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Title: A P Quizzes 1-18 With comprehensive Answers
Description: A P Quizzes 1-18 With comprehensive Answers
Description: A P Quizzes 1-18 With comprehensive Answers
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Started on
State
Completed on
Time taken
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Feedback
Sunday, January 31, 2021, 2:57 AM
Finished
Sunday, January 31, 2021, 3:19 AM
21 mins 41 secs
33
...
00 (95%)
You’re off to a good start
...
Study hard for eac
stuck
...
75 points out of 1
...
neurologist
...
anatomist
...
engineer
...
physiologist
...
histologist
...
00 points out of 1
...
digital subtraction angiography
b
...
dynamic spatial reconstruction
d
...
75 points out of 1
...
histology
b
...
gross anatomy
d
...
cytology
Question 4
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
There are more microbial cells than human cells in your body and the health of this
microbiota clearly influences human well-being
...
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
Question 5
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The delivery of a radioactive compound to the body to study the metabolism of tissues is
called
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
Question 6
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Magnetic resonance imaging is based on the movement of
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
Question 7
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
A tissue is a
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question 8
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The study of the external form of the body and its relationship to deeper structures is
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question 9
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The study of the structural features and functions of the cell is
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question 10
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Which subdivision of anatomy involves the study of organs that function together?
Select one:
a
...
developmental
c
...
histology
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
inferior to the chin
b
...
posterior to the ears
d
...
superior to the mouth
Question 12
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The visceral pleura is
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question 13
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Imagine the following scenario:
Blood pressure decreases below normal levels
...
→ Blood pressure decreases even more
...
Select one:
a
...
negative
Question 14
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
An increase in the number of cells is
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question 15
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
A researcher discovered a sensory receptor that detects decreasing oxygen concentrations
in the blood
...
a decrease in heart rate
b
...
an increase in physical activity
d
...
both a decrease in heart rate and an increase in the respiratory rate
Question 16
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The pectoral region is the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question 17
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is not a function of the control center within a feedback mechanism?
Select one:
a
...
controls effectors
c
...
detects a change in the value of a variable
Question 18
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Directional terms are important in the study of anatomy
...
median
b
...
left
d
...
lateral
Question 19
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Posterior means
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question 20
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is most consistent with homeostasis?
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Started on
State
Completed on
Time taken
Grade
Question
Incorrect
Friday, February 5, 2021, 9:58 PM
Finished
Friday, February 5, 2021, 10:38 PM
40 mins 1 sec
26
...
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1
0
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75
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Question text
Carbon dioxide is considered a(n)
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Incorrect
2
0
...
75
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Question text
A substance composed of two or more different types of atoms is a(n)
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
3
1
...
75
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Question text
Cations and anions that dissociate in water are sometimes called
Select one:
a
...
b
...
electrolytes, because they can conduct an electrical current
...
nonelectrolytes and solutes
...
molecules and electrolytes
...
75 points out of 1
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molecule
...
compound
...
molecule and a compound
...
element
...
ion
...
75 points out of 1
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hydrochloric acid (HCl)
b
...
sucrose (C12H22O11)
d
...
None of these choices are correct
...
75 points out of 1
...
Dalton's number
...
Socrates's number
...
Avogadro's number
...
Pasteur's number
...
Le Chatelier's number
...
75 points out of 1
...
g
...
is not 100% efficent
b
...
typically generates heat
d
...
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Two amino acids are bonded together to form a dipeptide
...
Sucrose is chemically separated to form one molecule of glucose and one molecule of
fructose
...
Sodium chloride is dissolved in water
...
Several dipeptide chains are formed from digestion of a long polypeptide chain
...
ATP is converted to ADP
...
00 points out of 1
...
x-rays pass through bone
...
x-rays react with bone
...
x-rays can not pass through bone
...
bones are less dense than soft tissue
...
75 points out of 1
...
two molecules
b
...
two protons
Question
Correct
11
1
...
75
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Question text
Normal pH range for blood is 7
...
45
...
35,
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
12
1
...
75
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Question text
Water accounts for 50% of the weight of a young adult female and 60% of a young adult
male
...
hydrogen bond
b
...
oxygen atom
d
...
polar covalent bond
Question
Correct
13
1
...
75
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Question text
The pH value
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Incorrect
14
0
...
75
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Question text
How does a buffer help a solution maintain pH?
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
Question
Incorrect
15
0
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is NOT true of enzymes?
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
16
1
...
75
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Question text
A solution that contains one osmole of solute in one kilogram (kg) of water is called a
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
17
1
...
75
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Question text
Normal pH for blood is 7
...
45
...
critical because enzymes work best within narrow ranges of pH
...
not critical because extreme pH values do not affect enzyme function
...
called denaturation
...
not required
...
None of these choices is correct
...
75 points out of 1
...
glycogen, glucose, sucrose
b
...
glucose, fructose, galactose
d
...
deoxyribose, glycogen, starch
Question
Correct
19
1
...
75
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Question text
An organic molecule consists of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur; the
molecule is probably
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
20
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following organic groups does an enzyme belong to?
Select one:
a
...
protein
c
...
nucleic acid
e
...
00 points out of 1
...
