Notesale: Turn your study into money

Document Preview

Extracts from the notes are below, to see the PDF you'll receive please use the links above

---

Microbiology
What is the concept of spontaneous generation? - ;living organisms could develop from nonliving or
decomposing matter
Who challenged the concept of spontaneous generation by showing that maggots on decaying meat
came from flies, not from the meat itself? - ;Francesco Redi
Who showed that mutton broth boiled in flasks and then sealed could still develop microorganisms,
which supported the theory of spontaneous generation? - ;John Needham
Who showed that flasks sealed and then boiled had no growth of microorganisms? - ;Lazzaro Spallanzani
Who proposed that air carried germs? - ;Spallanzani
Who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation? - ;Louis Pasteur
Who demonstrated that dust carried microbes and proved evidence for the existence of heat- resistant
forms of bacteria? - ;John Tyndall
Who showed that a silkworm disease was caused by a fungus? - ;Agostino Bassi
Who demonstrated that the Great Potato Blight was caused by a water mold? - ;M
...
Berkely
Who showed that the pebrine disease of silkworms was caused by a protozoan parasite? - ;Louis Pasteur
Who developed a system of surgery designed to prevent microorganisms from entering wounds? - ;John
Lister
Who transformed the practice of surgery? - ;John Lister
Who established the relationship between Bacillus anthracis and anthrax? - ;Robert Koch
What are the Koch Postulates? - ;1
...
The suspected microorganisms must be isolated and grown in pure culture
3
...
The same microorganism must be isolated again from the diseased host
Limitations of Koch's Postulates - ;-Some organisms cannot be grown in pure culture
-Using humans in completing the postulates is unethical
-Molecular and genetic evidence may replace
What vaccination did Edward Jenner make? - ;smallpox vaccination
What vaccinations did Pasteur produce? - ;chicken cholera, rabies and anthrax
Who induced formation of dipped toxin-antitoxins rabbits - ;Emil von Behring and Shibasaburo Kitasato
Who showed that the silkworm disease was caused by fungus? - ;Bassi

Who demonstrated that the Great Potato Blight of Ireland was caused by a water mold? - ;M
...
Berkeley
Who showed that the perbrine disease of silkworms was caused by a protozoan parasite? - ;Louis
Pasteur
A simple morphology and lack a true membrane-delimited nucleus - ;prokaryotes
What is a morphologically complex and has a membrane-enclosed nucleus? - ;Eucaryotes
What let to the discovery of viruses as disease causing agents? - ;bacterial filter that removed bacteria
and larger microbes (Charles Chamberland)
The five kingdom classification scheme is - ;the Monera or Procaryotae, Protista, Fungi, Animalia, and
Plantae
What are ribozymes? - ;RNA molecules that form peptide bonds and perform cellular work and
replication
The three domain scheme is - ;Bacteria, Archaea, and Eucarya
The three domain scheme is based on? - ;a comparaison of ribosomal RNA
The earliest cells may have been - ;RNA surrounded by liposomes
What are the three bacterial morphology? - ;-bacillus (little rod)
-coccus (grain or berry)
-spirillum (coiled or helical)
What are the types of light microscopes? - ;-bright-field microscope
-dark-field microscope
-phase-contrast microscope
-fluorescence microscopes
What is a measure of how greatly a substance slows the velocity of light? - ;Refractive index
The direction and magnitude of bending light in a microscope is determined by the _____ - ;refractive
indexes of the two media forming the interface
Which microscope produces a dark image against a brighter background? - ;the bright-field microscope
What is the product of the magnifications of the ocular lens and the objective lens? - ;the total
magnification
What is the total magnification of the bright field, dark field, and phase-contrast microscopes? - ;2000x
What is the total resolution of the bright field, dark field, and phase contrast microscopes? - ;0
...
Chemical fixing (not the procedure) - ;-heat fixation preserves overall shape but not
internal structures
-chemical fixing protects fine cellular structure and shape of larger, more delicate organisms
What information does differential staining provide? - ;divides microorganisms into groups based on
their staining properties
What is the most widely used differential staining procedure? - ;gram staining
Negative staining - ;the bacteria is not stained; the background is stained
What is shadowing in electron microscopy? - ;coating specimen with a thin film of heavy metal

What is the total magnification of the Transmission Electron Microscope and the Scanning Electron
Microscope? - ;1,000,000x
What is the total magnification of the Scanning Electron Microscope? - ;1,000,000x
Which microscope uses electrons reflected from the surface of a specimen to create an image? ;scanning electron microscope
Which microscope produces a 3-dimensional image of specimen's surface features - ;scanning electron
microscope
In which microscope do the electrons scatter when they pass through thin sections of a specimen? ;Transmission Electron Microscope
Which microscope uses transmitted electrons to produce an image? - ;Transmission Electron Microscope
Spherical or ball-shaped - ;cocci
Rod-shaped or cylindrical - ;bacilli
corkscrew shaped - ;spiral
When two cocci bacteria or stuck together, it is called ____ - ;diplococci
A chain of cocci - ;Streptococcus
Cocci in a grape-like cluster - ;Staphylococcus
Vibrios are - ;curved rods
Describe the spirilla morphology - ;rigid bodies, move by flagella
Spirochetes morphology - ;Flexible bodies, move by axial filaments
Organisms that are variable in shape are called - ;pleomorphic
About 70 percent of antibiotics come from what genus - ;Streptomyces
What is the purpose of the Prokaryotic Cell Membrane - ;-It separates the cell from its environment
-It serves as a selectively permeable barrier
Archaea membranes have what type of phospholipid layer? - ;monolayer
What do most bacteria cells lack? - ;sterols (they have hopanoid)
What is the most widely used model of membrane structure? - ;fluid mosaic model
What is the phospholipid of archaea? - ;L-glycerol
What is the phospholipid of bacteria? - ;D-glycerol
What is the purpose of the complex foldings of the plasma membrane in photosynthetic bacteria? - ;to
increase the surface area available for photosynthesis

What type of plasma membrane do bacteria with high respiratory activity may have? - ;a membrane with
intensive foldings
Macroelements - ;-C, O, H, N, S, P, K, Ca, Mg, and Fe
-required in large amounts
Microelements - ;-Mn, Zn, Co, Mo, Ni, and Cu
-required in trace amounts
Requirements for Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen - ;-often satisfied together
-Autotrophs: use C as their sole carbon source
-Heterotrophs: Use CO2 as their C source
What elements are needed for synthesis of important molecules such as amino acids, nucleic acids ;Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Sulfur
What is the use for amino acids? - ;for protein synthesis
What are purines and pyrimidines used for? - ;nucleic acid synthesis
What is the function of vitamins? - ;they function as enzyme cofactors
Bacteria can only take in _______ particles across a selectively permeable membrane? - ;dissolved
All microorganisms use what type of transport mechanisms? - ;facilitated diffusion and active transport
What type of transport do bacteria and archaea use? - ;group translocation
Which microorganism only use endocytosis? - ;Eukarya
Molecules moving from regions of higher concentration to one of lower concentration between the cell's
interior and the exterior is called ____ - ;passive diffusion
Which molecules can move by passive diffusion? - ;water, O2, and CO2
How does facilitated diffusion differ from passive diffusion? - ;facilitated diffusion uses carrier molecules
to effectively transport glycerol, sugars, and amino acids
Similarities in passive and facilitated diffusion - ;-movement of molecules is not energy dependent
-direction of movement is from high concentration to low concentration
-size of concentration gradient impacts rate of uptake
What is an energy dependent transport process that uses ATP or proton motive force to move molecules
against the gradient
...
g
...
Helps the organism float on the surface - ;Gas vacuoles
An inclusion bodies that contain iron in the form of magnetite - ;Magnetosomes
Types of organic inclusion bodies - ;Poly b-hydroxybutyrate,
Glycogen, Lipid Droplets
Type of inorganic inclusion bodies - ;-Polyphosphate or volition granules (metachromatic granules)
-sulfar granules
Complex structures consisting of protein and RNA

...
;Resistance plasmid
The plasmid that contain genes coding for colicines, proteins that can kill other bacteria - ;Col-plasmids
What is the type plasmid that is able to digest unusual substances? e
...
, toluene or salicylic acid
...
gram positive
b
...
plasma membrane
b
...
archaea
b
...
archaea
b
...
- ;stronger
What provides the extra strength to the plasma membrane in mycoplasma
...
- ;true
Describe the cell wall of acid-fast bacteria - ;-very high lipid content
-characteristic of mycobacterium species
-double or triple layered in cross section
-thin inner peptidoglycan layer (gram +)
-a thin middle layer of arabino-galactan and arabino-mannan (polysaccharides) covalently linked to the
peptidoglycan
-a thick outer layer of glycolipid containing unusual fatty acids such as mycolic acid
What are the bacteria stained with in acid fast staining? - ;hot stains and with phenol-containing stains
What happens after staining the bacteria in acid fast staining? - ;the lipid layer in the wall prevents
decolorization

What type of bacteria cell wall is poorly permeable, grows slowly, and are resistant to chemical
disinfectants and lysosome-mediated destruction? - ;acid-fast
What are archaea closely related to? - ;Eukarya
What feature do archaea and bacteria have in common? - ;genes for metabolism
What feature do archaea and eukarya have in common? - ;genes encoding protein
What makes archaea highly diverse? - ;morphology, physiology, reproduction, and ecology
In what conditions do archaea grow best? - ;anaerobic, hypersaline, pH extremes, and high-temperature
habitats
Archaeal shapes - ;cocci, rods, branched/flat
Archaeal Cell Walls Differ from Bacterial Cell Walls - ;-lack peptidoglycan
-most common cell wall is S layer in archaea
-may have protein sheath external to S layer
-S layer may be outside membrane and separated by pseudomurein
-pseudomurein may be outermost layer - similar to gram-positive microorganisms
What is the function of the cytoskeleton? - ;-cell division
-protein localization
-determination of cell shape
What is the fuction of FtsZ type Tubulin homologs? - ;cell division
What is the function of MreB/Mbl Actin homologs? - ;maintains cell shape, segregates chromosomes,
localizes proteins
Cells are often in what kind of solution?
a
...
hypotonic
c
...
dried foods and jellies
What is the importance of osmotic lysis? - ;the basis of lysozyme and penicillin action
Cells that lack a cell wall are called? - ;protoplast
What are cells called that have some cell wall remaining? - ;spheroplast
Where is the periplasmic space located in gram positive bacteria? - ;between plasma membrane and cell
wall
Where is the periplasmic space located in gram negative bacteria? - ;between plasma membrane and
outer membrane
Where are periplasmic enzymes found? - ;in the periplasm of gram-negative bacteria
What are some of the functions of periplasmic enzymes? - ;-nutrient acquisition
-electron transport
-peptidoglycan synthesis
-modification of toxic compounds
What type of enzyme is secreted by gram-positive bacteria? - ;exoenzymes
What are the functions of exoenzymes? - ;-nutrient acquisition
-electron transport
-peptidoglycan synthesis
-modification of toxic compounds
What are the types of layers of material lying outside the cell wall? - ;capsules, slime layers, and s-layers
What layer outside the cell wall is usually composed of polysaccharides and is well organized and not
easily removed from cell? - ;capsules
What layer outside the cell wall is similar to capsules except diffuse, unorganized and easily removed? ;slime layers
A capsule or slime layer composed of polysaccharides can also be referred to as a _______ - ;Glycocalyx
What layer outside the cell wall is regularly structured in layers of protein or glycoprotein and is common
among archaea? - ;S-layers
What are the functions of capsules, slime layers, and S-layers? - ;-protection from host defenses, from
harsh environmental conditions, viral infections or predation by bacteria
-attachment to surfaces
-mobility

