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062 – RADIO NAVIGATION
062-01

RADIO AIDS

062-01-01 Ground Direction Finder D/F (including
classification of bearings)
11122
...
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain
bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:
A – 107 NM
B – 158 NM
C – 134 NM
D – 114 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
11148
...
What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a
service to an aircraft at FL080?
A – 134 nm
B – 107 nm
C – 91 nm
D – 114 nm
Ref: all
Ans: A
11214
...
What is the appropriate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT
above MSL?
A – 180 NM
B – 220 NM
C – 120 NM
D – 150 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
11248
...
If, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH,
is means:
A – the bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the
QGH level
B – the VDF service will be handled by a different VDF unit, operating on the
same frequency
C – the VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the
airfield, based on VDF bearings
D – the service will be limited to bearings, no positions will be given by the
DF station
Ref: all
Ans: C
11267
...
With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the
ground station is a:
A – QTE
B – QUJ
C – QDR
D – QDM
Ref: all
Ans: A

15501
...

A – FL 50
B – FL 80
C –FL 100
D – FL 60
Ref: all
Ans: D
15522
...
5 MHz
D – On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary
Ref: all
Ans: C
16214
...
If the aircraft is flying directly towards the receiver and
they are approximately at the same height the received frequency will be:
A – 11 MHz
B – 10,000011 GHz
C – 9,999989 GHz
D – 11 GHz
Ref: all
Ans: B
16232
...
The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050o
(VAR 10oW) for a conventional vor is:
A – 050o
B – 040o
C – 230o
D – 220o
Ref: all
Ans: C
16256
...
5 MHz
B – on the Approach frequency
C – on the frequency notified for VDF services
D – on the frequency agreed between the pilot and ATC but chosen from one
of the available ATC frequencies
Ref: all
Ans: C
16257
...
The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by:
A – time of day
B – type of surface
C – height of aircraft
D – intensity of ionisation
Ref: all
Ans: C

16261
...
A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz
should have an effective length of:
A – 16,67 metres
B – 166,67 metres
C – 83,33 metres
D – 8,33 metres
Ref: all
Ans: D
16265
...
Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:
A – reflection from the surface
B – passing over or through mediums of different conductivity
C – passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength
D – passing through ionised regions of the upper atmosphere
Ref: all
Ans: C

16267
...
000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a
transmitter at sea level, at a range of:
A – 88,4 nm
B – 88,4 nm
C – 70,7 nm
D – 200 km
Ref: all
Ans: A
16268
...
At a range of 200 nm from a VHF
communications transmitter, and you are receiving a good signal
...
000 feet
B – You should have been receiving the signal from a range of 240 nm
C – You are probably receiving a sky wave signal
D – You are probably receiving a duct propagation signal
Ref: all
Ans: D
16269
...
(Refer to figure 062-06)
...
What is QTE?
A – Magnetic track from the station
B – Magnetic track to the station
C – True track from station
D – True track to the station
Ref: all
Ans: C
16389
...
The emission characteristics A3E describe:
A – ILS
B – VHF communications
C – HF communications
D – VOR
Ref: all
Ans: B
21524
...
What is the “Q” code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
A – “Request QNH”
B – “Request QDR”
C – “Request QTE”
D – “Request QDM”
Ref: all
Ans: B
21595
...
Which Q code would give a magnetic bearing from a VDF station:
A – QDM
B – QDR
C – QUJ
D – QTE
Ref: all
Ans: B
21624
...
Which Q code would give a true track from a VDF station:
A – QDM
B – QDR
C – QUJ
D – QTE
Ref: all
Ans: D
21637
...
5 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: D
21639
...
A frequency of 2400 KHz is equivalent to a wavelength of:
A – 125 metres
B – 105 metres
C – 0
...
Refraction of an electro-magnetic radiation is:
A – The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of
different electrical conductivity
B – The loss of power as it passes through or over areas of different electrical
conductivity
C – Is bending resultant from reflection from objects
D – Is loss of power through reflection from objects
Ref: all
Ans: A
21649
...
An aircraft wishing to use the VDF service must:
A – Be equipped with a VOR indicator unit
B – Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be
established
C – Ask the controller to transmit for a long enough period to establish the
bearing
D – Be within 10NM of the VDF aerial
Ref: all
Ans: B
21651
...
5 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: A

21652
...
A class C magnetic bearing is received from a station
...
Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range:
A – 3000 to 30000 MHz
B – 3000 to 30000 KHz
C – 300 to 3000 MHz
D – 300 to 3000 KHz
Ref: all
Ans: C
21803
...
What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown:
A – VHF radio
B – VOR
C – VOR/DME
D – None
Ref: all
Ans: A
22360
...
This is:
A – A QUJ accurate to ±2o
B – A QTE accurate to ±2o
C - A QUJ accurate to ±5o
D – A QTE accurate to ±5o
Ref: all
Ans: B
22376
...
What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be
guaranteed?
A – 3 MHz
B – 30 MHz
C – 300 MHz
D – 3 GHz
Ref: all
Ans: B

22804
...
If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: “your true bearing is 256o,
class alpha”
...
The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of:
A – 100 m to 10 m
B – 1 m to 100 cms
C – 10 m to 1 m
D – 100 cms to 10 cms
Ref: all
Ans: C
24956
...
What is the frequency?
A – 1
...
5 GHz
C – 1
...
The approximate ground waves of LF and MF are (by day) ___ and ___
respectively, with ___ suffering more from atmospheric attenuation
...
With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give bearings if:
A – the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country
B – conditions are poor and bearings do not fall within the station’s classified
limits
C – the pilot does not use the prescribed terminology
D – none of the above
Ref: all
Ans: B
24973
...
A Class B VDF bearing has accuracy limits of plus or minus:
A – 2 degrees
B – 7 degrees
C – 3 degrees
D – 5 degrees
Ref: all
Ans: D

24991
...
Given that the compass heading is 270o, the deviation is 2oW, the variation is
30oE and the relative bearing of a beacon is 316o, determine the QDR:
A – 044
B – 048
C – 074
D – 224
Ref: all
Ans: A

062-01-02 ADF (incl
...
An aircraft is HOMING to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing
of zero
...
An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
A – a beam rotating at 20 Hz
B – bi-local circular
C – a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
D – omnidirectional
Ref: all
Ans: D

11117
...
With a transmission from an NDB aerial, the ___ component travels in the ___
plane and the signal is ___ polarised
...
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability
include:
A – height error – station interference – mountain effect
B – static interference – station interference – latitude error
C – static interference – night effect – absence of failure warning system
D – coastal refraction – lane slip – mountain effect
Ref: all
Ans: C
11130
...
When considering the propagation of ADV transmissions night effect is most
pronounced:
A – at dusk and dawn
B – during the long winter nights
C – at or near the coast
D – when flying at low altitude
Ref: all
Ans: A
11132
...
An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will ___ speed and bend ___ the
normal
...
When ADF equipment which incorporates a sense aerial and a loop aerial is
tuned to a NDB and the loop aerial is rotated so that a sharp null is found the
aerial is:
A – either at right angles or in line with the incoming signals
B – in line with the incoming signals
C – at right angles to the incoming signals
D – aligned with the aircraft nose
Ref: all
Ans: B

11162
...
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
equipment are caused by:
A – misalignment of the loop aerial
B – signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wing
C – signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
D – sky wave/ground wave contamination
Ref: all
Ans: C
11173
...
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF
receivers?
A – 255 – 455 kHz
B – 190 – 1750 kHz
C – 300 – 3000 kHz
D – 200 – 2000 kHz
Ref: all
Ans: B

11179
...
By what factor should the
transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20
NM?
A – Eight
B – Six
C – Four
D – Two
Ref: all
Ans: C
11188
...
What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?
A–8m
B – 8000 m
C – 800 m
D – 80 m
Ref: all
Ans: C
11194
...
The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings:
A – by day and night
B – by day only
C – by night only
D – never
Ref: all
Ans: D
11200
...
An RMI indicates aircraft heading
...
The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is ___ allowing a maximum error of ___
on 95% of occasions during ___
A – 3/1, ±5 degrees, daylight hours only
B – 3/1, ±5 degrees, 24 hours
C – 5/1, ±3 degrees, 24 hours
D – 5/1, ±3 degrees, daylight hours only
Ref: all
Ans: A
11230
...
Any
quadrantal error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
A – zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI
B – at a maximum
C – at a minimum
D – zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR
Ref: all
Ans: B
11233
...
An aircraft over the sea is receiving a signal from an NDB 50nm from the
coast and another from an NDB 20nm from the coast
...
The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to:
A – make the signal audible
B – cut out the static noise
C – improve the strength of the received signal
D – attenuate the received signal
Ref: all
Ans: A
11271
...
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
A – Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
B – Frequency drift at the ground station
C – Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
D – Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
Ref: all
Ans: C
15498
...
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for
both propagations, the extend of the error is a position line plotted by an
aircraft that is over water will be:
A – the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of
180o and 360o
B – greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
C – the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of
090o and 270o
D – greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
Ref: all
Ans: D
16246
...
The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power is 200 watts
is:
A – 50 to 60 nm
B – 100 to 120 nm
C – 150 to 170 nm
D – 200 to 200 nm
Ref: all
Ans: A

