

NIL
...

10
...

Option A
...

Option B
...


Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A modern aircraft CMC uses
...
a CRT screen
...
a magnetic fault indicator
...
an LED display
...

a CRT screen
...

NIL
...

12
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers, and you only have one to
dispatch the aircraft
...

Option A
...

Option B
...
e
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
A HUMS in a helicopter is
...
a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure
...
a vibration analysis system
...
a system which indicates a crack in the blade
...

a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure
...

NIL
...
cs
...
edu/others/research/FAA2
...
shl
...
uk/Technologies/Pages/Hums_intro_text
...

Question Number
...
A Flight Data Recorder is activated when
...
the helicopter takes off
...
when power is applied to the helicopter
...
the helicopters engines are started
...

the helicopters engines are started
...

JAR Ops-3
...

16
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...
M
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Question Number
...
MCDUs
...
enable dialog with central maintenance computer
...
are used to transmit data to ground
...
store fault data
...

enable dialog with central maintenance computer
...

NIL
...

18
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...


Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...

Question Number
...
An aircraft condition monitoring system
...
sends information to the central maintenance cell
...
stores information for long term error analysis
...
detects the source of a fault
...

stores information for long term error analysis
...

NIL
...

20
...

Option A
...

Option B
...

Option C
...

Correct Answer is
...

Explanation
...


Title: Module 13 questions
Description: EASA module 13 exam questions
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