-protection against osmotic stress
What is required for motility or DNA uptake? - ;-fimbriae
-pili
What is required for conjugation? - ;sex pili
Monotrichous - ;one flagellum
Polar flagellum - ;flagellum at end of cell
Amphitrichous - ;one flagellum at each end of cell
Lophotrichous - ;cluster of flagella at one or both ends
Peritrichous flagella - ;spread over entire surface of cell
The counterclockwise movement of the flagellum causes the the cell to move - ;forward (run)
The clockwise movement of the flagellum causes the the cell to move? - ;nowhere (tumble)
Axial filaments cause flexing and spinning movement is called _______ - ;spirochetes
The movement towards a chemical attractant or away from a chemical repellant is called _____ ;chemotaxis
What causes the cell to move toward an attractant? - ;by lowering the frequency of tumbles
What causes the cell to move away from an attractant? - ;by increasing the frequency of runs
What environments are the bacterial endospore resistant to? - ;-heat
-radiation
-chemicals
-desiccation
What is the process of endospore formation called? - ;sporogenesis or sporulation
What causes an endospore to form? - ;when growth ceases due to the lack of nutrients
What makes an endospore so resistant? - ;-calcium to stabilize the DNA
-acid-soluble, DNA-binding protein
-dehydrated core
-spore coat
-DNA repair enzymes
The transformation of endospore into a vegetative cell is called______ - ;germination
Gram positive cells are stained what color? - ;purple

What do prokaryotic cells not contain? - ;sterols
Tuberculosis - ;Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Atypical pneumonia - ;Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Leprosy - ;Mycobacterium leprae
Toxic Shock Syndrome - ;Staphylococcus aureus
Opportunist - ;Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Typhus - ;Rickettsia prowazekii
Most common pneumonia - ;Staphylococcus pneumoniae
Cholera - ;Vibrio cholerae
Rocky Mountain Fever - ;Rickettsia rickettsii
Food poisoning - ;Campylobacter jejuni
What provides a complex environment required for cellular activities? - ;cytoplasm matrix
What does the cytoplasm of eukaryotes consist of? - ;liquids, the cytosol, and many organelles
What is a vast network of interconnected filaments within the cytoplasmic matrix? - ;cytoskeleton
What are the filaments that form the cytoskeleton? - ;-microfilaments (actin)
-microtubules
-intermediate filaments
-motor protein
What is the purpose of the cytoskeleton? - ;plays role in both shape of the cell and cell movement
What is involved in cell motion and shape changes? - ;microfilaments
What protein is microfilaments made of? - ;actin
What helps maintain cell shape? - ;microtubules
What is the purpose of microtubules? - ;-help maintain cell shape
-involved with microfilaments in cell movement
-participate in intracellular transport processes
What are the heterogeneous elements of the cytoskeleton? - ;intermediate filaments
Which cell organelle transports proteins, lipids, and other materials within the cell? - ;ER
What is the major site of cell membrane synthesis? - ;ER
The membranous organelle made of cisternae stacked on each other? - ;Golgi Apparatus

Stacks of cisternae are called - ;dictyosomes
What is the function of the Golgi Apparatus? - ;-modification
-packaging
-secretion of materials
Membrane-bound vesicles are called - ;endosomes
Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes needed for digestion of macromolecules? - ;lysosomes
The uptake of solutes or particles by enclosing them in vesicles or vacuoles pinched off from the plasma
membrane? - ;endocytosis
What are the two types of endocytosis? - ;phagocytosis and pinocytosis
Phagocytosis - ;the uptake of large particles
Pinocytosis - ;uptake of small amounts of liquids with its solute molecules
What is the function of lysosomes? - ;-break down materials and waste
-host defense (destruction of bacteria by white blood cells)
Where can proteasomes be observed? - ;-eukaryotes
-some bacteria
-many archaea
Nonlysosomal protein degradation system - ;proteasomes
These ribosomes synthesize non-secretory proteins and non-membrane proteins
...
- ;polyribosomes (polysomes)
The location of enzymes and electron carriers for electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation
...
- ;Pyrenoid
Nuclear envelope - ;-double membrane structure that delimits nucleus
-penetrated by nuclear pores, pores allow materials to be transported into or out of nucleus

What are the reproductive strategies of bacteria and archaea? - ;haploid only, asexual - binary fission,
budding, filamentous
What are the two cycles of the Prokaryotic cell cycle? - ;- DNA replication and partition
- cytokinesis
What is considered the cell cycle of bacteria cells? - ;the replication of the cells
What is the beginning of the cell cycle in bacteria cells? - ;the replication of genetic material
The site at which replication begins
...
- ;terminus
Replisome - ;group of proteins needed for DNA synthesis
Lag phase? - ;-cell synthesizing new components
-varies in length
Exponential Phase - ;-also called log phase
-rate of growth is constant
-population is most uniform in terms of chemical and physical properties during this phase
In what phase does the total number of viable cells remains constant? - ;stationary phase
Possible reasons for entry into stationary phase - ;-nutrient limitation
-limited oxygen availability
-toxic waste accumulation
-critical population density reached
What are the responses to starvation of a cell? - ;-morphological changes
e
...
, endospore formation
-decrease in size, protoplast shrinkage, and nucleoid condensation
-production of starvation proteins
-long term survival
-increased virulence
Death Phase - ;-cells dying at exponential rate
-death
--irreversible loss of ability to reproduce
-in some cases, death rate slows due to accumulation of resistant cells

Time required for the population to double in size? - ;generation (doubling time)
Mean growth rate constant - ;-number of generations per unit time
-usually expressed as generations per hour
What are the two ways one can measure microbial growth? - ;-changes in the number of cells in
population
-measure mass of population
What are the two ways of measuring the number of cells? - ;-direct count
-viable cell count
What are counting chambers useful for? - ;-counting eukaryotes and prokaryotes
What is the disadvantage of using counting chambers? - ;gives the count of both living and dead cells
A machine that pumps cells through its opening (orific) and counts the number of cells through electron
currents? - ;electron counter
What are electron counters used for? - ;large microorganisms and blood cells, not procaryotes
What is the disadvantage of using electron counters? - ;gives the count of both living and dead cells
Direct count on membrane filters - ;-cells filtered through special membrane that provides dark
background for observing cells
-cells are stained with fluorescent dyes
-useful for counting bacteria
-with certain dyes, can distinguish living from dead cells
What regulates the flow rate of media through vessel to maintain a predetermined turbidity or cell
density? - ;the Turbidostat
Turbidostat operates best at _____ dilution rates - ;high
Importance of Continuous Culture Methods - ;-constant supply of cells in exponential phase growing at a
known rate
-study of microbial growth at very low nutrient concentrations, close to those present in natural
environment
-study of interactions of microbes under conditions resembling those in aquatic environments
-food and industrial microbiology
What are extremophiles? - ;organisms that grow under extreme conditions
Organisms that grow over wide ranges of water activity
...
5 - ;acidophiles
Organisms that can grow in pH levels between 5
...
5 and 11
...
- ;maximum
What is the distance between the minimum and maximum temperatures? - ;30 degrees
Psychrophiles - ;Organisms that can grow in extremely cold temperatures (10 degrees C)
Psychrotrophs - ;Organisms that can grow in cold temperatures (20 degrees C)
Mesophiles - ;Organisms that grow in warm temperatures (35 degrees C)
Thermophiles - ;Organisms that grow in hot temperatures (65 degrees C)
Hyperthermophiles - ;Organisms that grow in extremely high temperatures (90 degrees C)
What type of organisms have more saturated fatty acids? - ;Hyperthermophiles
What type of organisms have more unsaturated fatty acids? - ;Phychrophiles
Organisms that need oxygen
...
- ;Facultative anaerobe
Organisms that don't need oxygen but can still grow in the presence of oxygen
...
- ;strict anaerobe
Organisms that require a less concentration of oxygen that is present in the atmosphere
...
gamma and x-ray
What are the effects of UV radiation on organisms? - ;-mutation ---> death
-causes formation of thymine dimers in DNA
-DNA damage can be repaired by two mechanisms
*photoreactivation - dimers split in presence of light
*dark reactivation - dimers excised and replaced in absence of light
What are the effects of visible light on organisms? - ;-at high intensities generates singlet oxygen
What protects light exposed microorganisms from photooxidation? - ;carotenoid pigments
Non-cultuable Vegetative Prokaryotes - ;microorganisms that can temporarily lose their ability to grow
using normal cultivation methods
Microbial communication and cooperation - ;Quorum sensing
How do microorganisms communicate? - ;by secreting and detecting chemical signals
What chemical is produced by many gram-negative cells for communication? - ;acylhomoserine lactone
(AHL)
Process of Quorum Sensing - ;-AHL or other signal molecules diffuse across plasma membrane
...
Once inside the cell, it induces expression of target genes that regulate
a variety of functions
What is needed to grow, transport, and store microorganisms in the lab? - ;culture media
Defined or synthetic media - ;all components and their concentration of media are known
Complex media - ;contains some ingredients of unknown composition and/or their concentration
Media Components - ;Peptone( protein hydrolysis)
Extracts (beef or yeast)
Agar
Supportive or general media - ;support the growth of many microorganisms
ex
...
EMB and TSA
Differential Media - ;distinguish between different groups of microorganisms based on their biological
characteristics