16249
...
A relative bearing indicator shows 030o
...
The intercept angle for a course to the NDB of 180o M is:
A – 120o
B – 030o
C – 150o
D – 060o
Ref: all
Ans: D
16251
...
The heading of the aeroplane
is 020o M
...
An aeroplanes RMI shows an NDB bearing 070o, w/v calm
...
The aeroplane should:
A – fly to the NDB and join the pattern
B – fly to the NDB then fly outbound on 150o for 1 minute
C – fly to the NDB then fly a teardrop with an outbound heading of 120o for 1
minute and a rate one turn to join in bound
D – fly to the NDB then fly choose either (B) or (C) above as preferred
Ref: all
Ans: A

16253
...
Which of the following NDBs will
give the greatest costal refraction LOP error?
A – NDB sited on the coast-RBI 330o
B – NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 330o
C – NDB sited on the coast-RBI 300o
D – NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 300o
Ref: all
Ans: B
16254
...
Which of the following is true about the ADF?
A – Its accuracy is the same by day and by night
B – It does not have a signal failure warning
C – It should not be used at night because of sky waves
D – Sky waves do not affect the bearing accuracy provided they come from
the correct NDB
Ref: all
Ans: B
16387
...
What is the approved frequency band assigned to aeronautical NDBs?
A – 190-1750 Hz
B – 190-1750 KHz
C – 190-1750 MHz
D – 190-1750 GHz
Ref: all
Ans: B
16391
...
An NDB aerial is (i) so as to ensure the range is (ii) by minimising (iii) due to
(iv):
A – (i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) diffraction; (iv) the ground wave
B – (i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) energy losses to the
surface
C – (i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) refraction; (iv) the D layer
D – (i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) atmospheric refraction
Ref: all
Ans: B
16773
...
ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range
should be accurate to within a maximum error of:
A - +/-10o
B - +/-2
...
A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain
navigation systems to give false indications
...
A VOR and an ADF are co-located
...
In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF
bearing of:
A – 60
B – 240
C – 300
D – 120
Ref: all
Ans: A
21526
...
To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
A – a beam rotating at 30 Hertz
B – frequency modulated at 30 Hertz
C – omni-directional
D – unidirectional
Ref: all
Ans: C

21534
...

Given:
Compass heading 270o
At aircraft deviation 2oW, Variation 30oE
At station Variation 28oE
Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft:
A – 252o
B – 254o
C – 072o
D – 074o
Ref: all
Ans: B
21535
...
To convert the RMI bearings
of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the
application of magnetic variation is:
A – NDB: aircraft position
VOR: aircraft position
B – NDB: beacon position
VOR: beacon position
C – NDB: beacon position
VOR: aircraft position
D – NDB: aircraft position
VOR: beacon position
Ref: all
Ans: D
21543
...
If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090o and the ADF pointer indicates 225o, the
relative bearing to the station will be:
A – 135o
B – Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure
C – 315o
D – 225o
Ref: all
Ans: A
21548
...

A - +/-10o
B - +/- 5o
C - +/- 2
...
In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials,
the:
A – mode selector should be switched to ‘loop’
B – sense aerial must be tuned separately
C – signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
D – BFO switch must be selected to ‘ON’
Ref: all
Ans: C
21565
...
On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct read-out (no
calculation is necessary from the pilot) of the magnetic bearing from the
aircraft to the NDB?
A – Fixed card ADF and RMI
B – Moving card ADF and RMI
C – Moving and fixed card ADF
D – Fixed card ADF only
Ref: all
Ans: B
21571
...
There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the
coast
...
What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
A – 50 – 100 NM
B – 25 – 50 NM
C – 10 – 25 NM
D – 100 – 300 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
21584
...
Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
A – The range is limited to the line of sight
B – Aircraft height is not limiting for the reception of signals from the NDB
C – The range of an NDB will most likely increase at day time compared to
night time
D – The transmitter power of the NDB station has no affect on the range
Ref: all
Ans: B
21613
...
The QDM is:
A – 235o
B – 200o
C – 055o
D – 020o
Ref: all
Ans: D

21618
...
What gives the greatest error in ADF:
A – Coastal effect
B – Night effect
C – Static interference from thunderstorms
D – Quadrantal error
Ref: all
Ans: C
21654
...
The ICAO allocated band of frequencies for NDB is:
A – 255 – 455 KHz
B – 200 – 1750 KHz
C – 255 – 1750 KHz
D – 200 – 455 KHz
Ref: all
Ans: B

21757
...
The aircraft’s indicated position is:
A – Nearer to the coastline than its actual position
B – Further from the coastline than its actual position
C – Correct because the coastal refraction errors will cancel out because two
fixes have been taken
D – Correct in azimuth but false in range
Ref: all
Ans: A
21772
...
When identifying an NDB (NON A1A) it is necessary to:
A – Turn the BFO on
B – Turn the BFO off
C – Turn the ANT on
D – Turn the ANT off
Ref: all
Ans: A
21781
...
What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF:
A – BFO on
B – Select the loop position
C – Both the loop and sense aerials must receive the signal
D – Select the ANT position
Ref: all
Ans: C
21783
...
When using ADF (i), the accuracy is (ii) than (iii), because the surface wave is
(iv):
A – (i) by day; (ii) greater; (iii) by night; (iv) not present
B – (i) by night; (ii) greater; (iii) by day; (iv) not present
C – (i) by night; (ii) less; (iii) by day; (iv) contaminated by sky waves
D – (i) by day; (ii) less; (iii) by night; (iv) contaminated by sky waves
Ref: all
Ans: C
22332
...
An NDB has a range of 50 nm with a power output of 80 watts: The power
required to increase the range to 75 nm is:
A – 120 watts
B – 150 watts
C – 180 watts
D – 320 watts
Ref: all
Ans: C
22349
...
If an NDB signal is received at a range of 1000 nm:
A – The signal is a surface wave and is quite usable
B – It will be a ground wave and will be inaccurate
C – It is a space wave and will be inaccurate
D – It is a sky wave and is inaccurate
Ref: all
Ans: D
22353
...
NDB operate in the:
A – VLF and LF bands

B – LF and MF bands
C – VLF, LF and MF bands
D – VLF and MF bands
Ref: all
Ans: B
22357
...
An aircraft over the sea will experience (i) coastal refraction effect when the
radio waves cross the coastline at (ii) and the NDB is (iii):
A – (i) More; (ii) 90o; (iii) Near the coast
B – (i) Less; (ii) 45o; (iii) Well inland
C – (i) Less; (ii) 90o; (iii) Near the coast
D – (i) More; (ii) 45o; (iii) On the coast
Ref: all
Ans: C
22365
...
When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the (i)
should be used for VOR and at the (ii) for ADF:
A – (i) Aircraft; (ii) aircraft
B – (i) Aircraft; (ii) station
C – (i) Station; (ii) aircraft
D – (i) Station; (ii) station
Ref: all
Ans: C
22763
...