50 out of 35
...
form dissociated ions
...
are electrostatic attractions between different molecules
...
evenly distribute electrical charge among all atoms in a sample
...
separate atoms and ions from one another
...
are found within molecules
...
75 points out of 1
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gains electrons
...
gains protons
...
loses electrons
...
loses protons
...
gains neutrons
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
chemical
c
...
heat
e
...
75 points out of 1
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a combination of atoms held together by chemical bonds
...
a positively charged ion
...
a negatively charged ion
...
a substance that conducts electricity when placed in solution
...
an alteration in the three-dimensional structure of a protein
...
75 points out of 1
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electron
...
atom
...
chemical bond
...
orbital
...
proton
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
steady state
c
...
75 points out of 1
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mass
...
weight
...
density
...
volume
...
size
...
75 points out of 1
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cling tightly together
...
dissociate or separate from one another
...
lose their charge
...
get lost in the solvent
...
settle to the bottom of the container
...
75 points out of 1
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protons in the atom
...
neutrons in the atom
...
protons plus electrons in the atom
...
electrons plus neutrons in the atom
...
neutrons plus protons in the atom
...
75 points out of 1
...
salt molecules
...
polar molecules
...
nonpolar molecules
...
lopsided molecules
...
None of these choices are correct
...
00 points out of 1
...
RNA is found outside a cell
...
RNA contains the base thymine
...
RNA is a single-stranded molecule
...
RNA molecules are antiparallel
...
RNA is a double helix
...
75 points out of 1
...
vitamin C
...
vitamin D
...
vitamin B
...
vitamin F
...
vitamin H
...
75 points out of 1
...
estrogen
b
...
testosterone
d
...
progesterone
Question
Correct
14
1
...
75
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Question text
Solubility refers to the ability of one substance to ___________ in another
...
react
b
...
precipitate
d
...
None of these choices are correct
...
75 points out of 1
...
storage carbohydrate in animals
...
storage carbohydrate in plants
...
nondigestible plant polysaccharide
...
major nutrient for most body cells
...
sugar found in RNA
...
75 points out of 1
...
What does "C"
represent on the diagram?
Select one:
a
...
oxygen
c
...
polar (hydrophilic) region
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
glycogen, glucose, sucrose
b
...
ribose, glycogen, glucose
d
...
deoxyribose, glycogen, starch
Question
Correct
18
1
...
75
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Question text
Fatty acid A has 10 double covalent bonds scattered throughout its carbon chain while fatty
acid B has only single covalent bonds between the carbons in its chain
...
Fatty acid A is saturated
...
Fatty acid B is unsaturated
...
Both fatty acids are saturated
...
Both fatty acids are unsaturated
...
Fatty acid B is saturated
...
75 points out of 1
...
transport – hemoglobin
b
...
regulation – enzymes and hormones
d
...
contraction – actin and myosin in muscles
Question
Correct
20
1
...
75
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Question text
ATP
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
QUIZ 3
Started on
State
Completed on
Time taken
Grade
Question
Correct
Monday, February 8, 2021, 12:17 AM
Finished
Monday, February 8, 2021, 12:46 AM
28 mins 29 secs
35
...
00 (100%)
1
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following activities is a function of the plasma membrane?
Select one:
a
...
recognition of bacterial cells by the immune system
c
...
cell metabolism
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
a magnifying glass
b
...
transmission electron microscope
d
...
light microscope
Question
Correct
3
1
...
75
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Question text
What structure does "B" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?
Select one:
a
...
phospholipid bilayer
c
...
peripheral protein
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
membrane channel protein
b
...
internal membrane surface
d
...
integral protein
Question
Correct
5
1
...
75
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Question text
The lower limit of resolution of a light microscope is
Select one:
a
...
0
...
10μm
d
...
01μm
e
...
0μm
Question
Correct
6
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
What structure does "A" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?
Select one:
a
...
phospholipid bilayer
c
...
peripheral protein
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
are small, lipid soluble molecules
...
have their receptor sites on the outer surface of the plasma membrane
...
can interact with DNA in the nucleus
...
do not exhibit specificity
...
have no effect on the cell
...
75 points out of 1
...
1, 2, 3, 4
b
...
2, 3, 1, 4
d
...
4, 3, 2, 1
Question
Correct
9
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
Communication between cells occurs when chemical messengers from one cell bind to
_____ on another cell
...
channel proteins
b
...
marker molecules
d
...
integrins
Question
Correct
10
1
...
75
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Question text
Ion movement across the plasma membrane creates an electrical charge difference known
as ______
...
membrane potential
b
...
respiration
d
...
75 points out of 1
...
rough endoplasmic reticulum
b
...
basal bodies
d
...
mitochondria
Question
Correct
12
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
Cells that lack ribosomes cannot
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
13
1
...
75
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Question text
Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic,
isotonic
...
hypotonic solution
b
...
isotonic solution
d
...
crenated
Question
Correct
14
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
The structural RNA of ribosomes is a
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
15
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
What term dealing with cancer means "not inclined to spread or become worse'?