Pure Culture - ;A population of cells arising from a single cell
Techniques used to isolate pure culture - ;streak plate
pour plate
spread plate
The destruction or removal of all viable organisms
...
- ;Disinfection
The reduction of microbial population to levels deemed safe
...
;antiseptics
Agents that kill microorganisms or inhibit their growth
...
bactericides, fungicides, algicides, and viricides
When are microorganisms considered dead? - ;when they are unable to reproduce in conditions that
normally support their reproduction
What are the factors that influence the killing of microorganisms? - ;-population size (smaller=better)
-population composition
-concentration or intensity of an antimicrobial agent (more=better)
-duration of exposure (longer=better)
-temperature (higher=better)
-local enviornment (pH, viscosity, concentration)
What are physical methods of killing microorganisms? - ;heat
low temperatures
filtration
radiation
Which heat killing method is most effective against all types of microorganisms? - ;moist heat

How is moist heat effective in killing microorganisms? - ;degrades nucleic acids, denatures proteins, and
disrupts membranes
Which heat killing method is less effective? - ;dry heat
Thermal Death Time - ;the shortest time needed to kill all microorganisms in a suspension at a specific
temperature and under defined conditions
Time required to kill 90% of microorganisms or spores in a sample at a specific temperature - ;Decimal
Reduction Time
What is an autoclave used for? - ;-to kill endospores efficiently
- uses saturated steam under pressure to reach temperatures
above boiling
What is pasteurization? - ;reduces total microbial population and thereby increases the shelf life of
treated material
Flash pasteurization - ;72°C for 15 seconds then rapid cooling
Ultrahigh-temperature sterilization - ;140 to 150°C for 1 to 3 seconds
Reduces microbial population or sterilizes solutions of heat-sensitive materials by removing
microorganisms and is also used to reduce microbial populations in air
...
- ;selective
toxicity
The drug level required for clinical treatment
...
- ;Toxic dose
The ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose
...
- ;Streptomyces spp
...
less than
b
...
equal too - ;great than
What can impact the pathogen by targeting some function necessary for its reproduction or survival? ;Antimicrobial Agents
Sulfonamides (Sulfa drugs) - ;-inhibit folic acid synthesis
-broad spectrum
What are the factors influencing the effectiveness of antimicrobial drugs? - ;-ability of drug to reach site
of infection
-susceptibility of pathogen to drug
-ability of drug to reach concentrations in body that exceed MIC of pathogen
The ability of a drug to reach the site of the infection depends on what? - ;mode of administration
e
...
oral, topical, nonoral routes (parenteral)
What is the most crucial feature of the Penicillin molecule? - ;Beta-lactam ring

Most Penicillians are ______ derivatives
...
- ;Phenol Coefficient Test
The __________ __________ ___________ is the length of time it takes for a population of
microorganisms to double in number
...
- ;colony
Many bacteria facilitate the uptake of iron by secreting low molecular weight molecules, called
__________, to form complexes with the iron that can then be readily transported into the cell
...
- ;HEPA
An agent that kills bacteria is referred to as __________
...
- ;Growth Factors
Growth media that will support the growth of many different types of microorganisms are called
__________ __________ growth media, whereas those that are supplemented by blood or other
nutrient sources in order to support the growth of fastidious organisms are called __________ media
...
- ;edges;
center
Test organisms for phenol coefficient test are:
A
...
__________ - ;A
...
Staphylococcus aureus
NAD stands for __________
...
- ;Non-competitive
When a chemotherapeutic agent is effective against many different pathogens, it is said to be a
__________ antibiotic
...
- ;Clostridium botulinum
In the of case of the plating techniques, bacterial populations are expressed as __________
...
- ;Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide
A molecule that binds non-covalently to an enzyme at the active site and thereby prevents a substrate
from binding and reacting is a(n) ___________ inhibitor
...
;km
Plasmids that carry genes responsible for antibiotic resistance are called __________
...
- ;Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate
__________ is a continuous culture system where an essential nutrient is in limiting quantities
...
- ;Thermophiles
Nutrients required in large quantities are called __________
...
- ;Disinfection
The molecules formed by an enzyme-catalyzed reaction are called ___________
...
- ;Minimal lethal concentration
(MLC)
A process in which molecules are chemically modified and simultaneously transported into the cell is
called __________
...
- ;Saturated
Randomness or disorder of a system is called _________
...
- ;Bacteriostatic
A reaction in which the forward rate is equal to the reserve rate is said to be at __________
...
- ;Fungicide

Disruption of an enzyme's structure with loss of activity caused by extremes of pH, temperature, or
other factors is called __________
...
- ;Unsaturated
__________ radiation is an effective means of sterilization but is limited only to surface
...
If the transport is in the same direction it is called
___________; if the transport is in opposite directions it is called ___________
...
- ;batch
The prevention of infection caused by microorganisms is called - ;antisepsis
The killing or removal of all viable organisms is called - ;sterilization
The killing of vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects is called ;disinfection
Which of the following is not a form of ionization radiation?
A
...
X radiation
C
...
All of these are forms of ionizing radiation - ;Ultraviolent (UV) radiation at 260 nm
T or F Heavy metals are effective antimicrobial agents but are not widely used because of their high
toxicity to humans
...
Among the
halophiles, mannitol fermenters will release acid that turns the pH indicator yellow: mannitol
nonfermenters leave the medium red
...
In this case, the medium is acting as (a) __________ medium(s) ;differential

Mannitol salt agar (MSA) only allows the growth of halophiles: non halophiles will not grow
...
Onto MSA you inoculate a halophilic mannitol nonfermenter and
a nonhalophilic mannitol nonfermenter
...
- ;false
Which of the following is considered a cardinal growth temperature?
A
...
The maximum temperature
C
...
All of these are considered cardinal growth temperatures - ;All
Organisms that do not require oxygen for growth but grow better in its presence are called - ;facultative
anaerobes
Nutrients can be concentrated from dilute solutions by - ;active transport and group translocation
Which of the following is MOST effective against resistant endospores?
A
...
glutaraldhyde
C
...
all of these are very effective against endospores - ;autoclaving
T or F Alcohols are widely used as antiseptic and disinfectants because they are effective against
endospores as well as vegetative cells
...
- ;true
T or F When a young, vigorously growing culture of bacteria is transformed to fresh medium of the
different composition, the lag phase is usually short or absent
...
- ;iodophors
Organisms that obtain energy from the oxidation of either inorganic or organic compounds are called ;chemotrophs
Organisms that obtain electrons from the oxidation of organic compounds are called - ;organotrophs
When comparing dry heat and moist heat sterilization, dry heat is - ;slower
Which of these methods can be used to determine the number of viable organisms in a sample?

A
...
measuring total cell mass
C
...
counting a known volume of cells in a hemocytometer - ;c
Which of the following can not be used to estimate the viable count of microorganisms in a culture?
A
...
measurements of microbial biomass
C
...
none of the above
E
...
- ;continuous
T or F Ultraviolet radiation is generally more harmful than ionizing radiation
...
- ;true
The total number of viable microorganisms remains constant in stationary phase because
A
...
there is a cessation of cell division even though the cells may remain metabolically active
C
...

D
...
the condition of the microorganisms
B
...
both a and b are correct
D
...
- ;true

Microbial populations are reduced by __________ when exposed to a lethal agent
...
spread plates
B
...
pour plates
D
...
concentration of the agent
B
...
temperature
D
...
two of the choices - ;d
T or F Penicillin is frequently injected but not normally given orally because it is rapidly degraded in the
stomach - ;true
Organisms that grow well at 0 degrees and have optimum growth temperatures of 15 degrees or lower
are called - ;psychrophiles
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration by
random thermal agitation is called - ;passive diffusion
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration with the
use of a carrier molecule embedded in the membrane is called - ;facilitated diffusion
Sterilization is accomplished by _________ all viable microorganisms
...
killing
B
...
either killing or removing

D
...
0 x 10^6 cells per mL and a generation time of 40 minutes,
how long does it take the culture to reach a density of 1
...
- ;2 hours
Given a log phase bacterial culture with 10^6 cells per mL and a generation time of 30 minutes, how long
does it take the culture to reach a density of 1
...
- ;2 hours
Given a log phase bacterial culture with 10^6 cells per mL and a generation time of 45 minutes, how long
does it take the culture to reach a density of 6
...
- ;4
...
saturable uptake
B
...
can move materials against a concentration gradient
D
...
phenol
B
...
ethylene oxide
D
...
- ;false
Cells may enter stationary phase because of
A
...
a lack of available oxygen
C
...
all of the choices - ;all
Agar is an excellent gelling agent for microbiological media because - ;it is not degraded by most
microorganisms and solid agar remains solid until the temperature is raised to 100 degrees C, and liquid
agar remains liquid if the temperature is lowered to 45 degrees C
Which of the following can be most useful to isolate pure cultures of oxygen sensitive bacteria from
mixtures?
A
...
streak plates
C
...
all of the choices - ;pour plates
The membranes of psychrophilic bacteria have relatively high levels of __________ fatty acids, which
allow them to remain semi-fluid at cold temperatures
...
The cells may be old and depleted of ATP, essential cofactors, and ribosomes that must be synthesized
before growth can begin
...
The medium may be different from the previous growth medium so that the cells must synthesize new
enzymes to use different nutrients
...
The organisms may have been injured and require time to recover
...
All these are potential reasons
...
- ;true
T or F Ultraviolet radiation is an effective means of sterilizing surfaces - ;true
T or F Aerobic organisms do produce protective enzymes called superoxide dismutase and catalase
...
pH
B
...
concentration of organic matter
D
...
It can be used only to remove organisms from liquids
B
...
It can be used only to remove organisms from liquids and it does not truly sterilize because it removes
rather than kills microorganisms
D
...
lead acetate

B
...
silver nitrate
D
...
only B and C are correct - ;e
Although heavy metals are no longer widely used as germicides, __________ is an effective algicide in
lakes and swimming pools
...
lysozyme
B
...
bacteriostatic agent
D
...
autoclaving
B
...
use of chemicals
D
...