Assuming Coastal Refraction is the same for each, from which NDB will an
aircraft flying over the sea receive the greatest error?
A – The NDB at 20 nm
B – The NDB at 50 nm
C – Same when the relative bearing is 090/270
D – Same when the relative bearing is 180/360
Ref: all
Ans: B
22768
...
95 MHz
D – 200 – 500 KHz
Ref: all
Ans: B
22868
...
For long range NDB’s the most common type is:
A – LF NON A1A

B – LF NON A2A
C – MF NON A1A
D – MF NON A2A
Ref: all
Ans: A
24507
...
The ADF pointer indicates
225 degrees
...
NDBs transmit mainly in the:
A – VHF band
B – UHF band
C – HF band
D – MF band
Ref: all
Ans: D
24962
...
When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be selected
OFF for the:
A – tone signal on NONA1A
B – ident signal on NONA1A
C – tone signal on NONA2A
D – ident signal on NONA2A
Ref: all
Ans: D
24974
...
The relative bearing of an NDB is
035o at 1300
...
If the G/S is 180kt,
what is the aircraft’s distance from the NDB at 1312:
A – 18 nm
B – 36 nm
C – 24 nm
D – 30 nm
Ref: all
Ans: B
24977
...
By what factor should the power be
increased to achieve a range of 20 nm?
A – 16
B–2
C–4
D–8
Ref: all
Ans: C
24980
...
The frequency band chosen for NDB’s is:
A – upper MF and lower LF
B – VLF
C – upper LF and lower MF
D – LF
Ref: all
Ans: C
24990
...
Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?
A – static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning
B – station interference, mountain effect, selective availability
C – coastal refraction, slant range, night effect
D – lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference
Ref: all
Ans: D

062-01-03 CVOR & DVOR (incl
...
If the signal from a VOR is lost, how is this shown on the B737-400 EHSI
display?
A – By removal of the deviation bar and pointer
B – By showing a fail flag alongside the deviation bar
C – A flashing red FAIL message appears in the frequency location
D – An amber FAIL message appears in the frequency location
Ref: all
Ans: A

11115
...
The variation at the aircraft
position is 8oE
...
The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
A – 108 to 117
...
95 MHz
C – 118 to 135
...
95 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: A
11120
...
Assuming no error when using a
deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2o deviation, how many dots deviation from
the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
A – 6
...
0
C – 4
...
5
Ref: all
Ans: D
11129
...
(Refer to figure 062-04)
An aircraft is attempting to track 186oM on an airway defined by a VOR 80
nm away
...
With these indications the
aircraft is on the ___ radial and ___ the airway
...
An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300o, the track selector
(OBS) reads: 330
...
An aircraft is on a heading of 100 degrees (m) from a VOR
...
The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by:
A – phase comparison between a 108 Mhz reference signal and a 30 Hz
variable signal
B – phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an
amplitude modulated variable signal
C – phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a
frequency modulated variable signal
D – phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 Mhz
variable signal
Ref: all
Ans: B
11147
...
An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial
...
Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
A – static interference
B – uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
C – night effect
D – quadrantal error
Ref: all
Ans: B
11159
...
Estimated position of an
aircraft N59o E025o, variation 20oE
What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
A – 167o
B – 347o
C – 160o
D – 193o
Ref: all
Ans: A
11170
...
The correct indications are:
A – TO: ½ Scale deflection to the left
B – FROM: ½ Scale deflection to the left
C – TO: ½ Scale deflection to the right
D – FROM: ½ Scale deflection to the right
Ref: all
Ans: A
11180
...
What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL 150 can receive
signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
A – 156 NM
B – 220 NM
C – 147 NM
D – 184 NM
Ref: all
Ans: D
11189
...
Which of the
following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
A – 284o with the FROM flag showing
B – 284o with the TO flag showing
C – 104o with the TO flag showing
D – 104o with the FROM flag showing
Ref: all
Ans: B
11193
...
An aircraft is located at position 56o00 N 073o00 W where the
magnetic variation equals 28oW
...
The VOR system is limited to about 1o of accuracy
...
0 NM
B – 3
...
5 NM
D – 3
...
Using a VOR outside the DOC may result in interference from:
A – other beacons
B – other aircraft
C – sky waves
D – ground waves
Ref: all
Ans: A
11205
...
The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90o out
of phase on magnetic:
A – west
B – south
C – east
D – north
Ref: all
Ans: C
11215
...
To convert the RMI bearings of
NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct positions to read magnetic
variation are: (VOR), (NDB)
A – aircraft position, beacon position
B - beacon position, beacon position
C – beacon position, aircraft position
D – aircraft position, aircraft position
Ref: all
Ans: C

11222
...
15 Mhz
C – The TO/FROM indicator shows whether the aircraft is heading towards or
away from the beacon
D – Wide coverage is obtained from only a few beacons
Ref: all
Ans: A
11229
...
Given:
Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090o
...
In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the
magnetic variation:
A – at the VOR
B – at the aircraft location
C – at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
D – at both the VOR and aircraft
Ref: all
Ans: A
11241
...
At
what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?
A – 1230 km
B – 123 km
C – 12
...
If the reference phase differs 30o with the variable phase the radial from the
VOR station will be:
A – 030o
B – 330o
C – 210o
D – 150o
Ref: all
Ans: A
11252
...
An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100
FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
A – 135 NM
B – 123 NM
C – 128 NM
D – 142 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
11255
...

A – west
B – north
C – east
D – south
Ref: all
Ans: C
11258
...
5o
...
An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is
locked on to a reading of 090o
...
The
available information from the VOR is:
A – Radial 315o, relative bearing unknown
B – Radial unknown, relative bearing 225o
C – Radial unknown, relative bearing 045o
D – Radial 135o, relative bearing unknown
Ref: all
Ans: D

11270
...
Assume that the
indicator is set to define the centreline of an airway, that the aircraft is 90 nm
from the VOR and inbound to the facility
...
An aircraft on a heading of 280o(M) is on a bearing of 090o(M) from a VOR
...
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244o radial
...
If the compass providing information to the RMI suddenly gets a 20o
deviation:
A – the magnetic track to the VOR station may be read on the compass card
under the tip of the VOR needle
B – the number of the received radial may still be read on the compass card
under the tail of the VOR needle
C – the relative bearing to the VOR, as observed on the RMI, will jump 20o
D – all 3 answers are correct
Ref: all
Ans: D
11281
...
The VOR OBS is also set to
270o with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed
...
The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR:
A – Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR
B – Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or
away from the VOR
C – Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre
the aircraft towards or from the CDI needle
D – Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI
indication
Ref: all
Ans: B

11288
...
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 210 may receive
signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is
approximately:
A – 163 NM
B – 245 NM
C – 204 NM
D – 183 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
11296
...
5
C – 1
...
A VOR is sited at position A (45o00N, 010o00E)
...
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is
10oW and at B is 15oW, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
A – 185o
B – 180o
C – 190o
D – 195o
Ref: all
Ans: C

15480
...
If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range,
errors could be caused by:
A – sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency
B – interference from other transmitters
C – noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the
transmitter
D – sky wave interference from the same transmitter
Ref: all
Ans: B
15488
...
An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within
range of a serviceable VOR
...
5o or more
D – 2
...
An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100 FT
above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
A – 100 NM
B – 120 NM
C – 110 NM
D – 90 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
15518
...
Which of the following lists information required to input a way point or
Phantom Station into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
A – Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the way point or Phantom
Station
B – Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the way point or
Phantom Station
C – Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the way point or Phantom
Station
D – Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the way point or Phantom
Station
Ref: all
Ans: D

15542
...
The variable signal of a conventional VOR is:
A – 30 Hz frequency modulated
B – 30 Hz amplitude modulated
C – 9960 Hz frequency modulated
D – 9960 Hz amplitude modulated
Ref: all
Ans: B
16238
...
When using a DVOR, the pilot should be aware that the reference and variable
signals are reversed
...
An aeroplane is on radial 070o of a VOR, HDG is 270o
...
A VOT is:
A – a test VOR
B – a terminal VOR
C – a trial VOR
D – a tracking VOR
Ref: all
Ans: A
16392
...
If you correctly tuned in a VOR situated to your east, your RMI should read
___ and your OBS would read ___
A – 000; 000 with needle central and TO indicated
B – 090; 090 with needle central and FROM indicated
C – 000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated
D – 090; 090 with needle central and TO indicated
Ref: all
Ans: C

16845
...
An aircraft on a heading of 270o (M) has 093 set on the OBS and TO indicated
on the VOR L/R deviation indicator
...
The
aircraft is on the:
A – 277o radial
B – 089o radial
C – 097o radial
D – 269o radial
Ref: all
Ans: D
21444
...
(Refer to figure 062-12)
What is the value of the selected course?
A – 260o (M)
B – 272o (M)
C – 299o (M)
D – 280o (M)
Ref: all
Ans: C

21521
...
Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at
which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
A – 120 NM
B – 180 NM
C – 100 NM
D – 151 NM
Ref: all
Ans: D
21527
...
The magnetic variation at A is 18oW, and at B is 10oW
...
An aircraft is on the 120o radial from a VOR station
...
If the magnetic heading is 070o
the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
A – behind
B – in front
C – right
D – left
Ref: all
Ans: A

21530
...
A
VOR is located at 30oN – 013oE with a magnetic variation of 15oW
...
An aircraft, on a heading of 180oM is on a bearing of 270oM from a VOR
...
In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver:
A – uses pulse technique to determine the radial
B – measures the time difference between reception of the two signals
transmitted from the ground installation
C – measures the phase difference between the reference phase and the
variable phase of the signal
D – measures the time difference between sending the interrogation signal and
receiving the transponder signal
Ref: all
Ans: C