Select one:
a
...
malignant
c
...
benign
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
The sequence of bases in a strand of mRNA
transcribed from this sequence of bases in DNA would be
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
17
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
If the amino acid coding region of a mRNA molecule is 1800 nucleotides (bases) in length,
this molecule will contain _____ codons
...
400
b
...
800
d
...
1200
Question
Correct
18
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
Answer these questions about chromosome structure
...
chromatid
b
...
chromosome
d
...
chromatin
Question
Correct
19
1
...
75
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Question text
Chromatin condenses and nucleoli disappear during
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
20
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
The sequence of nucleotides in a messenger RNA molecule is needed to determine the
sequence of
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Started on
State
Completed on
Time taken
Grade
Question
Correct
Saturday, February 27, 2021, 10:25 PM
Finished
Saturday, February 27, 2021, 10:40 PM
14 mins 54 secs
33
...
00 (95%)
1
1
...
75
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Question text
The presence of a cellular clock, presence of "death genes" and damage to DNA or
mitochondria are all theories of _____
...
aging
b
...
differentiation
d
...
75 points out of 1
...
structural genes
...
autosomes
...
genotypes
...
polygenic
...
y-linked
...
75 points out of 1
...
incomplete dominance
...
complete dominance
...
complete recessiveness
...
codominance
...
polygenic traits
...
75 points out of 1
...
minor thalassemia
b
...
beta thalassemia
d
...
ABO blood groups
Question
Correct
5
1
...
75
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Question text
Genes on the X chromosomes are
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
6
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following genotypes will result in a male?
Select one:
a
...
XY
c
...
XXX
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
complete dominance
b
...
incomplete dominance
d
...
polymorphism
Question
Correct
8
1
...
75
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Question text
What term means that both alleles are the same?
Select one:
a
...
alleles
c
...
heterozygous
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
karyotypes
...
genomes
...
homologous pairs
...
loci
...
haploid
...
75 points out of 1
...
homozygous recessive
...
homozygous dominant
...
heterozygous dominant
...
heterozygous recessive
...
homorecessive
...
75 points out of 1
...
structural genes
...
autosomes
...
genotypes
...
polygenic
...
y-linked
...
00 points out of 1
...
allelic variant
...
mutated allele
...
polymorphism
...
All of the choices are correct
...
75 points out of 1
...
albinism
b
...
hemophilia
d
...
achondroplasia
Question
Correct
14
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
What genetic disorder is a type of dwarfism characterized by shortening of the upper and
lower limbs?
Select one:
a
...
sickle-cell disease
c
...
Down syndrome
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
albinism
b
...
hemophilia
d
...
achondroplasia
Question
Correct
16
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
What genetic disorder is caused by having three chromosomes 21?
Select one:
a
...
sickle-cell disease
c
...
Down syndrome
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Turner's Syndrome (XO)
b
...
Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21)
d
...
They all can be found in either sex
...
75 points out of 1
...
monosomy 21
...
trisomy 21
...
monosomy 23
...
trisomy 17
...
disomy 21
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
duplication
c
...
point
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
albinism
b
...
hemophilia
d
...
achondroplasia
Started on
State
Completed on
Time taken
Monday, March 1, 2021, 5:15 PM
Finished
Monday, March 1, 2021, 5:49 PM
34 mins 26 secs
Grade
Question
Correct
35
...
00 (100%)
1
1
...
75
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Question text
To determine that a type of epithelium is squamous, which of the following is most
important?
Select one:
a
...
the shape of most of the epithelial cells
c
...
the shape of the basal epithelial cells
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Which of the following injuries results in
damage to mainly this kind of tissue?
Select one:
a
...
bullet penetrating the abdominal wall
c
...
tear in the cartilage of the knee
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
collagen
b
...
elastin
d
...
hyaluronic acid
Question
Correct
4
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
What type of membranes line joint cavities?
Select one:
a
...
mucous
c
...
gobletal
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
blood
...
adipose tissue
...
areolar tissue
...
cartilage
...
bone
...
75 points out of 1
...
cardiac
...
smooth
...
striated
...
voluntary
...
skeletal
...
75 points out of 1
...
simple cuboidal epithelium
b
...
stratified squamous epithelium
d
...
transitional epithelium
Question
Correct
8
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
The type of cell connection that serves as a permeability barrier is a
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
9
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
What type of connective tissue is found in the walls of large arteries?
Select one:
a
...
fibrocartilage
c
...
dense irregular elastic tissue
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
older
Question
Correct
11
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
What attaches epithelial cells to the basement membrane?
Select one:
a
...
adhesion belt
c
...
gap junction
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
serous fluid
...
synovial fluid
...
plasma
...
saliva
...
mucus
...
75 points out of 1
...
simple squamous
...
stratified squamous
...
keratinized columnar
...
transitional
...
simple cuboidal
...
75 points out of 1
...
In regeneration, destroyed cells are replaced by the same type of cells
...
In replacement, a new type of tissue develops that eventually results in scar production
...
Labile cells cannot be replaced by the process of regeneration
...
Stable cells do not actively replicate after growth but retain the ability to regenerate
...
Permanent cells have a limited ability to replicate
...