- ;true
The standard reduction potential of a redox reaction is a measure of the tendency of the __________ to
__________ electrons
...
;true
A nonprotein component of an enzyme that is loosely attached to the protein component is referred to
as a(n) - ;coenzyme
A chemical reaction that requires an input of energy in order to proceed is __________
...
enzymatic inactivation of the drug
B
...
an alternate metabolic pathway that bypasses the drug-sensitive step
D
...
Viral metabolism resembles that of their hosts so there is no selective point of attack
...
Viruses use the metabolic machinery of their hosts, which limits many of the potential points of
attack
...
Viruses have no metabolism and therefore offer no selective point of attack
...
Actually, viruses are not difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents
...
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
B
...
disrupters of cell membrane structure
D
...
- ;true
T or F A drug that disrupts a microbial function not found in animal cells usually has a higher therapeutic
index - ;true
T or F Grisofulvin is used to treat systemic mycoses
...
- ;true
Which of the following antibiotic(s) is (are) broad spectrum?
A
...
Ampicillin (B)
C
...
Vancomycin (N)
E
...
Each carrier is selective and will transport only a closely related set of
substances
...
They contain nucleus

B
...
They do not divide by mitosis
D
...
All contain a single circular DNA molecule as genetic material - ;c
97
...
active transport
B
...
facilitated diffusion
D
...
the use of DNA for the storage of genetic information
B
...
the presence of membrane delimited organelles within the cytoplasm
D
...
This is
because - ;bacterial cell walls have a unique structure not found in eukaryotic cells
...
functions to degrade most eukaryotic proteins
B
...
hydrolyzes ubiquitin-marked eukaryotic proteins in an ATP dependent process
D
...

A
...
turnover lysosome
C
...
autophagic vacuole - ;autophagic vacuole

...
killing pathogenic microorganisms
B
...
increasing the shelf life of the product
D
...
- ;flash
Enzymes reduce the activation energy for a reaction by
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;c
The __________ is the electron donor in a redox reaction
...
- ;oxidant
Which of the following is used as an electron carrier by living organisms?
A
...
NADP+
C
...
all of these are used as electron carriers by living organisms - ;d
Competitive inhibition can be overcome by adding excess - ;substrate
If all available enzyme molecules are binding substrate and converting it to product as rapidly as
possible, the reaction is said to be proceeding at __________ velocity
...
- ;true
T or F When the amount of enzyme present is held constant, the rate of a reaction will continue to
increase as long as the substrate concentration increases
...
- ;false
Which of the following is (are) normally treated by topical application of antifungal drugs?
A
...
superficial mycoses
C
...
intramuscular mycoses - ;b
Which of the following is not a method of heat sterilization?
A
...
tyndallization
C
...
all of these are methods of heat sterilization - ;c
Moist heat sterilizes by - ;denaturing protein
Which of the following is a desirable general characteristic of antimicrobial drugs?
A
...
broad spectrum of activity
C
...
all of the above - ;d
T or F The trace amounts of micronutrients needed by microorganisms can usually be supplied in water
and regular media components
...
formation/existence of endospores
B
...
inherent/genetic differences among organisms
D
...
a larger population of microorganisms
B
...
killing will be equally as rapid in a large or a small microbial population

D
...
- ;false
T or F Dry heat methods usually require higher temperatures and longer exposure times than moist heat
methods to achieve the same degree of killing because of the drying effects of this form of heat
...
tricarboxylic acid cycle enzyme reactions
B
...
ATP synthesis
D
...
the genetic potential of the organism
B
...
the number of cells initially inoculated into the culture vessel
D
...
ethylene oxide
B
...
gamma-ray
D
...
Enzymes are catalysts and therefore, increase the rate of a reaction while not being permanently
altered by the reaction
B
...
Enzymes are highly specific for the substrates they react with and catalyze only one or a limited set of
possible reactions with those substrates
D
...
allosteric regulation
B
...
feedback (end product) inhibition
D
...
Only A and C - ;D
T or F The equilibrium constant for a redox reaction is called the standard reduction potential
...
on the chromosome
B
...
on mitochondrial DNA
D
...
both b and c - ;d
When antiseptics and disinfectants are compared, antiseptics are generally
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
Autoclaving
...
Incineration
...
Pasteurization
...
Heating in a dry air oven
...
bacterial endospores
...
fungal spores
...
viruses
...
bacterial endospores and fungal spores
...
is a type of nonionizing radiation
...
has poor penetrating power
...
is used to sterilize some food products
...
has a longer wavelength than UV radiation
...
milk
B
...
beer
D
...
Kill any pathogens present
...
Retard spoilage
...
Sterilize beverages
...
Kill any pathogens present and retard spoilage
...
killing pathogenic microorganisms
B
...
increasing the shelf life of the product
D
...
its inherent detergent action
...
membrane damage and protein denaturation
...
oxidation of disulfide bonds in proteins
...
extraction of lipids from membranes
...
damage to nucleic acids and proteins caused by free radicals
...

A
...
ethanol; isopropanol
C
...
methanol; isopropanol - ;b
Disinfectants are generally regulated by the
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;b
Antiseptics are generally regulated by the
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;a
Anthrax - ;Bacillus anthracis
Listeria monocytogenes - ;Listeriosis
What is the development and spread of drug-resistant pathogens? - ;Superinfection
How to prevent emergence of drug resistance? - ;-give drug in high concentrations
-give two or more drugs at same time
-use drugs only when necessary
-possible future solutions
What drug is used to prevent influenza infections by blocking penetration and uncoats the virus? ;Amantadine
What drug inhibits herpes virus enzymes involved in DNA and RNA
synthesis and function? - ;Adenine arabinoside
What drug inhibits herpes
virus and cytomegalovirus
DNA polymerase? - ;Foscarnet
What drug inhibits herpes virus DNA polymerase? - ;Acyclovir
What is a broad-spectrum anti-DNA drug for viruses? - ;Cidofovir
What drug reverses the nucleotide transcription for HIV? - ;Azidothymidine (AZT) or zidovudine
What is the viral protease inhibitor for HIV? - ;Ritonavir

Reverse transcription inhibitors for viruses? - ;-Azidothymidine (AZT) or zidovudine
- Lamivudine (3TC)
Protease inhibitors for viruses? - ;Ritonavir
What is metabolism? - ;the total of all chemical reactions in the cell and is divided into two parts
What are the two types of metabolism? - ;anabolism and catabolism
Catabolism - ;-fueling reactions
-energy-conserving reactions
-provide ready source or reducing power (electrons)
-generate precursors for biosynthesis
Anabolism - ;-the synthesis of complex organic molecules from simpler ones
-requires energy from fueling reactions
What are the four types of work carried out by organisms? - ;-energy
-chemical work
-transport work
-mechanical work
What is energy? - ;capacity to do work or to cause particular changes
What is chemical work? - ;synthesis of complex molecules
What is transport work? - ;take up of nutrients, elimination of wastes, and maintenance of ion balances
What is mechanical work? - ;movement of organisms or cells and movement of internal structures
What is used to transfer energy from the cell's energy conserving systems to the systems that carry out
cellular work? - ;ATP
What is the first law of thermodynamics? - ;Energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can be changed
from one form to another
...
This is an example of what? - ;the first law of thermodynamics
What is the second law of thermodynamics? - ;Energy cannot be changed from one form into another
without a loss of usable energy
...

This is related to which law of thermodynamics? - ;the second law

When muscles convert chemical energy in ATP to mechanical energy, some is lost as heat
...

The change in free energy is noted as what symbol? - ;delta G
What does negative delta G represent? - ;products have less free energy than reactants; the reaction
occurs spontaneously
...
- ;protein catalysts
____ is a substance that increases the rate of a reaction without being permanently altered - ;catalysts
What are reacting molecules? - ;substrates
Substances formed by reactions? - ;products
What is a apoenzyme? - ;protein component of an enzyme
Nonprotein component of an enzyme is called? - ;cofactor
How do enzymes lower the activation energy? - ;-By increasing concentrations of substrates at active site
of enzyme
-By orienting substrates properly with respect to each other in order to form the transition-state
complex
As the concentration of substrates increase, the rate of the reaction _____ - ;increases
What happens to the enzyme's structure and activity when the temperature and pH rises too much
above optima? - ;denaturation
directly competes with binding of substrate to active site? - ;competitive inhibitor
Binds enzyme at site other than active site; changes enzyme's shape so that it becomes less active ;noncompetitive inhibitor
Who discovered that some RNA molecules also catalyze reactions? - ;Thomas Cech and Sidney Altman
What is the importance of regulating metabolism? - ;conservation of energy and materials
What are the three major mechanisms for regulating metabolism? - ;-metabolic channeling

-regulation of the synthesis of a particular enzyme (transcriptional and translational)
-direct stimulation or inhibition of the activity of a critical enzyme
What is metabolic channeling? - ;Differential localization of enzymes and metabolites
What is feedback inhabitation (product inhabitation)? - ;inhibition of one or more critical enzymes in a
pathway that regulates entire pathway
Where can the ED-pathway be found? - ;E
...
- ;Protein Motive Force
Chemoorganic fueling processes use what type of electron acceptor? - ;endogenous
What process does not involve the use of an electron transport chain nor the generation of a proton
motive force? - ;chemoorganic fueling processes- fermentation
How is ATP synthesized in chemoorganic fueling processes (fermentation)
...
NADH is converted
into NADH
In what organisms is the Kreb's cycle common? - ;aerobic bacteria, free-living protozoa, most algae, and
fungi
For each acetyl-CoA molecule oxidized, the TCA cycle generates: - ;2 molecules of CO2
3 molecules of NADH
one FADH2
one GTP
What is oxidized in the electron transport chain? - ;most ATP made from NADH and FADH2
What do reducing agents do in Redox reactions? - ;donate electrons
What do oxidizing agents do in redox reactions? - ;electron acceptor
A measurement of the tendency of reducing agents to lose electrons
...
- ;negative ;positive
What is the released energy from the Electron Transport Chain used to make? - ;ATP by oxidation
phosphorylation
Where is the Procaryotic ETCs located? - ;plasma membrane
What is the Glycolytic Pathway also called? - ;Embden- Meyerhof Pathway
What is the Pentose Phosphate Pathway also called? - ;Hexose Monophosphate Pathway
Where are Prokaryotic ETC located? - ;plasma membrane
How do Prokaryotic ETC differ from Mitochondrial ETC? - ;different electron carriers
may be branched
may be shorter
may have lower P/O ratio
What is the most widely accepted explanation of oxidative phosphorylation? - ;chemiosmotic hypothesis
Energy released during electron transport is used to establish a proton gradient and charge difference
across the membrane
...
- ;True
The reduction of Nitrate to nitrogen gas is called _____ - ;denitrification
What causes lose of soil fertility? - ;denitrification
An energy yielding process in which indigenous organic molecules serve as both electron donors and
acceptors

...
glycogen, starch, PHB
Enzyme that hydrolyzes protein to amino acids
...
- ;Deamination
What is the result of deamination? - ;resulting organic acids converted to pyruvate, acetyl-CoA, or TCA
cycle intermediate