21576
...
The OBS is set on 048o, TO appears in the window
...
The VOR radial is approximately:
A – 218o
B – 058o
C – 038o
D – 238o
Ref: all
Ans: D
21598
...
You are on a compass heading of 090o on the 255 radial from a VOR
...
The deviation bar will show:
A – Full scale deflection right with a ‘from’ indication
B – Full scale deflection left with a ‘from’ indication
C – Full scale deflection left with a ‘to’ indication
D – Full scale deflection right with a ‘to’ indication
Ref: all
Ans: B

21614
...
The OBI is set to 025o
...
Relative to the
station, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
A – 115o and 205o
B – 295o and 025o
C – 025o and 115o
D – 205o and 295o
Ref: all
Ans: D
21619
...
Which segment are you in:
A – NE
B – NW
C – SE
D – SW
Ref: all
Ans: B
21622
...
What use if any does TACAN provide to civilian users:
A – Bearing information only
B – Bearing and range information
C – Range information only
D – It is of no use to civilian pilots
Ref: all
Ans: C

21656
...
A frequency most suitable for a terminal VOR would be:
A – 108
...
15
C – 108
...
05
Ref: all
Ans: A
21658
...
The Declared Operational Coverage of a VOR is:
A – An altitude and range limited by transmitter power
B – A range limited by transmitter power
C – An altitude and range limited by signal to noise ratio
D – A range limited by signal to noise ratio
Ref: all
Ans: C

21748
...
What are the indications to show that you are receiving a Doppler VOR:
A – The identification will always end with a D
B – There is no difference from the conventional VOR indications
C – The Doppler VOR identification begins with a D
D – The ident is spoken eg “Aberdeen Doppler VOR”
Ref: all
Ans: B
21765
...
5o
B – 1o
C – 1
...
An aircraft at FL 350 is using a VOR (2060 amsl)
...
What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the
centreline of an airway (10 nm wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is
5
...
On a CVOR the phase difference between the AM and FM signals is 30o
...
The maximum range an aircraft at FL 270 can receive transmissions from a
VOR/DME at 800 ft is:
A – 275 nm
B – 200 nm
C – 240 nm
D – 220 nm
Ref: all
Ans: C

21788
...
75
B – 109
...
35
D – 112
...
What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can
be received by an aircraft at FL 012
...
What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users:
A – magnetic bearing
B – DME
C – Nothing
D – DME and magnetic bearing
Ref: all
Ans: B
21795
...
In doppler VOR the reference signal is (iii) and the
direction of rotation will (iv):
A – (i) Clockwise; (ii) FM; (iii) FM; (iv) Clockwise
B – (i) Anticlockwise; (ii) AM; (iii) AM; (iv) Clockwise
C – (i) Clockwise; (ii) AM; (iii) AM; (iv) Anticlockwise
D – (i) Anticlockwise; (ii) FM; (iii) AM; (iv) Anticlockwise
Ref: all
Ans: C

21799
...
A position report is required when crossing the 133 radial from VOR
Y
...
The JAR OPS recommendation for the colour of a VORTAC which is not in
use by the FMC is:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – cyan
Ref: all
Ans: D
22343
...
When the term “radial” is used in reference to VOR it means:
A – The magnetic bearing of the VOR station
B – The magnetic bearing from the VOR station
C – The magnetic bearing of the aircraft to the station
D – The true bearing from the VOR station
Ref: all
Ans: B

22361
...
(Refer to figure 062-01)
The indication was obtained when the aircraft was at a range of 50 nm from
the VOR
...
3 nm left of track
D – 089 radial and 3
...
The maximum width of the cone of silence above a VOR at 30 000 ft is:
A – 4
...
2 nm
C – 11
...
8 nm
Ref: all
Ans: C
22372
...
Assuming that the VOR is correctly set-up, the radial and
horizontal distance the aircraft is off track are:
A – 062 radial and 9 nm right of track
B – 074 radial and 6 nm left of track
C – 242 radial and 6 nm left of track
D – 254 radial and 9 nm right of track
Ref: all
Ans: A

22380
...
5 nm
C – 2 nm
D – 3
...
An aircraft is flying a heading of 090o along the Equator, homing to a VOR
...
In a VOR the reference signal and the variable signal have a 30 Hz
modulation
...
The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:
A – At all times
B – By day only
C – By night only
D – At all times except dawn and dusk
Ref: all
Ans: A

22800
...
If the
DME range is 90 nm your VOR radial and distance from the centre line will
be:
A – 074; 9 nm
B – 242; 6 nm
C – 062; 9 nm
D – 254; 9 nm
Ref: all
Ans: C
22863
...
A VOR indication of 240o FROM is given
...
The heading o(T) in nil wind to reach the station is:
A – 231
B – 051
C – 053
D – 233
Ref: all
Ans: C

22866
...
Variation at the VOR is 5E
...
The aircraft’s position relative to the airway lateral boundary is:
A – 3 nm inside the airways eastern boundary
B – 1 nm inside the airways western boundary
C – 1 nm outside the airways western boundary
D – 1 nm inside the airways eastern boundary
Ref: all
Ans: B
22873
...
The variation of a VOR at the same location is
12oW
...
An aircraft bears 036o (T) from a VOR beacon
...
What OBS setting would make the
CDI needle central with ‘TO’ showing?
A – 028o
B – 208o
C – 232o
D – 052o
Ref: all
Ans: B

24950
...
The indications of a VOR in an aircraft tracking towards a VOR are 075o (M)
TO and deviation indicator central
...

What are the drift and heading in o(M)?
A – 12oS; 087
B – 12oP; 063
C – 12oS; 063
D – 12oP; 087
Ref: all
Ans: C
24994
...
What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and
have the same identification?
A – 2000 m
B – 60 m
C – 600 m
D–6m
Ref: all
Ans: C

24996
...
When tracking the 090 radial outbound from a VOR, the track flown is:
A – a straight line
B – a rhumb line
C – a great circle
D – a constant true heading
Ref: all
Ans: C
24998
...
On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E (VAR 13oE) is an aircraft at
59N025E (VAR 20oE)?
A – 160
B – 347
C – 193
D – 167
Ref: all
Ans: D

25000
...
At a range of 200 nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1o, how far off the
centreline is the aircraft?
A – 3
...
75 nm
C – 7 nm
D – 1 nm
Ref: all
Ans: A
25094
...
An aircraft at FL 360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME
...
7 nm
C – 10 nm
D – 13
...
The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmission and
reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
A – transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
B – pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
C – aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz
removed from each other
D – pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft
Ref: all
Ans: D
11167
...
The slant range from the
ground transponder was:
A – 165 NM
B – 186 NM
C – 296 NM
D – 330 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
11168
...
What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground
installations if they are to have the same Morse code identifier?
A – 60 m
B – 2000 m
C – 600 m
D – 300 m
Ref: all
Ans: C

11187
...
In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring
Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying
at FL 400?
A – When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
B – When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
C – When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
D – When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM
Ref: all
Ans: B
11202
...
You want to identify the DME by listening
to the call sign
...
A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal
strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:
A – standby mode
B – search mode
C – memory mode
D – signal controlled search
Ref: all
Ans: C
11213
...
5nm
B – decreases with increase of range
C – increases with increase of altitude
D – is approximately ±2 nm
Ref: all
Ans: B
11217
...
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
A – UHF band and is a primary radar system
B – VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
C – UHF band and is a secondary radar system
D – SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
Ref: all
Ans: C

11251
...
The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30
...
An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected
from the ground because:
A – the pulse recurrence rates are varied
B – DME transmits twin pulses
C – they are not on the receiver frequency
D – DME uses the UHF band
Ref: all
Ans: C
11290
...
An aircraft passing vertically above the station at
flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
A – 11 NM
B – 7 NM
C – 6 NM
D – 8 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C

11301
...
The reason for this is:
A – the beacon is saturated
B – the aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME
C – the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
D – the aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response
Ref: all
Ans: C
11303
...
The
reason for this is that the:
A – aeroplane is below the line of sight altitude
B – aeroplane is circling around the station
C – altitude is too high
D – range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
11304
...
60 PPS after 100 seconds
D – stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max
...
On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:
A – ground equipment failure
B – airborne equipment failure
C – the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
D – the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search
Ref: all
Ans: C