75 points out of 1
...
stratified cuboidal epithelium
...
simple squamous epithelium
...
stratified squamous epithelium
...
irregular dense fibrous connective tissue
...
stratified columnar epithelium
...
75 points out of 1
...
connective tissue
...
keratinized epithelium
...
stratified squamous epithelium
...
simple columnar epithelium
...
simple squamous epithelium
...
75 points out of 1
...
simple cuboidal epithelium
b
...
stratified squamous epithelium
d
...
transitional epithelium
Question
Correct
18
1
...
75
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Question text
An example of a gap junction is
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
19
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
This is a picture of a skin wound
...
dermis
b
...
epidermis
d
...
blood clot
Question
20
Correct
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
This is a diagram of a multipolar neuron
...
nucleus of neuron
b
...
cell body of neuron
d
...
neuroglia cells
Started on
State
Monday, March 1, 2021, 5:58 PM
Finished
Completed on
Time taken
Grade
Question
Correct
Monday, March 1, 2021, 6:23 PM
24 mins 50 secs
31
...
00 (90%)
1
1
...
75
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Question text
What does structure "A" represent on the diagram?
Select one:
a
...
arrector pili
c
...
hypodermis
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
shaft
...
cuticle
...
hair bulb
...
medulla
...
root
...
75 points out of 1
...
lunula
...
nail bed
...
nail groove
...
hyponychium
...
hypodermis
...
75 points out of 1
...
What layer of the epidermis is "B"?
...
stratum spinosum
b
...
stratum basale
d
...
stratum granulosum
Question
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5
1
...
75
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Question text
This is the dermal layer closest to the epidermis
...
epidermis
b
...
papillary layer
d
...
hypodermis
Question
Correct
6
1
...
75
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Question text
This stratum contains many layers of dead squamous cells
...
stratum basale
b
...
stratum granulosum
d
...
stratum corneum
Question
Correct
7
1
...
75
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Question text
That portion of the hair that extends above the surface of the skin is the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
8
1
...
75
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Question text
On coming inside from the cold, students notice that their cheeks are red
...
constriction of the blood vessels in the epidermis of the cheeks
...
dilation of the blood vessels in the dermis of the cheeks
...
damage to the epidermis by the cold
...
constriction of the sweat glands in the cheeks
...
increased permeability of superficial vessels
...
75 points out of 1
...
the blood vessels become dilated
...
body heat is conserved
...
more blood enters into the heart
...
body temperature tends to drop in that area
...
more blood flows to the skin
...
00 points out of 1
...
excretion
...
immunity
...
circulation
...
respiration
...
digestion
...
75 points out of 1
...
carcinoma
b
...
papillae
d
...
callus
Question
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12
1
...
75
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An increase in body temperature causes
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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13
0
...
75
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Sweat
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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14
1
...
75
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Question text
A malfunction of the process of keratinization results in the condition known as
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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15
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is an inflammatory condition of the skin?
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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16
1
...
75
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Question text
Ringworm is an infection of the skin, hair, and nails caused by a
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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17
1
...
75
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Question text
The amount of body area involved with a burn is determined by the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
18
1
...
75
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Question text
This condition is characterized by a thicker-than-normal stratus corneum producing large
silvery scales
...
psoriasis
b
...
bullae
d
...
eczema
Question
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19
1
...
75
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Question text
A genetic disease characterized by the inability to produce melanin is
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
20
1
...
75
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The effects of aging on the skin include all of the following except:
Select one:
a
...
reduction in collagen and elastin
c
...
increases in sebaceous gland activity
Started on
State
Completed on
Time taken
Grade
Monday, March 1, 2021, 6:55 PM
Finished
Monday, March 1, 2021, 7:35 PM
39 mins 44 secs
35
...
00 (100%)
Question
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1
1
...
75
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Haversian systems or osteons
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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2
1
...
75
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The medullary cavity is
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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3
1
...
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These collagen fibers help to connect ligaments and tendons to the periosteum of the bone
...
endosteal fibers
b
...
Golgi fibers
d
...
Purkinje fibers
Question
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4
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is NOT a function of bone?
Select one:
a
...
movement
c
...
calcium storage
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
elastin fibers
...
collagenase
...
hydroxyapatite crystals
...
collagen fibers
...
bone marrow
...
75 points out of 1
...
collagen
b
...
hyaluronic acid
d
...
chondrocytes
Question
Correct
7
1
...
75
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Question text
A band of connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone is a(n)
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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8
1
...
75
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Parathyroid hormone (PTH) causes
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
9
1
...
75
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Question text
Osteoclasts and osteoblasts that travel through or across the bone surface removing and
replacing old bone matrix are collectively called a(n) _____
...
basic multicellular unit
b
...
bone reformation unit
d
...
osteon
Question
Correct
10
1
...
75
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Question text
Which type of bone cells possess extensive ER and ribosomes?
Select one:
a
...
osteoblasts
c
...
osteoclasts
Question
Correct
11
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following bony features is not associated with the skull?
Select one:
a
...
pterygoid canal
c
...
stylomastoid foramen
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
zygomatic
b
...
parietal
d
...
palatine bone
Question
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13
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is a function of the vertebral column?
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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14
1
...
75
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Which of the following facial bones is correctly matched with its function?