Oxidation of Inorganic molecules are carried out by _____ - ;chemolithotrophs
In sulfur-oxidizing bacteria, ATP can be synthesized by ____ - ;both oxidative phosphorylation and
substrate-level phosphorylation
T or F: Chemolithotrophs may switch from chemolithotrophic metabolism to chemoorganotrophic
metabolism - ;True
T or F: Chemolithotrophs may switch from autotrophic metabolism (via Calvin cycle) to heterotrophic
metabolism - ;True
What is photosynthesis? - ;energy from light trapped and converted to chemical energy
Reactions in which light energy is trapped and converted to chemical energy
...
- ;virion
Consists of 1 or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in coat of protein - ;virion
T or F: Virions cannot reproduce independent of living cells nor carry out cell division but can exist
extracellularly
...
- ;Lytic cycle
Phages that lyse their host during the reproductive cycle/ - ;Virulent phages
Specific surface structures on the host to which viruses attach - ;Receptor sites
Protects phage DNA from host restriction endonucleases
enzymes that cleave DNA at specific sequences - ;HMC glucosylation
Proteins that aid in the construction of procapsid
...
;Corynebacterium diphtheriae
How do naked viruses release virions? - ;by lysis of host cells
How do envelope viruses release virions? - ;formation of envelope and release usually occur
concurrently
Lysosome damage causes the release of ______ enzymes into cell
...
- ;protease
Microscopic or Macroscopic degenerative changes or abnormalities in the infected host cells and tissues
are called __________ ____________
...
- ;capsomers
In glycolytic pathway the conversion of Glucose to Glucose-6 Phosphate is catalized by an enzyme called
_______
...
- ;chemiosmosis

...
- ;peplomers
Disaccharides and polysaccharides can be processed as nutrients after first being cleaved to
monosaccharides by either ____________ or __________
...
- ;substrate-level
A process that involves the use of pryruvate and/or pyruvate derivatives as electrion acceptors is called
_________________
...
- ;endolysin, nolin
Change in host phenotype induced by lysogeny is called _______ _________
...
- ;Pasteur effect
The most commonly accepted hypothesis for the production of ATP that results from electron transport
system is called the ___________ hypothesis
...
;oxygen,anaerobic
When mitochondria pass electrons donated by NADH through the electron transport chain to molecular
oxygen, a theoretical maximum of _____ molecules of ATP can be made oxygen molecule reduced
...
- ;Histones
Viruses that are polyhedrons with 20 sides are said to have _______ symmetry
...
- ;peplomer
Localized areas of destruction occurring on plants that have been infected by a virus are referred to as
__________ lesions
...
- ;catabolism
For further derivation of energy, aerobic cells must convert pyruvate into acetyl coenzyme A by stripping
off a CO2 molecule
...
- ;oxidative decarbylation
Plants, algae and cyanobacteria use a two-stage type _________ in the light dependent reactions
...
- ;scaffolding
A bacterium carrying a dormant phage inserted in the chromosome is called a ____________
...
- ;transferase, transaldolase
Major photosynthetic pigment in purple sulphur bacteria is ___________________
...
- ;aldolase OR 1,6 bi phosphate aldolase
The Phage genome inserted in the chromosome of bacteria is called a __________
...
- ;Ligase
In glycolysis (pentose) phosphate cycle 3-phosphogluconate is decarboxylated to a 5C sugar called
__________
...
- ;mitochondria
Fats undergo a process called _______ oxidation, in which the products are acetyl coenzyme molecules ;Beta-oxidation

Even though the Calvin cycle reactions require the products of the light reactions, its reactions can occur
in the ____________
...
- ;homolactic
Disruption of an enzyme's structure with loss of activity caused by extremes of pH, temperature, or
other factors is called _______________
...
- ;transition
The molecules formed by an enzyme-catalyzed reaction are called _________
...
temperate infection
...
avirulent infection
C
...
alytic infection - ;lysogemy
Which of the following is not true of viroids?
A
...

B
...

C
...
All of these are true of viroids
...
Viroids do infect plants and some procaryotic cells
Which of the following is not true of viroids?
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;D
...

Which of the following is not true of viroids?
A
...

B
...


C
...

D
...
- ;D
...

Which of the following can serve as phage receptor sites?
A
...
pili
C
...
All of these can serve as phage receptor sites - ;D
...
- ;false
What do the EM and ED pathways have in common?
A
...
They require oxygen
C
...
All of the above - ;A
...
They are considered types of glycolytic pathways
B
...
They are found only in obligate anaerobes
D
...
Two of the above
...
They are considered types of glycolytic pathways
T or F Metabolic pathways can be either catabolic or anabolic but not both - ;false
Which of the following is not a mechanism by which viruses cause cancer?
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;C
...

T or F Both ED and EM pathways are very common in bacteria - ;false
T or F Parvoviruses are the simplest known animal viruses
...
formation of the virion capsid
B
...
lysis of host cells
D
...
All of these are functions of late viral proteins
T or F The Voges-Proskauer test is positive for butanediol fermenters but negative for mixed acid
fermenters
...
Citrate reacts with oxaloacetate to form acetyl CoA
B
...
NAD is regenerated
D
...
Carbon dioxide, reduced coenzymes, and ATP (GTP) are produced
T or F Metabolism of fats produces more ATP molecules per gram than metabolism of carbohydrates or
proteins
...
Which of the following is most true of a viral DNA genome?
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;B
...

The number of ATP molecules generated per atom of oxygen that is reduced electrons are passed from
NADH or reduced FAD (FADH) to dioxygen
A
...
energy yield
C
...
phosphorylation coefficient - ;P/O ratio
Which liberates the most energy in the formation of ATP?
A
...
Sugar fermentation

C
...
Anaerobic respiration - ;C
...
Viral capsid protein subunits are called
A
...
elastomers
C
...
viromers - ;C
...
The envelope proteins are virus specific
B
...
Both of these answers are true
D
...
Both of these answers are true
What occurs when a pyruvate molecule proceeds toward and through the Krebs cycle?
A
...
Pyruvate converted to heat energy
C
...
Carbon dioxide combine with acetyl CoA and form oxaloacetate - ;A
...

A
...
oxidative
C
...
conformational change - ;substrate level
The function of the viral protein coat is to
A
...
aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells
C
...
neither protect the viral genetic material nor aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between
host cells - ;C
...

A
...
ethanol
C
...
methanol - ;Carbon dioxide
T or F The most efficient pathway for ATP production in animal cells is by glycolysis
...
specific surface proteins on the bacteriophage
B
...
both specific surface proteins on the bacteriophage and specific receptor proteins on the host cell
D
...
both specific surface proteins on the bacteriophage and specific receptor proteins on the
host cell
Amino acids are processed first by the removal of the amino group through
A
...
transamination
C
...
neither deaminiation or transamination - ;C
...
energy production
B
...
both energy production and provision of carbon skeletons for biosynthesis of cell components
D
...

both energy production and provision of carbon skeletons for biosynthesis of cell components
The major function(s) of the TCA cycle is(are)
A
...
provision of carbon skeletons for biosynthesis of cell components

C
...
energy production and provision of carbon skeletons for biosynthesis of cell components - ;D
...
During breakdown of fatty acids, carbons are removed __________ at a time as __________
...
one; carbon dioxide
B
...
two; acetyl-CoA
D
...
two; acetyl-CoA
The most common type of molecule functioning as an animal virus receptor is a
A
...
glycoprotein
C
...
teichoic acid - ;glycoprotein
T or F The injection mechanism used by bacteriophages whereby the nucleic acid penetrates the cell
leaving the protein coat outside is not used by any known animal viruses - ;false
A __________ genome exists as several separate, nonidentical molecules that may be packaged together
or separately
...
diploid
B
...
polyploid
D
...

A
...
minus-stranded
C
...
None of these - ;plus-stranded
In which of the following stages of the viral infectious cycle do enveloped viruses usually acquire their
envelopes?
A
...
component biosynthesis
C
...
release - ;release
Which of the following is NOT true regarding ATP synthases?
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
This takes place only in bacteria
B
...
PMF is based on the differential concentration of the proton across the membrane
D
...
This takes place only in bacterial cells
...
It reduces organic carbon compounds
...
PMF is based on the differential concentration of the proton across the membrane
D
...
- ;PMF is based on the differential concentration of the proton across the
membrane
What takes place when pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA?
A
...
One molecule of FADH2 is produced from FAD
C
...
All of the above
E
...
- ;Only A and C are correct
...
One molecule of carbon dioxide is given off
B
...
The conversion takes place in the cytosol
D
...
- ;False
In the absence of oxygen, eukaryotic cells are restricted to
A
...
Cyclic photo phosphorylation
C
...
Oxidative phosphorylation
E
...
NADH
B
...
CO2
D
...
Only A, B, and C are correct - ;Only A, B, and C are correct
The electron transport chain, a series of membrane-associated electron carriers, loses most of the
energy by driving several transmembrane:
A
...
electron pumps
C
...
active transport pumps
E
...
energy production
B
...
direct oxidation of 4 and 5 carbon sugars during anaerobic growth
D
...
Viruses are acellular
...
Viruses consist of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a coat of protein and sometimes
in other more complex layers
...
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
...
Viruses replicate by binary fission
...
Viruses are acellular
B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;All of these are true of viruses
The nucleic acids carried by viruses usually consist of
A
...
RNA
C
...
both DNA and RNA simultaneously
...
It uses the same four nitrogenous bases found in procaryotic and eucaryotic DNA
...
It may have the normal bases found in procaryotic and eucaryotic DNA, or it may have one or more
unusual bases
...
It is usually composed of unusual bases unique to viruses
...
Viruses do not use DNA for their genome - ;It may have the normal bases found in procaryotic and
eucaryotic DNA, or it may have one or more unusual bases
...
nucleic acid type (DNA or RNA)
B
...
presence or absence of an envelope
D
...
nucleic acid type (DNA or RNA)
Viruses are subgrouped according to
A
...
nucleic acid strandedness (single or double)
C
...
all of the choices - ;all
Viruses with single-stranded RNA as their genome for which the base sequence is the same as the viral
mRNA are said to be __________ viruses
...
plus-stranded
B
...
mRNA-like
D
...
T or F The presence or absence of an envelope is not useful in classifying viruses because any given
virus may at one time have an envelope and at another time not have an envelope
...
formation of the virion capsid
B
...
lysis of host cells
D
...

A
...
beta-oxidation
C
...
delta-oxidation - ;beta-oxidation
Production of ATP using the energy liberated by the electron transport system is generally referred to as
__________ phosphorylation
...
chemiosmotic
B
...
substrate-level
D
...