15476
...
A DME station is located 1,000 feet above MSL
...
Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft
ground speed?
A – A VOR station sited on the flight route
B – A DME station sited across the flight route
C – A DME station sited on the flight route
D – An ADF sited on the flight route
Ref: all
Ans: C
15482
...
For a conventional DME facility Beacon Saturation will occur whenever the
number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:
A – 80
B – 100
C – 200
D – 60
Ref: all
Ans: B
15484
...
The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the
maximum systematic error should not exceed:
A - + or – 1
...
25 NM
D - + or – 1
...
ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring
Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
A - + or – 0
...
25 NM plus 0
...
25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5
NM
D - + or – 0
...
25% of the distance measured
Ref: all
Ans: D

15541
...
Height error has the greatest effect on accuracy when an aeroplane is:
A – over the base line extensions at low altitude
B – at the base line bisector at low altitudes
C – at the base line bisector at high altitude
D – over the base line extension at high altitude
Ref: all
Ans: D
16231
...
Given:
Height of aircraft 32,000 feet
DME indicated range 16 nm
The actual range is:
A – 22
...
58 NM
C – 15
...
58 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C

16234
...
If an NDB has a published range of 30 nm, its accuracy is:
A – guaranteed to that range
B – only guaranteed at night to that range
C – only guaranteed by day to that range
D – is not protected in any way
Ref: all
Ans: C
16394
...
Which of the following statements is TRUE in respect to microwave landing
system?
A – Azimuth and elevation signals use the same aerial on a time share basic
B – Azimuth and elevation signals are transmitted at the same UHF frequency
C – A special precision DME, operating in the SHF band, provides range
information
D – Range information is provided by precision DME operating in the UHF
Ref: all
Ans: D

21528
...
The DME receiver is capable of determining ground
speed
...
An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station
...
An aircraft, at FL 410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level
...
8 km
B – 6
...
1 NM
D – 6
...
DME channels operate in the frequency band which includes:
A – 600 MHz
B – 110 MHz
C – 300 MHz
D – 1000 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: D

21570
...
The design requirements for DME stipulate that at a range of 100 NM the
maximum systematic error should not exceed:
A - + or – 1
...
25 NM
D - + or – 1
...
The indicated range from a DME station is:
A – slant range
B – ground range
C – 0 when passing overhead the station
D – ground range only if the beacon is co-located with VOR
Ref: all
Ans: A
21578
...
When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM
...
6 NM
B – 5
...
9 NM
D – 4
...
Which one is the most correct statement regarding the range of the DME
system?
A – Operates on the principle of phase comparison
B – Operates on VHF
C – Range within “line of sight”, and maximum 200 Nm
D – Has unlimited range due to ground wave propagation
Ref: all
Ans: C
21609
...
An aircraft at FL 210 cannot receive a signal from a DME 220 nm away
...
How many aircraft will DME accommodate before reaching saturation:
A – 50
B – 100
C – 120
D – 150
Ref: all
Ans: B
21660
...
The maximum number of aeroplanes that can be responded to by the DME
ground facility is:
A – 100
B – 10
C – 150
D – Unlimited
Ref: all
Ans: A
21662
...
In DME interrogation and responses are separated by 63 MHz in order to:
A – Avoid station saturation
B – Differentiate between precision and ordinary DME
C – Facilitate channel selection
D – Prevent self-triggering
Ref: all
Ans: D
21666
...
The accuracy of DME is:
A – ±1nm
B – ±¼ nm + 1
...
25% of the range whichever is the greater
Ref: all
Ans: B
21760
...
A VOR and DME are frequency paired
...

This denotes that:
A – The two beacons are co-located
B – The beacons are supporting the same site but are not co-located
C – The beacons are greater than 2000 m apart
D – The beacons are at the same location but are more than 1000 m apart
Ref: all
Ans: B
21773
...
The slant range is:
A – 9
...
7 km
C – 5
...
7 km
Ref: all
Ans: C
21775
...
In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is
coding STZ
...
Which of the following provides distance information:
A – DME
B – VOR
C – ADF
D – VDF
Ref: all
Ans: A
21791
...
A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about ___ aircraft are
using the transponder
...
A DME Transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:
A – the PRF of the pulse pairs is jittered
B – it uses MTI
C – the interrogation and reply frequencies differ
D – the reflections will all fall within the fly back period
Ref: all
Ans: C

21810
...
The plan range is:
A – 13
...
5 nm
C – 15 nm
D – 17
...
What are the DME frequencies?
A – 1030 and 1090 MHz
B – 1030 – 1090 MHz
C – 960 and 1215 MHz
D – 960 – 1215 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: D
22329
...
The true aircraft
range from the DME is between:
A – 24
...
5 nm
B – 23
...
75 nm
C – 25
...
8 nm
D – 22
...
5 nm
Ref: all
Ans: B
22335
...
DME pulses are transmitted as pulse pairs
...
How does the DME tell different aircraft apart:
A – By using a jittered PRF
B – By the different frequencies transmitted
C – By the differences in wavelength
D – By the phase of the received pulses
Ref: all
Ans: A
22373
...
An aircraft at FL 200 is 220 nm from a DME (0 ft amsl)
...
A typical DME frequency is:
A – 1000 MHz
B – 1300 MHz
C – 1000 KHz
D – 113
...
Which of the following would give the best indication of speed:
A – A VOR on the flight plan route
B – A VOR off the flight plan route
C – A DME on the flight plan route
D – A DME off the flight plan route
Ref: all
Ans: C
22793
...
A DME transmitter is operating in the search-for-lock phase
...
If the DME ground transmitter fails
A – the last measured range is frozen for 20 secs
B - all range information is immediately lost
C – the last recorded range is retained until the ground transmitter is restored
D – the counters continue to rotate for 8 to 10 seconds
Ref: all
Ans: D
22801
...
“DME is a ___ radar which provides ___ distances between the aircraft and a
ground ___”
...
If a DME transponder becomes saturated it will:
A – give preference to the nearest 100 aircraft
B – give preference to the furthest aircraft up to a maximum of 70
C – give preference to the aircraft with the strongest transmissions
D – give preference to the first 100 aircraft which interrogated it
Ref: all
Ans: C

24949
...
The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects
replies to other aircraft transmissions because:
A – the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft
B – the pulse pairs from each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation
C – the interrogation frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
D – the interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: A
25003
...
The time from the transmission of the interrogation pulse to the receipt of the
reply from the DME ground station is 2000 microseconds (ignore the delay at
the DME)
...
The DME counters are rotating continuously
...
On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating
...
A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:
A – the surface of the runway
B – less than 50 ft
C – less than 100 ft
D – less than 200 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
11095
...
An aircraft carrying out a 3o glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction
in ground speed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold
...
Every 10 kt decrease in ground speed, on a 3o ILS glide path, will require an
approximate:
A – increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
B – decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
C – decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
D – increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11124
...
25o glide slope at a ground speed
of 140 kt is approximately:
A – 850 FT/MIN
B – 800 FT/MIN
C – 670 FT/MIN
D – 700 FT/MIN
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11125
...
The ILS
indication will show:
A – Fly right and fly down
B – Fly left and fly down
C – Fly right and fly up
D – Fly left and fly up
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

11140
...
5 NM from touchdown
...
The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:
A – A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone
B – An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz modulated tone
C – A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone
D – A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
11145
...
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3o glide
path at a ground speed of 120 kt?
A – 550 FT/MIN
B – 600 FT/MIN
C – 800 FT/MIN
D – 950 FT/MIN
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

11156
...
Lined up on the ILS of runway
25, the localiser needle will be:
A – right of centre
B – left of centre
C – centred
D – centred with the fail flag showing
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
11158
...
Using the 1 in 60 rule, calculate the rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3
...

A – 172 ft/min
B – 325 ft/min
C – 641 ft/min
D – 522 ft/min
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
11178
...
For a category one ILS glide path of 3
...
49 to 5
...
49 to 5
...
65 to 5
...
65 to 5
...
What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner
Marker beacon?
A – white – amber – blue
B – amber – white – green
C – blue – amber – white
D – blue – green – white
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
11195
...
The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the
active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress
than during good weather operations is:
A – heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals
B – aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
C – to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations
D – to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

11212
...
Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the
ILS localiser cockpit display represent:
A – 2
...
5 degrees
C – 2
...
5 degrees
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
11228
...

A – (i) 8o (ii) 10
B – (i) 25o (ii) 17
C – (i) 35o (ii) 25
D – (i) 5o (ii) 8
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
11231
...
On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150
Hz modulation
...
A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200 deg
...
An aircraft on an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz modulation than 150
Hz modulation in both localiser and glide path
...
What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information
for a 3o ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
A – 0
...
75o above the glide path and 8o each side
of the localiser centreline
B – 1
...
25o above the horizontal and 8o each side
of the localiser centreline
C – 0
...
5o each side of the localiser
centreline
D – 3o above and below the glide path and 10o each side of the localiser
centreline
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11284
...
An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser
inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
A – will receive signals without identification coding
B – will not normally receive signals
C – may receive false course indications
D – can expect signals to give correct indications
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

11291
...
At 5
...
Using an angle of 0
...