Select one:
a
...
vomer - forms the hard palate
c
...
zygomatic - provides attachment point for temporalis muscle
e
...
Question
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15
1
...
75
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Question text
The ligamentum nuchae
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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16
1
...
75
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Question text
In a herniated ("ruptured" or "slipped") disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the
___________ cracks and the _____________ oozes out
...
nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus
b
...
anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus
d
...
nucleus pulposus; lamina
Question
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17
1
...
75
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The humerus articulates with the radius at the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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18
1
...
75
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The junction of two pubic bones is the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
19
1
...
75
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Question text
A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the _______
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
20
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following situations could interfere with normal child birth?
Select one:
a
...
a small pelvic outlet
c
...
a wide, circular pelvic inlet
e
...
25 out of 35
...
75 points out of 1
...
body movement
b
...
Dilating and constricting the pupil of the eye
d
...
production of heat
Question
Correct
2
1
...
75
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Question text
What type of muscle tissue causes peristalsis?
Select one:
a
...
smooth muscle
c
...
75 points out of 1
...
possess striations
...
can contract but are not extensible or excitable
...
do not require nerve innervation to contract
...
increase dramatically in number after birth
...
are found in the walls of the stomach
...
75 points out of 1
...
Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction
...
Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs
...
Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei
...
Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical
...
There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart
...
00 points out of 1
...
cell membrane of a muscle fiber
...
cytoplasm of muscle cells
...
structural and functional unit of the skeletal muscle cell
...
contractile thread that extends the length of the muscle fiber
...
protein strand composed of actin
...
75 points out of 1
...
skeletal muscle
b
...
cardiac muscle
d
...
both cardiac and smooth muscle
Question
Correct
7
1
...
75
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Question text
Muscles exhibit the property of excitability
...
shortens its length
...
recoils to its original resting length
...
stretches beyond its normal length
...
responds to stimulation by the nervous system
...
excites itself
...
75 points out of 1
...
contractility
...
excitability
...
extensibility
...
elasticity
...
flexibility
...
75 points out of 1
...
The rate of chemical reactions increases in muscle fibers during contraction, so the rate
of heat production also increases
...
Muscle contraction generates pyrogens which reset the body's internal thermostat to a
higher temperature
...
Muscle activity directs more warm blood to the muscles away from the central core
causing a cooling effect on your internal organs
...
Increased muscle activity causes a rise in adipose stores which increases the insulation
value of the body
...
75 points out of 1
...
contraction of the heart
b
...
movement of food through the digestive tract
d
...
vasoconstriction
Question
Correct
11
1
...
75
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Question text
What is a triad?
Select one:
a
...
a T tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae
c
...
the movement of myosin head while attached to actin myofilament
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Which of the following has occurred?
Select one:
a
...
repolarization
c
...
isopolarization
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
constant tension produced by muscles for long periods of time
...
a feeling of well-being following exercise
...
the ability of a muscle to maintain a contraction against an outside force
...
muscles contracting together
...
warm-up of muscle tissue
...
75 points out of 1
...
Sodium ion concentration is greater inside cells
...
Negatively charged proteins are more concentrated outside the cell
...
A greater concentration of calcium ions is found inside the cell
...
Potassium is concentrated primarily inside the cell
...
None of these choices reflect what occurs during the resting membrane potential
...
75 points out of 1
...
I band
...
A band
...
Z disk
...
H zone
...
M line
...
75 points out of 1
...
an increased number of muscle fibers
...
the nervous system's ability to recruit a large number of motor units simultaneously
...
elimination of unnecessary enzymes and metabolic pathways
...
elimination of all fat deposits
...
elimination of unnecessary connective tissue
...
75 points out of 1
...
anaerobic respiration
b
...
both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
Question
Correct
18
1
...
75
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Rigor mortis occurs after death because
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
19
1
...
75
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Question text
Consider the following four phrases and select the one that does not belong with the others
...
anaerobic metabolism
b
...
fast twitch fibers
d
...
muscle fibers split ATP rapidly
Question
Correct
20
1
...
75
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Question text
Inflammation of the fibrous connective tissue resulting in stiffness and soreness is
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
BIO201_MH_V3
Topic 10: Muscular System Gross Anatomy
Started on Monday, March 8, 2021, 3:54 PM
State Finished
Completed on Monday, March 8, 2021, 4:19 PM
Time taken 25 mins 3 secs
Grade 31
...
00 (90%)
Question
1
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is inserted on the calcaneus by the Achilles tendon?
Select one:
a
...
peroneus longus
c
...
extensor digitorum longus
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
quadriceps femoris
b
...
biceps femoris
d
...
gracilis
Question
3
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is found in the posterior group of forearm muscles?
Select one:
a
...
flexor carpi radialis
c
...
flexor digitorum profundus
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Which shape has the
muscle fibers that run the length of the muscle and taper at each end?
Select one:
a
...
Fusiform
c
...
Pennate
Question
5
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The bulge of the calf is caused by the ___ and___ muscles
...
sartorius; piriformis
b
...
peroneus longus; plantaris
d
...
calcaneal; peroneal
Question
6
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is a posterior thigh muscle?