A
...
respiration
C
...
conformational change - ;chemiosmotic
If all available enzyme molecules are binding substrate and converting it to product as rapidly as
possible, the reaction is said to be proceeding at __________ velocity
...
terminal
B
...
optimal
D
...
- ;false
Which of the following can be used as electron acceptors during anaerobic respiration?
A
...
lactate
C
...
sulfate - ;sulfate
The protein coat surrounding the viral genome is called the
A
...
capsid
C
...
envelope - ;capsid
The breakdown of larger, more complex molecules into smaller, simpler ones with the release and
trapping of some energy contained within those molecules is called
A
...
catabolism
C
...
none of these - ;catabolism
The function of the viral protein coat is to
A
...
aid in the transfer of the viral genetic material between host cells

C
...
neither protect the viral genetic material nor aid in transfer of the viral genetic material between
between host cells - ;both protect the genetic material and in the transfer of the genetic material
between host cells
What occurs when a pyruvate molecule proceeds toward and through the Krebs cycle?
A
...
Pyruvate converted to heat energy
C
...
Carbon dioxide combine with acetyl CoA and form oxaloacetate - ;H atom end up in NADH and FADH2,
plus 3 CO2 are formed
General classes of enzymes found in cells include
A
...
medulase
C
...
FAD - ;lyase
If an enzyme consists of a protein component and a non-protein component, the protein component is
referred as the
A
...
coenzyme
C
...
prosthetic group - ;apoenzyme
In the TCA cycle, two carbons in the form of _________ are added to oxaloacetate at the start of the
cycle
...
acetyl-CoA
B
...
carbon dioxide
D
...
- ;false

...
- ;false
What do the EM and ED pathways have in common?

A
...
They require oxygen
C
...
All of the above - ;They are considered types of gylcolytic pathway
A complete enzyme that consists of a protein component and a nonprotein component is called a(n)
A
...
heteroenzyme
C
...
multienzyme - ;holoenzyme
T or F Metabolic pathways can be either catabolic or anabolic but not both
...
The envelope proteins are virus specific
...
The envelope lipids and carbohydrates are derived from the host
C
...
Neither of these answers is true - ;both
Enzyme activity can be controlled by
A
...
covalent modification
C
...
all of these - ;all
T or F An organism may use glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway simultaneously
...
In higher eucaryotes, most aerobically generated ATP comes from
A
...
the TCA cycle
C
...
all of these generate equal amounts of ATP - ;the electron transport chain
If the nonprotein component of an enzyme is loosely attached to the protein, it is called a(n)
A
...
coenzyme

C
...
prosthetic group - ;coenzyme
If the nonprotein component of an enzyme is firmly attached to the protein, it is called a(n)
A
...
coenzyme
C
...
prosthetic group - ;prosthetic group
T or F Bacterial viruses are so named because they have the same procaryotic cell structure as their
bacterial hosts
...
- ;false
Which of the following is not true about enzymes?
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...

Which of the following is not true about enzymes?
A
...
As a result, cells need to make enzymes on a
continuous basis
...
Enzymes are proteins that can be denatured by changes in pH or temperature
...
Enzymes are highly specific for the substrates they react with and catalyze only one or a limited set of
possible reactions with those substrates
...
Enzymes are catalysts and, therefore, increase the rate of a reaction while not being permanently
altered by the reaction
...
All of the above is correct
...
decreasing the amount of energy released by the reaction
B
...
decreasing the amount of activation energy needed to drive the reaction

D
...
DNA
B
...
either DNA or RNA but not both simultaneously
D
...
A membrane bound system contains cytochromes to produce ATP
B
...
Acetyl CoA is regenerated
D
...
NAD+
B
...
FAD
D
...
All of these are used as electron carriers by living organisms
...
- ;false
In which of the following stages of the viral infectious cycle do enveloped viruses usually acquire their
envelopes?
A
...
component biosynthesis
C
...
release - ;release
Which of the following is mismatched?
A
...
catabolism-buildup of organic compounds
C
...
plant-phototrophs - ;b
When a rival genome is integrated into the host chromosome but does not result in the lysis of the host
cell, it is referred to as
A
...
avirulent infection
C
...
alytic infection - ;a
What happens to the oxygen that is used in cellular respiration?
A
...
It is lost
C
...
It is converted to carbon dioxide - ;c
The _________ is the electron acceptor in a redox reaction
...
oxidant
B
...
enzyme
D
...

A
...
reductant
C
...
product - ;b
T or F Some endergonic reactions can be made to proceed forward if they are coupled to hydrolysis of
one or more of the phosphates of ATP
...
Enzymes reduce the activation energy for a reaction by
A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;d

How is ATP produced during respiratory metabolism?
A
...
By the Krebs cycle
C
...
A, B, and C
E
...
Substrate-level phosphorylation
B
...
Cyclic phosphorylation
D
...

A
...
reductant; lose
C
...
oxidant; lose - ;b
What do the TCA cycle, the tricarboxylic acid cycle, and the Krebs cycle have in common?
A
...
They are different types of substrate level phosphorylation
C
...
They are names for the same metabolic pathway
E
...
coli?
A
...
Voges-Proskauer
C
...
Indol
E
...

A
...
eclipse
C
...
plateau - ;b
T or F An organism does not use glycolysis and the pentose phosphate pathway simultaneously
...
NAD+
B
...
ATP
D
...
ribozyme - ;a
The ability of an enzyme to catalyze a reaction can be affected by chemical and physical factors such as
A
...
pH
C
...
two of the above
E
...
This
means that the
A
...
antibiotic will bind to the substance and alter the shape of the substrate
C
...
antibiotic will bind to the product that is being produced and alter its shape
E
...
This means that as the
A
...
cell produces more quantity of product through a biochemical pathway, the activity will be increased
or stimulated by the build up of that product
C
...
cell produces less quantity of product through a biochemical pathway, the activity of the substrate will
be increased and it will exceed capacity of the pathway - ;a
An electron carrier that is used in harvesting energy from glucose molecules in a series of gradual steps
in the cytoplasm is
A
...
cyclic AMP
C
...
NAD+
E
...
fermentation
B
...
chemiosmosis
D
...
acetyl CoA formation - ;a
In oxidative respiration, energy is harvested from glucose molecules in a sequence of four major
pathways
...
Krebs cycle
B
...
electron transfer through the transport chain
D
...
pyruvate oxidation - ;d
The decarboxylation of pyruvate produces
A
...
acetyl CoA
C
...
ATP
E
...
Glycolysis is most likely one of the earliest of all biochemical reactions to evolve
...

B
...
Glycolysis uses no
molecular oxygen
...

C
...
Glycolysis uses
molecular oxygen, however it occurs in aerobic environments
...
Glycolysis is most likely one of the earliest of all biochemical reactions to evolve, Glycolysis uses
molecular oxygen and occurs in the mitochondria
...

A
...
glycolysis → Pyruvate → Acetyl CoA → Kreb Cycle → Electron Transport Chain
C
...
glycolysis → Acetyl CoA → Pyruvate → Kreb Cycle → Electron Transport Chain - ;b
The enzymes of the Krebs cycle in prokaryotic cell are located in the
A
...
inter-membrane space of mitochondria
C
...
outer membrane of the mitochondria
E
...
the acetyl group is joined with a four carbon molecule, oxaloacetate
B
...
electrons generated are used to produce NADH
D
...
pyruvate molecules are restored to the cycle - ;e
In the dark reactions of photosynthesis, CO2 is added to a five-carbon sugar-phosphate known as
A
...
NADH
C
...
RuBP
E
...
the transfer of electrons to glucose
B
...
oxygen is one of the byproducts
D
...
must have light - ;b
Sulfur bacteria produce ATP in a photosynthetic process called
A
...
the Krebs cycle
C
...
cyclic photophosphorylation
E
...
ATP
B
...
NADPH
D
...
water - ;c
Which part of the chloroplasts contain the Calvin-cycle enzymes?
A
...
thylakoids
C
...
envelope
E
...
oxygen and protons
B
...
ATP and NADPH
D
...
glucose and oxygen - ;c
C
...
can Niel used sulfur bacteria in his research on photosynthesis
...
The bacteria produce sulfur
...
water
B
...
glucose
D
...
aerobic respiration
B
...
fermentation
D
...
digestion - ;b
Cytochromes are respiratory proteins
...
Cytochrome proteins reside free in the lung cells of all vertebrates
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;b
Who was the first person to propose that the cause of tobacco mosaic disease is an infectious agent
different from bacteria because it could pass through a porcelain filter that retains all bacteria?
A
...
Ivanowski
C
...
Pasteur - ;c
A __________ assay is most useful for determining the viability of a viral preparation
...
direct (electron microscopic) count
B
...
plaque
D
...
icosahedral and radial
B
...
helical and radial
D
...
- ;true
In order for bacteriophage to be released from the host by a lysis mechanism, enzymes are required to
A
...
stabilize the cytoplasmic membrane and cell wall
C
...
degrade the host chromosome - ;c
Entry of a virus into the lytic cycle after lysogeny has been established is called
A
...
lysogenic reversion
C
...
none of the choices - ;c
T or F Glucosylation of hydroxymethylcytosine reidues protects phage T4 DNA from cleavage by bacterial
restriction enzymes - ;true
Which of the following morphologies are found among the bacteriophage?
A
...
tailed phage with binal symmetry
C
...
All of these are found in a bacteriophage - ;d
Some viruses do not have
A
...
nuclei acid
C
...
envelope - ;d
Glycoprotein spikes protruding from the outer surface of viral envelopes may be involved in
A
...
viral attachment of host cells
C
...
neither viral recognition of nor viral attachment to host cells - ;c
Which of the following may be used as sources of energy by chemolithotrophs?
A
...
ammonia
C
...
all of these - ;d
In the process of noncyclic photophosphorylation
A
...
electrons from water flow through electron transport chains resulting in synthesis of ATP and NADH
C
...
Two of the above are true
E
...
water is split to form oxygen gas
B
...
photosystems I and II are both required
D
...
Particles will continue to settle toward the bottom of the tube for as long as the centrifugation is
continued
...
Particles will come to rest when the density of the surrounding medium is equal to the density of the
particle even if the centrifugation is continued longer
...
The smallest particle will sediment fastest
...
Large particles will sediment farther than small particles
...