A – 1280 ft
B – 1325 ft
C – 1375 ft
D – 1450 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11299
...
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
A – 112,10 MHz
B – 108,25 MHz
C – 110,20 MHz
D – 109,15 MHz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

15487
...
6 NM from the
threshold
...
The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two
overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i) frequencies and carry different
(ii)
...
A Cat III ILS glide path transmitter provides reliable guidance information
down to:
A – the surface of the runway
B – a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway
C – a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway
D – a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
15504
...
What frequency is assigned to all ILS marker beacons?
A – One chosen from between 108-112 MHz at odd tenths
B – 75 MHz
C – 90 Hz
D – 150 Hz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
16615
...
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A – A localiser back beam should only be used for approaches if there is a
published procedure
B – All localisers have back beams
...
An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing
guidance to a height of:
A – 15m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold
B – 60m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold
C – 15m on QNH
D – 60m on QNH
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

16618
...
On a localiser the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz
...
The upper limit of the vertical coverage of the localiser must be:
A – not less than 300 m above the highest point on the approach
B – not less than 7o above the horizontal (drawn from the localiser)
C – not less than 600 m above the horizontal
D – not less than 35o above the horizontal
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
16621
...
In order to maintain a 3o glide path at an approach speed of 150 kts, the rate of
descent required is approximately:
A – 600 feet per minute
B – 300 feet per minute
C – 450 feet per minute
D – 750 feet per minute
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
16623
...
A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides
accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
A – runway surface
B – 200 feet above the inner marker
C – 200 feet above the runway threshold
D – 50 feet above ILS reference point
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21518
...
According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation
below the glide path during ILS approach?
A – Half scale deflection
B – One quarter scale deflection
C - Three quarter scale deflection
D – Full scale deflection
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21537
...
5 degrees
B – 1
...
5 degrees
D – 2
...
Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display,
what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centre line
when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
A – 1
...
0o to the left
C – 2
...
0o to the left
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21541
...
5o above or below the correct glide path
B – 0
...
5o above or below the correct glide path
D – 1
...
Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is
approximately:
A – 10o offset from the localiser centre line
B – 5o offset from the localiser centre line
C – 1
...
5o offset from the localiser centre line
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21566
...
What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are
used on an ILS approach?
A – 75 kHZ
B – 90 HZ
C – 328 mHZ
D – 63 mHZ

135 kHZ
150 HZ
335 mHZ
123 mHZ

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21587
...
What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
A – 400 Hz
B – 1300 Hz
C – 3000 Hz
D – 75 MHz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21596
...
Visual: Blue light flashes
B – Audio: 1300 Hz, alternating dots and dashes
...
Visual: Blue light flashes
D – Audio: 3000 Hz, alternating dots and dashes
...
Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System
(ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
A – Two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier frequency
B – Two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency
C - pencil beam comprising a series of smaller beams each carrying a
different modulation
D – Two overlapping lobes on different radio carrier frequencies but with the
same modulation
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21599
...
Which range facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter
identification group?
A – Locator
B – Inner marker
C – Outer marker
D – Glide path
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21667
...
Which of the following is true with respect to marker beacons?
A – An airway marker and an ILS inner marker carry the same modulation
B – Airway markers and ILS middle markers have the same modulations
C – Airway markers and ILS outer markers have the same modulations
D – No two markers have the same modulations
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21681
...
ILS markers are identified in the aeroplane by colour light and audio signal
...
The azimuth and area coverage of a Cat I ILS localiser is:
A – 8o at 10 nm, 25o at 25 nm
B – 35o at 17 nm, 10o at 25 nm
C – 8o at 35 nm, 25o at 10 nm
D – 8o at 10 nm, 10o at 25 nm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21767
...
5o glide slope at a ground speed
of 140 kt is approximately:
A – 850 fpm
B – 670 fpm
C – 800 fpm
D – 700 fpm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21770
...
An ILS localiser can give reverse sense indications on the approach side and
outside the protected coverage:
A – Beyond 25 nm
B – Beyond 35o azimuth either side of the approach
C – Beyond 10o azimuth either side of the approach
D – At anytime
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21777
...
30 MHz
110
...
70 MHz
113
...
The ILS glide path coverage in elevation is accurate to:
A – An angle 1
...
25o above the horizontal for a 3o glide
path
B – An angle 1
...
25o above the horizontal for a 3
...
45o to an angle of 1
...
45o to an angle of 1
...
25o glide
path
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
22279
...
The ILS localiser is normally positioned:
A – 300 m from the downwind end of the runway
B – 300 m from the threshold
C – 300 m from the upwind end of the runway
D – 200 m abeam the threshold
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
22281
...
The CDI
indications will be:
A – unreliable in azimuth and elevation
B – reliable in azimuth, unreliable in elevation
C – no indications will be shown
D – reliable in azimuth and elevation
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
22282
...
In which band does the ILS glide path operate:
A – Metric
B – Centimetric
C – Decimetric
D – Hectometric
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

22346
...
The minima for a CAT II ILS are:
A – Height: 100 ft ; RVR: 300 m
B – Height: 100 ft ; RVR: 400 m
C – Height: 50 ft ; RVR: 300 m
D – Height: 50 ft ; RVR: 400 m
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
22354
...
ILS glide path transmits lobes which are:
A – On the same frequency and are separated by phase comparison
B – On different frequencies which are then phase compared
C – On different frequencies and have different modulations
D – On the same frequency and have different modulations
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

22370
...
8o
...
9 nm from the ILS touchdown
point
...
The middle marker of an ILS has an aural and visual identification of:
A – Alternating dots and dashes (3 per second) with an amber light
B – Alternating dots and dashes (3 per second) with a blue light
C – Continuous dashes (3 per second) with an amber light
D – Continuous dashes (3 per second) with a blue light
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
22375
...
At the
outer marker (4
...
The ROD should be reduced by:
A – 120 fpm
B – 150 fpm
C – 170 fpm
D – 190 fpm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
22386
...
The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 nm for a CAT 1 ILS is guaranteed up
to an angle either side of the extended centreline of (i) using the signal outside
the coverage limits on the approach side of the localiser aerial (ii) result in
reverse sense indications
...
The maximum safe ‘fly-up’ indication on the glide path needle (assuming a 5dot indicator) is:
A – 2 dots
B – 1
...
5 dots
D – 1 dot
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
22875
...
9o glide slope:
A – 880 ft
B – 765 ft
C – 840 ft
D – 825 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
24953
...
The ILS localiser transmits VHF frequencies between:
A – 108 and 117,95 MHz
B – 112 and 117,95 MHz
C – 108 and 111,95 MHz
D – 118 and 136,95 MHz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
24972
...
The signal is made up of
two lobes:
A – on the same frequency with the same modulation
B – on different frequencies with the same modulation
C – on different frequencies with different modulations
D – on the same frequency with different modulations
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
25007
...
The principle of operation of the ILS localiser transmitter is that it transmits
two overlapping lobes on:
A – different frequencies with different phases
B – the same frequency with different phases
C – the same frequency with different amplitude modulations
D – different frequencies with different amplitude modulations
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

25009
...
The audio frequency of the outer marker is:
A – 3000 Hz
B – 400 Hz
C – 1300 Hz
D – 1000 Hz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
25011
...
For a 2
...
22o – 4
...
05o – 5
...
85o – 4
...
35o – 5
...
For reliable navigation information the approximate coverage of a 3o ILS
glide slope is:
A – 0
...
45o from the horizontal to 1
...
5o to 5o from the horizontal and 8o either side of the localiser
D – 3o above and below the glide path and 10o either side of the localiser
centre line
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
25573
...
That angle is:
A – 0
...
25 x the glide path angle
C – 1
...
35 x the glide path angle
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

062-01-06 MLS (micro landing system)
11123
...
The coverage of MLS is ___ either side of the centre line to a distance of ___
A – 40 deg ; 40 nm
B – 40 deg ; 20 nm
C – 20 deg ; 20 nm
D – 20 deg ; 40 nm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: B
11196
...
Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System
(MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
A – It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth)
transmitter
B – It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is
not possible to use an ILS
C – The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker
beacons or DME) to determine range
D – There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be
operated because there is an unlimited number of frequency channels
available
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11225
...
The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a
fan-shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
A - + or – 50o of the runway centre-line
B - + or – 40o of the runway centre-line
C - + or – 60o of the runway centre-line
D - + or – 30o of the runway centre-line
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11256
...
The principle of operation of MLS is:
A – time referenced scanning beams
B – phase comparison directional beams
C – lobe comparison of scanning beams
D – frequency comparison of reference beams
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