Select one:
a
...
sartorius
c
...
tensor fasciae latae
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
flexor carpi ulnaris
...
flexor carpi radialis
...
extensor carpi radialis brevis
...
extensor carpi radialis longus
...
brachioradialis
...
75 points out of 1
...
coracobrachialis
b
...
pectoralis major
d
...
serratus anterior
Question
9
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is NOT part of the quadriceps group?
Select one:
a
...
rectus femoris
c
...
vastus medialis
e
...
00 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
infrahyoid
c
...
suprahyoid
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
iliopsoas
...
psoas major
...
gluteus maximus
...
tensor fascia latae
...
piriformis
...
75 points out of 1
...
This is an example of muscles working as
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
13
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
Which abdominal wall muscle originates on the iliac crest and the lower lumbar vertebrae?
Select one:
a
...
external abdominal oblique
c
...
transversus abdominis
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
up
...
obliquely
...
to the side
...
to the nose
...
down
...
75 points out of 1
...
trapezius
b
...
longissimus capitis
d
...
splenius capitis
Question
16
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The zygomaticus major muscle
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
17
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The major movement produced during quiet breathing is accomplished by the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
18
Correct
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
Which back muscle inserts on the ribs and vertebrae?
Select one:
a
...
longissimus capitis
c
...
multifidus
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
sartorius
...
gastrocnemius
...
vastus lateralis
...
gluteus maximus
...
biceps femoris
...
00 points out of 1
...
injuries resulting from excessive stress on the tibialis anterior
...
stress fractures of the fibula 2 to 5 cm distal to the knee
...
posterior compartment syndrome
...
injuries resulting from excessive stress on the tibialis posterior
...
RICE
...
50 out of 35
...
75 points out of 1
...
ganglia
...
synapse
...
fascicle
...
node of Ranvier
...
neuromuscular junction
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
dopamine
c
...
nitric oxide (NO)
Question
Correct
3
1
...
75
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Question text
The strength of a stimulus is communicated through
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
Question
Correct
4
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is responsible for problem-solving skills?
Select one:
a
...
peripheral nervous system
c
...
autonomic nervous system
e
...
Question
Correct
5
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
In hyperpolarization
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Incorrect
6
0
...
75
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Question text
A change in the resting membrane potential has the following characteristics (nonpropagated, graded, can summate)
...
be a local potential
...
be an action potential
...
be a consequence of an increase in the permeability to Na+
...
result in repolarization
...
be a local potential and a consequence of an increase in the permeability to Na+
...
00 points out of 1
...
Activation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to close
...
Inactivation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to open
...
A positive feedback cycle develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of
Na+ ion channels to open
...
K+ ion channels begin to close
...
Inactivation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to open and a positive feedback cycle
develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of Na+ ion channels to open
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
Node of Ranvier
c
...
dendrites
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Which of the following neuroglial cells is being damaged in multiple sclerosis?
Select one:
a
...
microglial cell
c
...
ependymal cell
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Neuroglia serve as the major supporting tissue in the CNS
...
Neuroglia form part of the blood-brain barrier
...
Neuroglia produce action potentials for skeletal muscles
...
Neuroglia form myelin sheaths around some axons
...
Neuroglia produce cerebrospinal fluid
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
plexus
c
...
nerves
Question
Correct
12
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is NOT true of reactive astrocytosis?
Select one:
a
...
scars limit regeneration
c
...
reduces injury to surrounding tissue
Question
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13
1
...
75
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Question text
Nissl bodies are
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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14
1
...
75
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Question text
The central nervous system
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
15
1
...
75
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Question text
The central nervous system includes the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
16
1
...
75
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Question text
The peripheral nervous system includes the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
17
1
...
75
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Question text
Hydrocephaly is a condition whereby cerebrospinal fluid accumulates around the brain
...
astrocytes
b
...
oligodendrocytes
d
...
ependymal cells
Question
Correct
18
1
...
75
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Question text
Cell bodies of the peripheral nervous system are located in
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
19
1
...
75
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Question text
The autonomic nervous system
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
20
1
...
75
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Question text
Digestion of food is regulated by the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Started on
State
Completed on
Time taken
Grade
Question
Correct
Monday, March 8, 2021, 7:46 PM
Finished
Monday, March 8, 2021, 8:10 PM
23 mins 44 secs
33
...
00 (95%)
1
1
...
75
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Question text
Adduction of the thigh involves the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
2
1
...
75
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Question text
Which nerve is involved when a dancer points his/her toes?
Select one:
a
...
femoral
c
...
pudendal
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
central canal
b
...
dorsal root ganglion
d
...
dorsal root
Question
Correct
4
1
...
75
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Question text
What does "C" represent?
Select one:
a
...
conus medullaris
c
...
filium terminale
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
central canal
b
...
dorsal root ganglion
d
...
dorsal root
Question
Correct
6
1
...
75
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Question text
Reciprocal innervation
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
7
1
...
75
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Question text
Doctor Johansson wants to test a patient's reflexes by briskly striking the patellar tendon
with a reflex hammer
...
Johansson testing?
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
8
1
...
75
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Question text
Structurally, the simplest reflex is the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
9
1
...