A
...
less
C
...
- ;true
T or F All procaryotic photosynthesizers are anoxygenic - ;false
T or F All eucaryotic photosynthesizers are oxygenic
...
;true
T or F Reduction of nitrate to nitrite by Paracoccus denitrificans is an example of aerobic respiration
...
is an alternative glycolytic pathway
B
...
is used to oxidize nucleotides
D
...
electron microscopy
B
...
hemagglutination
D
...
on the outer mitochondrial membrane
B
...
in the fluid matrix of the mitochondria
D
...

A
...
endergonic
C
...
none of these - ;b
How might homolactic fermentation be distinguished from heterolactic fermentation
A
...
Homolactic forms mostly lactic acid; heterolactic forms lactic acid, ethanol, and CO2
C
...
Homolactic is carried out by Gram-positive organism; heterolactic by Gram negative - ;b
Which of the following is (are) used by microorganisms to become resistant to a particular drug?
A
...
exclusion of the drug from the cell
C
...
all of these - ;d
Photosynthetic electron transport in cyanobacteria takes place
A
...
in the chloroplast
C
...
on the thylakoid membranes - ;a
T or F Bacterial electron transport chains may be comprised of fewer components and have lower P/O
ratios than mitochondrial transport chains - ;true
The most common pathway for conversion of glucose to pyruvate is
A
...
Pentose phosphate
C
...
A and C - ;c
The largest viruses known are the
A
...
hepadnaviruses
C
...
poxviruses - ;d
Viroids are:
A
...

B
...
a new class of small single stranded DNA viruses that infect some animals
D
...
the production of ATP and NADPH
B
...
both the production of ATP and NADPH and the reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate
D
...

A
...
Protection exonucleases
C
...
Restriction exonucleases - ;c
Hemagglutination is
A
...
the binding of iron in the process of a viral suspension
C
...
None of these - ;a
Enzymes found in virus particles

A
...

B
...

C
...

D
...
- ;all
The pentose phosphate pathway provides
A
...
NADPH
C
...
all of these - ;all
In an enveloped virus, the part of the virus including the nucleic acid genome and the surrounding
protein coat but not the envelope is called the
A
...
nucleocapsid
C
...
virion - ;b
T or F In viral infections, all of the viral genes are usually expressed prior to the replication of viral nucleic
acid - ;false
T or F The electron transport systems in eucaryotes and procaryotes use different electron carriers
...
anaerobic respiration
B
...
oxidative phosphorylation via ATPases
D
...
generation of ATP in the presence of an external electron acceptor
B
...
rotation of bacterial flagella
D
...
none of the above - ;d

Anaerobic respiration encompasses which of the following
A
...
dissimilatory nitrate reduction
C
...
both B and C - ;d
Which fermentation pathway is detected using in the methyl red test when differentiating among enteric
bacteria?
A
...
mixed acid fermentation
C
...
lactic acid fermentation
E
...
H+
B
...
NADHD
D
...
redox reactions
B
...
production of FAD+
D
...
synthesis pf ATP - ;c
Which of the following terminal electron acceptors has the greatest potential to provide the largest
amount of free energy?
A
...
NO3
C
...
Fe3+

E
...
Pyruvate
B
...
NAD
D
...
Energy - ;c
In the process of _________, ATP is synthesized when excited electrons from chlorophyll P700 pass
through a series of electron carriers, then return to chlorophyll P700
...
photosynthesis
B
...
acyclic photophosphorylation
D
...

A
...
Embden-Meyerhoff pathway
C
...
Entner-Doudoroff pathway - ;c
What is a feature of a virus with a segmented genome?
A
...
It is haploid
C
...
It must have a DNA genome - ;c
Which of the following lists the steps of viral activity in the correct order, from start to finish?
A
...
Lysis, penetration, replication, attachment
C
...
Penetration, replication, attachment, lysis - ;a
Which of the following represents ways in which animal viruses damage their host cells?

A
...
alterations of the plasma membrane of cells that result in attacks by the host immune system
C
...
all of the choices - ;d
The genetic code was deciphered in the 1960s in large part by the efforts of
A
...
Khorana and Nirenberg
C
...
Hershey and Chase - ;c
Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
A
...
cytosine
C
...
uracil - ;a
The genetic code is said to be __________ because more than one codon will specify a particular amino
acid
...
amibiguous
B
...
multiplicative
D
...
;true
A biochemist wants to control the initial substrate-level phosphorylation that occurs in the yeast cells
once glucose has crossed the plasma membrane
...
have to prevent cAMP from entering the tracheal cells
B
...
have to prevent glycolysis from occuring in the mitochondria
D
...
have to prevent glycolysis from occuring in the cytoplasm - ;e
What makes up a nucleoside? - ;nitrogenous base + pentose sugar

What is the difference between ribose and deoxyribose? - ;ribose= hydroxide group on carbon 2
Deoxyribose= hydrogen on carbon 2
What are the nitrogenous bases that make up RNA? - ;a,g,c,u
Which sugar is part of the RNA structure? - ;pentose sugar (ribose)
What is the base pairing rules in RNA? - ;A-U
G-C
What are the 3 types of RNA? - ;rRNA, tRNA, mRNA
All genetic material of an organism? - ;Genome
T or F: Bacteria cells do not have histones
...
- ;true
What is the purpose of fertility factors in bacteria cells? - ;allow transfer of genes between cells
What is the purpose of resistance factors in bacteria cells? - ;Resistance to antibiotics or heavy metals
What is the purpose of bacteriocin factors? - ;to kill other bacteria
...
- ;prokaryotic
Why is the super coiling of prokaryotic DNA important? - ;Allows DNA to fit in the cell
Helps control access to DNA
Topoisomerases -molecules responsible for supercoiling and relaxing DNA
Ex
...
- ;false
How many hydrogen bonds are between the C and G bases? - ;3
How many hydrogen bonds are between A and T bases? - ;2
What is the function of helicase? - ;unzipping the DNA helix
What is the function of Primase? - ;synthesizing an RNA primer
What is the function of DNA polymerase III? - ;adding bases to the new DNA chain synthesizing
complementary strands proofreading the chain for mistakes
What is the purpose of DNA polymerase 1? - ;removing primer, closing gaps, repairing mistakes

What is the purpose of Ligase? - ;final binding of nicks in DNA during synthesis and repair
What is the purpose of gyrase? - ;supercoiling
What is the purpose of SSBs protein? - ;single strand bind protein
The manner in which genetic instructions for polypeptide synthesis are stored within genome - ;the
genetic code
Sequence of base pairs in DNA corresponds to the amino acid sequence of polypeptide encoded ;collinearity
What is a codon? - ;genetic code word; specifies an amino acid
Who was credited for the codon? - ;Marchall Nirenberg
Up to ___ different codons can code for a single amino acid? - ;6
How many codons specify amino acids? - ;61
What are the stop codons? - ;UGA;UAG;UAA
What encodes a polypeptide, a tRNA, or an rRNA? - ;gene
Organization of codons such that they can be read to give rise to a gene product - ;reading frame
What is the enzyme responsible for the production of the RNA molecule? - ;RNA polymerase
Can both strands of DNA be used as a template in transcription? - ;No
Which strand of DNA is used as a template in transcription? - ;3'-5'
Summary of RNA processing - ;In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase produces a "primary transcript", an exact
RNA copy of the gene
...

The RNA is terminated and poly-A is added to the 3' end
...

At this point, the RNA can be called messenger RNA
...

Carries the message for a specific protein? - ;mRNA
Which RNA is 500-1000 nucleotides long? - ;mRNA
Which RNA is made up of codons? - ;mRNA
What is used to make polypeptide chain (protein)? - ;mRNA
Which RNA is made up of 75-80 nucleotides long? - ;tRNA

Which RNA picks up the appropriate amino acid floating in the cytoplasm, and transports it to the
mRNA? - ;tRNA
Which RNA is the shortest? - ;tRNA
Which RNA strand is the longest? - ;rRNA
Which RNA strand is associated with proteins to form ribosomes? - ;rRNA
Where does transcription start? - ;at the promoter DNA (TATA box)
How many amino acids are there? - ;20
Where does RNA processing take place? - ;nucleus
What are the three parts of translation? - ;-initiation (AUG)
-elongation
-termination (UAG)
Which of the following feature of E
...
outer membrane
b
...
Porin
d
...
pili - ;pili
O-antigen found on some bacteria is a :
a
...
channel controlling substance taken into the organism
c
...
peptidoglycan matrix important for cellular rigidity
e
...
conjunction
b
...
transfection
d
...
the organism is regularly found in lesions of the disease
b
...
inoculation of this pure culture produces a similar disease in experimental animals
d
...
treatment of the disease with a broad spectrum oral antimicrobial
dependably eradicates the organism and cures the disease
Characteristics of a bacterial capsule include:
a
...
it is composed of peptidoglycan
c
...
it is what causes the gram stain reaction - ;c
...
Things that the bacteria will lose
because of this include:
a
...
the ability to move
c
...
the ability to have a gram stain result
An Important characteristic of mycobacteria is that they are:
a
...
rapid growing (doubling time 15 minutes)
c
...
acid fast
e
...
simple staining
b
...
diffential staining
d
...
diffential staining
T or F: Although developed over 100 years ago, Koch's postulates continue to be used successfully in all
known human infectious disease
...

a
...
carbohydrates
c
...
peptidoglycan - ;lipids
T or F: Microbiologists study a variety of organisms, but all are considered members of either Bacteria or
Archaea
...
amino acids
b
...
vitamins
d
...
nucleic acids
Nutrients can be concentrated from dilute solutions by
a
...
endocytosis
c
...
group translocation
e
...
saturable uptake rate
b
...
can move materials against a concentration gradient
d
...
only B and C are correct - ;d
...
- ;false
Which of the following is not part of the peptidoglycan?
a
...
core polysacchride

c
...
beta 1-4 linkage
e
...
exotoxin
b
...
murein
d
...
two of the above - ;endotoxin
T or F: Gram-positive bacteria have a structurally and chemically more complex peptidoglycan than
gram- negative bacteria
...
- ;false
T or F: Gram-negative bacteria are more resistant that gram-positive bacteria to some antibiotics
because the gram-negative periplasmic space may contain enzymes that can degrade or modify drugs
...
These antitoxins are the basis of:
a
...
cell-mediated immunity
c
...
phagocyte-mediated immunity - ;humoral immunity
Gram stain derives its name from:
a
...
the inventor
c
...
spore forming organisms are often dangerous pathogens
b
...
they are resistant to harsh enviornments, thus allowing survival of spore forming organisms under
conditions in which nonsporulating cells would not survive and spore forming organisms are often
dangerous pathogens are correct
...
they are found only in gram-negative bacteria
b
...
they are double layered structures
d
...
A,B, and C - ;b
T or F: Plasmid is only found in Bacteria
...
10 micrometers
b
...
10000 micrometers - ;c
Who was credited with developing and documenting the first vaccination procedure against smallpox?
a
...
pastuer
c
...
lister - ;jenner
Which of the following is not considered a macronutrient?
a
...
calcium
c
...
colbalt - ;cobalt
Which of the following bacterial cytoskeleton protein is a tubulin homologue?
a
...
MreB
c
...
ParM - ;FtsZ
Who of the following was the first to observe and accurately describe microorganisms?
a
...
Lister

c
...
Tyndall - ;c
...
On of these
strains has pili on the surface; the other does not
...
the patient with the piliated strain is ill; the other is not
b
...
both patients are ill - ;a
...
hydrophobic
b
...
positively charged
d
...
D-glycerol
b
...
branched isoprene chain
e
...
- ;false
T or F: Most endospore- forming bacteria are gram positive
...
vibrios
b
...
spirochetes
d
...
spirochetes
Which fermentation pathway is detected using the methyl red test when differentiating among enteric
bacteria?
a
...
mixed acid fermentation
c
...
mixed acid fermentation