75
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Question text
Match the nerve with the appropriate description
...
innervates the iliopsoas, sartorius, and quadriceps femoris
b
...
innervates the muscles that adduct the thigh
d
...
branches to form the medial and lateral plantar nerves
Question
Correct
10
1
...
75
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Question text
Match the disorder with its description
...
pain radiating down the back of the thigh and leg
b
...
inflammation of a nerve
d
...
loss of sensation
Question
Correct
11
1
...
75
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Question text
During brain surgery, the superior portion of the postcentral gyrus of a patient is stimulated
...
Flex his fingers
...
Talk to the surgeon
...
Smile
...
Feel pressure on his toes
...
Move his hand
...
75 points out of 1
...
cause us to stop breathing
...
affect body temperature regulation
...
affect pH regulation
...
prevent puberty
...
affect sensory projection to the cerebral cortex
...
75 points out of 1
...
reticular formation
b
...
limbic system
d
...
basal nuclei
Question
Correct
14
1
...
75
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Question text
The mammillary bodies
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
15
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following basal nuclei is located in the cerebrum?
Select one:
a
...
red nucleus
c
...
substantia nigra
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
the cerebrum to other parts of the brain and the spinal cord
...
one cerebral hemisphere to the other hemisphere
...
parts of the same hemisphere
...
motor and sensory areas of the cerebral cortex
...
75 points out of 1
...
decussation fibers
...
association fibers
...
commissural fibers
...
projection fibers
...
pyramidal fibers
...
00 points out of 1
...
Reabsorb CSF into the blood of the dural sinuses
b
...
Transfer CSF to the cerebral aqueducts
Question
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19
1
...
75
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Question text
In the CNS, clusters of gray matter containing cell bodies are called
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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20
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following brain areas serves as the major control center of the autonomic
nervous system and endocrine system?
Select one:
a
...
midbrain
c
...
thalamus
e
...
50 out of 35
...
75 points out of 1
...
reflexes become faster
...
cutaneous sensation becomes more acute
...
blood pressure decreases
...
reflexes become slower
...
size and weight of the brain increases
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
optic; facial
c
...
trigeminal; accessory
Question
Correct
3
1
...
75
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Question text
Indicate the order of each of the following in a descending pathway
...
1, 2, 3, 4
b
...
1, 3, 2, 4
d
...
1, 4, 3, 2
Question
Correct
4
1
...
75
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Question text
The right cerebral hemisphere
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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5
1
...
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Question text
A primary function of the cerebellum is to
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Incorrect
6
0
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is not associated with the brainstem?
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
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7
0
...
75
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In working memory,
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
8
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of these activities is associated with the left cerebral hemisphere in most people?
Select one:
a
...
mathematics and speech
c
...
recognition of faces
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
norepinephrine
b
...
serotonin
d
...
acetylcholine
Question
Correct
10
1
...
75
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Question text
A baseball pitcher was hit on the side of the head by a line drive
...
This was because
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
11
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is an ascending pathway in the spinal cord?
Select one:
a
...
rubrospinal tract
c
...
tectospinal tract
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
somatic
c
...
undifferentiated
e
...
Question
Correct
13
1
...
75
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Question text
What sense is a source of major input into the limbic system?
Select one:
a
...
hearing
c
...
soft touch
e
...
vision
Question
Correct
14
1
...
75
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Question text
A state of conscious awareness of stimuli received by sensory receptors is called
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
15
1
...
75
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Question text
Rapidly adapting proprioceptors that provide information on the location of a moving hand
are known as
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
Question
Correct
16
1
...
75
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Question text
The taste area is located in the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
Question
Correct
17
1
...
75
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Question text
An example of adaptation of receptors would be _____
...
ignoring the presence of clothes
b
...
continual monitoring touch signals
Question
18
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus would help us
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
19
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Select one:
a
...
adaptation - decreased sensitivity to continued stimulus
c
...
proprioceptors - information about body position
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
painreceptors
...
internoreceptors
...
visceroreceptors
d
...
e
...
Started on
State
Completed on
Time taken
Grade
Wednesday, March 10, 2021, 3:08 PM
Finished
Wednesday, March 10, 2021, 3:35 PM
26 mins 45 secs
33
...
00 (95%)
Question
Correct
1
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following sequences is correct?
Select one:
a
...
round window, helicotrema, scala tympani
c
...
tympanic membrane, vestibular membrane, basilar membrane
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
shift in fluid in the semicircular canals
...
movements of otoliths in response to gravity
...
movements of perilymph in the vestibular chamber
...
impulses transmitted from the macula of the semicircular canals
...
stimulation of the cochlear portion of the nerve
...
75 points out of 1
...
retina
...
optic chiasm
...
sclera
...
cornea
...
conjunctiva
...
75 points out of 1
...
are parallel to each other
...
can detect movement in only one direction
...
have a base called a papilla
...
contain cupulae that respond to gravity
...
allow a person to detect movement in all directions
...
75 points out of 1
...
sty
...
boil
...
chalazion
...
meibomian cyst
...
pinkeye
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
frontal, parietal
c
...
temporal, frontal
Question
Correct
7
1
...