Which of the following does not occur in the Kreb's Cycle?
a
...
production of NADH
c
...
production of CO2 - ;c
...
CO2
b
...
O2
d
...
pyruvate
b NADH
c
...
CO2
e
...
two of the above
The proton gradient across bacterial membranes is involved in:
a
...
active transport of some ions
c
...
all of the above
e
...
all of the above
An electron carrier that is used in harvesting energy from glucose molecules in a series of gradual steps
in the cytoplasm of bacteria is:
a
...
FAD
c
...
NAD+

e
...
two of the above
The most common pathway for conversion of glucose to pyruvate is:
a
...
Pentose phosphate
c
...
mixed acid fermentation - ;c
...
- ;cyclic photophosphorylation
T or F: All prokaryotic photosynthesized are anoxygenic
...
they require protein motive force to make ATP
b
...
the proton flow is outward during ATP synthesis - ;c
...
Pentose phosphate pathway
b
...
Calvin cycle
d
...
chemiosmotic phosphorylation
b
...
substrate level phosphorylation
d
...
noncyclic photophosphorylation - ;c
...
energy production
b
...
direct oxidation of 4 and 5 carbon sugars during anaerobic growth

d
...
energy
production and provision of carbon skeletons for biosynthesis of cell components
During breakdown of fatty acids, carbons are removed ____ at a time as _____
a
...
one; methane
c
...
two; ethanol - ;c
...
NADH
b
...
CO2
d
...
only A,B, and C are correct - ;e
...
- ;false
Which of the following is (are) normally treated by topical application of antifungal drugs?
a
...
superficial mycoses
c
...
superficial mycoses
The product of fermentation which is most important for the cell survival is:
a
...
ATP
c
...
CO2
e
...
it uses the same four nitrogenous bases found in prokaryotic and Eukaryotic DNA
...
it may have the normal bases found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA, or it may have one or more
unusual bases
...
it is usually composed of unusual bases unique to viruses

d
...
it may have the normal bases found in prokaryotic and
eukaryotic DNA, or it may have one or more unusual bases
...

a
...
reductant; lose
c
...
oxidant;lose - ;b
...
NADPH is produced in this pathway
b
...
intermediates may be used to produce ATP
d, all of the above
e
...
direct count
b
...
plaque
d
...
plaque
All of the reactions of glucose oxidation that follow glycolysis involving the transfer of electrons to their
final acceptor, oxygen, take place in eukaryotic cells in the ______ - ;mitochondria
Fats undergo a process called _____ oxidation in which the products are acetyl coenzyme molecules
...
- ;scaffolding
A bacterium carrying a dormant phage inserted in the chromosome is called a ______ - ;lysogen
Viruses that are polyhedrons with 20 sides are said to have ____ symmetry
...
- ;peplomers

During replication, the 2 strands of the DNA molecule are unwound from one another by enzymes
called:
a
...
helicases
c
...
tongue
b
...
splice - ;fork
Each DNA molecule has one or more _____ site where replication begins
...
promoter
b
...
origin - ;origin
In the eukaryotic chromosome, the DNA is organized into ____ in which the DNA is twisted around small
basic proteins that are rich in the amino acids lysine and arginine
...
nucleosomes
b
...
dictyosomes - ;nucleosomes
When a DNA molecule is replicated, the daughter molecules contain one strand of parental DNA and one
strand of newly synthesized DNA; this is called ____ replication
...
semiconservative
b
...
semiconservative - ;semiconservative
Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
a
...
cytosine
c
...
uracil - ;adenine

The coding sequence in the DNA of ____ is normally continuous; that is, it is not interrupted by
noncoding sequences
...
prokaryotes
b
...
both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
d
...
errors in DNA replication
b
...
either errors in DNA replication or insertion of transposes
d
...
either errors in DNA replication or insertion of transposes
Microbial strains that can grow on minimal medium are called ____
a
...
auxotrophs
c
...
minitrophs - ;c
...
AUG
b
...
UAG
d
...
AUG
Mutant strains that are unable to grow on minimal medium but require that the medium contains an
adequate supply of the end products of a metabolic pathway are called _____
a
...
auxotrophs
c
...
mintrophs - ;b
...
ATP

b
...
four and five carbon sugars for amino acid and nucleic acid synthesis
d
...
lysogen
b
...
viroid
d
...
prophage
Why is it so hard to treat viral infections? - ;viruses use the metabolic machinery of their hosts, which
limits selective points of attack
Antibiotics that are given by injection are said to have _____ mode of administrations
...
oral
b
...
parenteral
d
...
parenteral
Moist heat sterilizes by
a
...
denaturing proteins
c
...
all of these - ;b
...
psychrotrophs
b
...
mesophiles - ;a
...
- ;false
Teichoic Acids are found in:
a
...
The cell walls of Gram Positive bacteria
c
...
the cell membranes of all prokaryotes
e
...
The cell walls of Gram Positive bacteria
Which of the following is true of all viruses?
a
...
They contain RNA
c
...
They contain nucleic acid
e
...
They contain nucleic acid
Unlike the more familiar form of respiration that vertebrate cells practice, anaerobic respiration
a
...
does not utilize chemiosmosis to make ATP
c
...
produces oxygen rather than consuming it
e
...
utilizing carbon dioxide or nitrate
as terminal electron acceptor
Which of the following are involved in alcoholic fermentation, either as products or reactants:
a
...
lactic acid
c
...
both A and B
e
...
both A and C
Which statement concerning thermophilic bacteria is correct?
a
...
Their optimum growth temperatures range from 15C to 45C
c
...
They group includes many important pathogens

e
...
They grow best at temperatures above 45C
The product of Fermentation which is most important for the cell survival is:
a
...
ATP
c
...
CO2
e
...
Decrease in the field of view
b
...
All of the above
d
...
- ;False
How are archaeal, bacterial, and eukaryotic cells alike?
a
...
Mitochondria are present
c
...
They have cell membrane
e
...
They have cell membrane
T or F: The rotation of bacterial flagella is powered by ATP hydrolysis - ;false
If you had a define medium, which choice, when added, would make the medium complex?
a
...
10ml of 100% ethanol
c
...
1% of pure lactose
d
...
none of the above - ;d
...
- ;true

Which of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan is (Are) true?
a
...
it is sometimes found in archaeal cells
c
...
All of the above are true
e
...
Only A and C are true
Pseudopeptidoglycan occurs in:
a
...
Mycoplasma
c
...
Mycobacterium
e
...
Archaea
T or F: DNA gyrase is a type of topoisomerase found in prokaryotic cells - ;true
T or F: The Embden-Meyerhof pathway represents the major means of glucose catabolism in most cells ;true
T or F: Substrate level phosphorylation couples a chemical reaction with the generation of ATP, oxidative
phosphorylation uses the protonmotive force to generate ATP
...
Citrate reacts with oxaloacetate to form acetyl CoA
b
...
CO2, H20, reduced co-enzymes, and ATP produced
d
...
NAD is regenerated - ;c
...

a
...
Glucose
c
...
All of the above
e
...
Two of the Above

Which of the following is not true of bacterial plasmids?
a
...
They may carry genes for drug resistance
c
...
They may carry genes that enhance survival of the bacterium under certain conditions - ;c
...
E Coli
b
...
Salmonella species
d
...
All of the above - ;d
...
Mycoplasma sp
b
...
Non-resistant Staphylococcus sp
d
...
It is a lipid bilayer
b
...
It prevents drugs from reaching the cytoplasm
d
...
A, B, and C are correct - ;A, B, and C are correct
T or F: The noncoding sequences located between the start codon and the stop codon in interrupted
genes are called introns - ;true
Post transcriptional modifications that yield eukaryotic mRNAs include which of the following?
a
...
5' poly (A) tracts
c
...
All of the choices - ;Splicing to remove introns
The strand of DNA for a particular gene that is copied by the RNA polymerase to form mRNA is called the
_____strand
...
leading
b
...
transcription
d
...

a
...
Peptidyl Transferase
c
...
Phosphorylase - ;Peptidyl Transferase
Which of the following is not considered the final product of the expression of a gene?
a
...
an mRNA molecule
c
...
an rRNA molecule - ;an mRNA molecule
When a recipient cell requires a piece of naked DNA from the environment it is called
A
...
transformation
C
...
translocation - ;transformation
Transfer of genetic information via direct cell-cell contact is called
A
...
Transduction
C
...
Conjugation - ;conjunction
T or F: Point mutation is not always deleterious - ;true
Which of the following organisms has no motile cells at any point of their life-cycle?

A
...
Algae
C
...
Two of the Above - ;fungi
Which is not true of viruses
A
...
They can be destroyed with antibiotics
C
...
They are acellular
E
...
It is found only in gram-positive space
b
...
it contains hydrolytic enzymes and binding proteins involved in nutrient acquisition
d
...

a
...
isotonic
c
...
nonpolar - ;isotonic
Microorganisms are most nearly uniform in terms of chemical physiological properties during
_____________ phase
...
lag
B
...
stationary
D
...

A
...
facilitated transport
C
...
- ;true
T or F: The size and shape of a colony is not useful for identification of a microorganism because most
microorganisms produce colonies that are indistinguishable from one another - ;false
T or F: Although similar in function the eukaryotic ribosome is generally smaller and more complex than
the prokaryotic ribosome
...
bacterial endospores
B
...
Viruses
D

---