75
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Question text
Which tastant is NOT correctly matched with its process of depolarization?
Select one:
a
...
umami - G protein
c
...
sour - H+
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
be present in high concentrations
...
be one of the seven primary classes of odors
...
be dissolved in fluid covering the olfactory epithelium
...
interact with the mechanoreceptors of the olfactory hair membrane
...
enter the nose slowly
...
75 points out of 1
...
rods
...
cones
...
choroid
...
pigmented retina
...
amacrine cells
...
00 points out of 1
...
vitreous humor, sclera, and iris
...
lens, aqueous humor, and sclera
...
cornea, retina, and vitreous humor
...
lens, cornea and humors of the eye
...
sclera, iris, and retina
...
75 points out of 1
...
Rods cannot detect color
...
The visual pigment of cones is iodopsin
...
Most of the optic tract axons terminate in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
...
Association neurons in the inner retinal layers modify signals of rods and cones
...
Most of the optic tract axons terminate in the medial geniculate nucleus of the
thalamus
...
75 points out of 1
...
pinna
...
oval window
...
tympanic membrane
...
internal auditory meatus
...
ossicles
...
75 points out of 1
...
(1) tectorial membrane
(2) vestibular membrane
(3) tympanic membrane
(4) basilar membrane
Select one:
a
...
3, 4, 1, 2
c
...
2, 4, 3, 1
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Na+
b
...
K+
d
...
Both Na+ and Ca2+
Question
Correct
15
1
...
75
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Question text
The transparent anterior portion of the sclera is the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
16
1
...
75
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Question text
Vitreous humor
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
17
1
...
75
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Question text
More sound volume is perceived when
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
18
1
...
75
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Question text
The ability of the olfactory system to adapt to a particular odor may involve
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
19
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is (are) associated with the retina?
Select one:
a
...
ciliary muscle
c
...
suspensory ligaments
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
smell
b
...
sight
d
...
touch
Started on
State
Completed on
Time taken
Grade
Question
Correct
Wednesday, March 10, 2021, 4:13 PM
Finished
Wednesday, March 10, 2021, 4:27 PM
14 mins 20 secs
35
...
00 (100%)
1
1
...
75
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Question text
If acetylcholine binds to muscarinic receptors,
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
2
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is NOT a means of parasympathetic innervation of effectors?
Select one:
a
...
abdominal nerve plexuses
c
...
cranial nerves to the head and neck
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
somatic motor neuron
c
...
postganglionic neuron
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Select one:
a
...
somatic
c
...
thoracolumbar
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
increased coagulation
b
...
constriction of the pupil
d
...
75 points out of 1
...
preganglionic sympathetic
b
...
postganglionic sympathetic
d
...
postganglionic somatic motor
Question
Correct
7
1
...
75
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Question text
Parasympathetic preganglionic axons from the sacral region of the spinal cord course
through ____ nerves that innervate the ____
...
splanchnic; urinary bladder and adrenal glands
b
...
sacral; lower colon and urinary bladder
d
...
coccygeal; anus and vagina
Question
Correct
8
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is a sympathetic effect?
Select one:
a
...
constriction of the bronchioles in the lungs
c
...
increased heart rate
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
2, 3, 4, 1
b
...
3, 1, 4, 2
d
...
4, 3, 1, 2
Question
10
Correct
1
...
75
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Question text
The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS differ in the
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
11
1
...
75
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Question text
The figure illustrates the parasympathetic division
...
preganglionic neurons
b
...
cranial nerves
d
...
terminal ganglia
Question
Correct
12
1
...
75
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Question text
Which effector has no innervation with parasympathetic nerves?
Select one:
a
...
pancreas
c
...
blood vessels
Question
Correct
13
1
...
75
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Question text
The ________________ division of the ANS functions mainly to prepare the body for
energy-expending, stressful situations
...
craniosacral
b
...
somatic
d
...
sensory
Question
Correct
14
1
...
75
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Question text
The figure illustrates the autonomic reflexes and the heart
...
sympathetic nerve
b
...
glossopharyngeal nerve
d
...
vagus nerve
Question
Correct
15
1
...
75
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Question text
What part of the brain is in overall control of the ANS?
Select one:
a
...
hypothalamus
c
...
cerebrum
Question
Correct
16
1
...
75
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Question text
Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic effect?
Select one:
a
...
contraction of the urinary bladder
c
...
dilation of the bronchioles in the lungs
e
...
75 points out of 1
...
Stimulation of this system often activates many effectors at the same time
Select one:
a
...
parasympathetic
Question
Correct
18
1
...
75
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Question text
When acetylcholine binds to autonomic muscarinic receptors,
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
19
1
...
75
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Question text
The two classes of adrenergic receptors are
Select one:
a
...
b
...
c
...
d
...
e
...
Question
Correct
20
1
...
75
Flag question
Question text
The figure illustrates the autonomic reflexes and the heart
...
sympathetic nerve
b
...
glossopharyngeal nerve
d
...
vagus nerve
Title: A P Quizzes 1-18 With comprehensive Answers
Description: A P Quizzes 1-18 With comprehensive Answers
Description: A P Quizzes 1-18 With comprehensive Answers