11268
...
MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide
azimuth coverage of:
A - + or – 20o about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10 NM
B - + or – 20o about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
C - + or – 40o about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NM
D - + or – 40o about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
16397
...
In a MLS the time that elapses between the passage of the TO scan and the
FROM scan at the aircraft position is:
A – not related to the angular position of the aircraft
B – indirectly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft
C – directly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft
D – none of the above are correct
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

16624
...
A microwave landing system operates:
A – on one of 200 channels in the band 5030 to 5090 GHz
B – on one of 200 channels in the band 5
...
03 GHz to 5
...
The scanning beam of the MLS system is called:
A – frequency reference scanning beam (FRSB)
B – phase reference scanning beam (PRSB)
C – time reference scanning beam (TRSB)
D – angle reference scanning beam (ARSB)
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
16628
...
Distance on MLS is measured by:
A – measuring the time taken for the primary radar pulse to travel from the
MLS transmitter to the aircraft receiver
B – measuring the time taken for the secondary radar pulse to travel from the
MLS transmitter to the aircraft receiver
C – phase comparison between the azimuth and elevation beams
D – co-located DME
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
22286
...
MLS consists of:
A – a common azimuth and elevation transmitter
B – overlapping centre-line lobe transmission in azimuth angled to provide
glide slope information
C – an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter on separate
frequencies and a DME
D – an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter operating on a shared
frequency and a DME
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
24946
...
With regards to radio waves, which statement is true?
A – They are reflected by metallic objects with a size compatible to the
wavelength
B – The longer the wavelength the greater the surface attenuation
C – They travel at 186,000 nm a second in a vacuum
D – High frequencies need large aerials
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8168
...
In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term Pulse
Recurrence Rate (PRR) signifies the:
A – ratio of pulse period to pulse width
B – delay after which the process re-starts
C – the number of cycles per second
D – number of pulses per second
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
8186
...
The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:
A – reduces side lobes and directs more energy into the main beam
B – removes the need for azimuth slaving
C – side lobe suppression
D – can produce simultaneous map and weather information
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8217
...
The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary
radar is the:
A – pulse recurrence rate
B – power output
C – size of parabolic receiver aerial
D – height of the transmitter above the ground
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8230
...
The interval in time between the commencement of two consecutive pulses is:
A – pulse rate
B – pulse width
C – pulse recurrence frequency
D – pulse recurrence period
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
8233
...
The maximum range of primary radar depends on:
A – a pulse recurrence frequency
B – wave length
C – frequency
D – pulse length
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8248
...
The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:
A – 300,000
B – 161,842
C – 163,842
D – 186,000
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11151
...

A – magnetic
B – parabolic
C – horizontal
D – vertical
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
11309
...
The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured
by a pulsed radar is pulse:
A – repetition rate
B – amplitude
C – length
D – frequency
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: C
11324
...
The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is
determined by the (i); the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii)
A – (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
B – (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
C – (i) pulse length (ii) length of the time-base
D – (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
11330
...
Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary
search radar?
A – Short pulse length and narrow beam
B – Long pulse length and wide beam
C – Long pulse length and narrow beam
D – Short pulse length and wide beam
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

15546
...
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency
(PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
A – minimum range
B – beam width
C – maximum theoretical range
D – target discrimination
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
16262
...
What is the maximum theoretical range for a primary radar with a PRF of 324
pps?
A – 250 nm
B – 500 nm
C – 463 nm
D – 463 sm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

16633
...
In a Cathode Ray Tube the grid is used to:
A – control the focus
B – control the brilliance
C – drain electrons from the tube
D – deflect the electron stream to form a time-base
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
16635
...
The maximum theoretical range of the system is:
A – 202 nm
B – 303 nm
C – 404 nm
D – 505 nm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
16637
...
In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency
signify?
A – The radar frequency used
B – The number of revolutions performed by the radar antenna per minute
C – The number of pulses transmitted per second
D - The time between each transmission of pulses
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21615
...
What technique is employed by primary radar employing a single aerial dish:
A – Pulse technique
B – Continuous wave
C – Phase comparison
D – Pseudo random noise
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21628
...
If a radar has a pulse length of 2
...
If the pulse length used in a radar is 4µs, ignoring receiver recovery time, the
minimum range at which a target can be detected is:
A – 1200 metres
B – 2400 metres
C – 600 metres
D – 0 metres
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21711
...
Disregarding pulse width and the fly-back period of a radar, if the maximum
range is 139 nm, the PRF will be:
A – 582 pps
B – 1164 pps
C – 1718 pps
D – 2328 pps
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

22289
...
What does pulse recurrence rate refer to:
A – the number of cycles per second
B – the number of pulses per second
C – the ratio of pulse width to pulse repetition period
D – the delay known as fly-back or dead time
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
22291
...
The definition of a radar display will be best with:
A – Narrow beam width and narrow pulse width
B – Narrow beam width and wide pulse width
C – Wide beam width and narrow pulse width
D – Wide beam width and wide pulse width
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

22871
...
The factor which determines the minimum range of a radar is:
A – PRF
B – Pulse interval
C – Pulse length
D – Radio frequency of transmission
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
24979
...
On what principle does primary ATC radar work?
A – pulse technique
B – pulse comparison
C – continuous wave
D – transponder interrogation
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

062-02-02 Ground radar
8160
...
5 nm using QNH unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is
to be flown on QFE
B – 2
...
5 nm using QNH only
D – 2
...
In a primary radar system:
A – the radar is primarily used for range-finding
B – all radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar
site
C – the aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals
from the ground radar
D – the radar is the primary aid for ATC
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
8171
...
A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a
maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
A – 270 NM
B – 135 NM
C – 67 NM
D – 27 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
8192
...
22 cm
...
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar
is approximately:
A – 100 NM
B – 200 NM
C – 300 NM
D – 400 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
8203
...
The PRF is:
A - 150 pps for 100 secs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on
B – 150 pps for 15,000 pulse pairs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on
C – 150 pps until locked on
D – 24 pps until locked on
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

8211
...
A saw tooth voltage is used to generate the time-base of a simple non-rotating
radar because:
A – a linear time base is required to correctly represent range and the fly-back
period is short
B – range resolution is optimised
C – this achieves the maximum range
D – bearing resolution is optimised
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8215
...
The maximum PRF required for a range of 50 nm is:
A – 300 pulses per second (pps)
B – 600 pps
C – 1620 pps
D – 3240 pps
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

8223
...
Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates
on frequencies in the (i) band employing an antenna that rotates at
approximately (ii) revolutions per minute; it is (iii) possible to determine the
type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen
...
What is the maximum theoretical range, in nm, of a radar whose PRF is 750
pps?
A – 132 NM
B – 218 NM
C – 200 NM
D – 108 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
8236
...
An aerodrome ground movement radar is likely to operate in the ___ band with
a scan rate of ___ revolutions per minute
...
Why does surface movement radar use a frequency in the SHF band and not
EHF?
A – SHF gives better definition of aircraft type than EHF
B – EHF is absorbed and scattered by moisture in the air
...
This was
completely overcome by switching to SHF
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11307
...
A radar has a PRF of 800 pps
...
0125 micro seconds
B – 325 nm, 1250 micro seconds
C – 187
...
0125 micro seconds
D – 187
...
Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground
radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given:
velocity of light is 300,000 km/second)
A – 150 km
B – 666 km
C – 1333 km
D – 333 km
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
11322
...
Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a
maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second)
of:
A – 330
B – 6000
C – 167
D – 3000
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
11338
...
Its maximum range is:
A – 300 km
B – 150 km
C – 200 km
D – 250 km
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

15524
...
In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between
targets in azimuth is a factor of:
A – pulse length
B – beam width
C – aerial rotation rate
D – Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
15550
...
What is a typical range for an EN-route surveillance radar (RSR)?
A – Up to 25 nm
B – Up to 80 nm
C – Up to 250 nm
D – Up to 2
...
What is the typical range for a Terminal Area surveillance Radar (TAR)?
A – Up to 25 nm
B – Up to 80 nm
C – Up to 250 nm
D – Up to 2
...
Which of the following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse
technique?
1
...

3
...


Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
Airborne Weather Radar
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar

A – 1, 2, 3 and 4
B – 1, 2 and 4 only
C – 2, 3 and 4 only
D – 2 and 4 only
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21539
...
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an
air traffic controller’s presentation gives information regarding the aircraft’s
indicated flight level in increments of:
A – 200 FT
B – 100 FT
C – 250 FT
D – 150 FT
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21607
...
What is the minimum PRI for a radar with a design range of 200 NM?
A – 1333 microseconds
B – 667 microseconds
C – 1235 microseconds
D – 2470 microseconds
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21665
...
An ATC radar unit, which is used in the approach, has a high aerial rotation
rate
...
A surveillance radar element (SRE) used to provide approach guidance:
A – Does not have a height determination capacity
B – Can be used to give guidance both horizontally and vertically
C – Can only be used to a point 3 miles from threshold
D – May not be used in heavy rain because of the high levels of signal loss
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21717
...
It must
be able to provide an accuracy within:
A – ±30 feet elevation, ±20 feet azimuth
B – ±30 feet azimuth, ±20 feet elevation
C – ±30 feet elevation and azimuth
D – ±20 feet elevation and azimuth
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21758
...
A radar has a PRF of 1200 pps
...
An airfield surface movement radar operates in the (i) and rotates at (ii) rpm:
A – (i) SHF; (ii) 120
B – (i) EHF; (ii) 60
C – (i) UHF; (ii) 120
D – (i) SHF; (ii) 60
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21801
...
The best radar for measuring very short ranges is:
A – a continuous wave primary radar
B – a pulsed secondary radar
C – pulsed primary radar
D – a continuous wave secondary radar
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

22374
...
25 nm
B – 0
...
The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained using:
A – Low frequency, narrow beam
B – Short wavelength, narrow beam
C – High frequency, wide beam
D – Long wavelength, wide beam
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
24948
...
Its maximum range in nm is
approximately:
A – 300
B – 160
C – 320
D – 600
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
24965
...
In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have:
A – a short pulse length
B – a high frequency
C – a long wavelength
D – a high PRF
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
25076
...
The PRF of a radar is 450 pps
...
Which of the following is a primary radar system?
A – SSR
B – DME
C – GPS
D – AWR
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

062-02-03 Airborne Weather Radar
2812
...
On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display
...
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT)
increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of
colour from:
A – green to yellow to red
B – yellow to amber to blue
C – green to red to black
D – yellow to orange to red
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8173
...
Typical Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) is gyro stabilised within limits in:
A – pitch and yaw
B – yaw and turn
C – pitch and roll
D – pitch, roll and yaw
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
8183
...
If the AWR transmitter is required to be switched on before take-off the
scanner should be tilted up with:
A – either of these modes selected
B – the mapping mode selected
C – the weather mode selected
D – none of these
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
8187
...
A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM
...
Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in
order to:
A – detect the larger water droplets
B – transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
C – obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
D – detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8194
...
In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
A – fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range
B – fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
C – pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
D – pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

8198
...
In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in Mapping mode enables:
A – better reception of echoes on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea
B – scanning of a large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are
practically independent of distance
C – a greater radar range to be achieved
D – higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
8205
...
5o up
B – 5o up
C – 0o
D – 2
...
The ASMR operates in the ___ band, the antenna rotates at ___ rpm can ___
distinguish between aircraft types
...
In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether
a cloud will be detected are:
A – size of the water drops and diameter of radar scanner
B – range from cloud and wavelength/frequency used
C – size of the water drops and wavelength/frequency used
D – rotational speed of radar scanner and range from cloud
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
8219
...
This means that the:
A – scanner is not rotating
B – transmitter is faulty
C – scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
D – receiver is faulty
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
8222
...
A frequency of airborne weather radar is:
A – 9375 MHz
B – 9375 GHz
C – 9375 kHz
D – 93
...
On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown:
A – in flashing red
B – by a black hole
C – by a steep colour gradient
D – alternating red and white
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
8237
...
5 MHz
C – 93
...
The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
A – give an indication of cloud tops
B – detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
C – inhibit unwanted ground returns
D – extend the mapping range
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
8244
...
5 deg uptilt
C – 2
...
The AWR transmitter is not normally selected on the ground because:
A – it can interfere with radars and approach aids
B – its radiated energy can damage people and equipment
C – it can overload the electrical system
D – none of these answers are correct
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11316
...
A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne
weather radar system because:
A – the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be
kept relatively small
B – greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller
water droplets
C – static interference is minimised
D – less power output is required in the mapping mode
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
11331
...
The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the
screen is 4 degrees up
...

A – 4000 above
B – 6000 above
C – 4000 below
D – 6000 below
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11337
...
AWR in the ___ mode progressively ___ as distances ___ to equalise screen
brightness
A – weather, decreases gain, increase
B – mapping, decreases power, decrease
C – weather, increases power, decrease
D - mapping, increases gain, decrease
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
15491
...
In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
A – unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas
B – only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel
and to protect equipment
C – permitted anywhere
D – totally prohibited
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
15535
...
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined
by the:
A – pulse recurrence frequency
B – transmission power
C – size of the aerial
D – transmission frequency
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
16223
...
Weather radar is used by the pilot to assist in the:
A – detection and avoidance of all turbulence
B – detection and avoidance of potentially turbulent cloud cells
C – detection and determination of a route through active cloud formations
D – detection of other aircraft through clouds
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
16225
...
If the wavelength is 4 cm, the diameter of the dish
is:
A – 20 cm
B – 87
...
5 ins
D – 56
...
A height ring can be used:
A – to determine that the weather radar is functioning
B – to determine the aeroplanes height above the surface
C – as a range marker
D – as the zero point for range measurement
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
16227
...
A cloud is detected at a range
of 60 miles
...
Using
the tangent formula to determine the height of the top of the cloud, in relation
to the aeroplanes cruising level and select the nearest answer from the
following:
A – 31,900 ft above the level
B – 15,900 ft below the level
C – 15,900 ft above the level
D – 31,900 ft below the level
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

16228
...
AWR in the contour mode is used for:
A – identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud
B – identifying rain bearing clouds
C – long range mapping
D – short range mapping
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
16230
...
What wavelength is typically chosen for AWR systems?
A – 9
...
75 MHz
C – 9
...
75 GHz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

21525
...
In an Airborne Weather Radar the areas of greatest turbulence are usually
indicated on the screen by:
A – colour zones of green and yellow
B – blank areas where there is no colour
C – colour zones of red and magenta
D – areas which are coloured black
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21603
...
Which of the following wavelengths would give the best penetration of
weather?
A – 25 cm
B – 50 cm
C – 10 cm
D – 3 cm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

21723
...
If the wavelength is 3 cm, what is the diameter of
the dish?
A – 20 cm
B – 20 ins
C – 52
...
5 cms
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21724
...
The pilot can use this:
A – to determine that the weather radar is functioning
B – to determine the aeroplane’s height above the surface
C – as a range marker
D –as the zero point for range measurement
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21725
...
A cloud is detected at a range
of 40 miles
...
The
top of the cloud, in relation to the aeroplane’s cruising level is approximately:
A – at the same level
B – 6000 ft above the level
C – 12000 ft above the level
D – 18000 ft above the level
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21726
...
An airborne weather radar, with a beam width of 4o in azimuth, is used in
mapping mode
...
Ground checks of an AWR are:
A – Prohibited at all times
B – Unrestricted
C – Allowed under specific health and safety regulations
D – Allowed only when the aircraft has undergone major servicing
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
22292
...
The use of the AWR on the ground is:
A – not permitted
B – permitted provided reduced power is reduced
C – permitted provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel
and equipment
D – only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

22295
...
The iso-echo feature of an airborne weather radar can be used to detect:
A – Wake turbulence
B – CAT
C – Turbulence in clouds
D – Areas of possible turbulence in clouds
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
22340
...
An aircraft flying at 25,000 ft is equipped with AWR
...
5o
...
The approximate height of the cloud is:
A – 14,300 ft
B – 25,600 ft
C – 30,300 ft
D – 35,600 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

22391
...
The ISO-ECHO circuit is incorporated in the AWR:
A – To allow ground mapping
B – To alert pilots to the presence of cloud
C – To display areas of turbulence
D – To allow simultaneous mapping and cloud detection
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
22393
...
If the
range is reduced to 50 nm:
A – The image will decrease in area and remain where it is
B – The image will decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
C – The image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the screen
D – The image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
22762
...
The AWR can be used on the ground provided:
i
...

iii
...


The aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles
The conical beam is selected
Maximum uplift is selected
The AWR must never be operated on the ground

A – iv
B – i, ii
C – i, ii, iii
D – ii, iii
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
22880
...
If the beam width is 5o and the range of the
cloud is 40 nm, the height of the cloud above the aircraft is approximately:
A – 3000 ft
B – 6000 ft
C – 4000 ft
D – 9000 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
24978
...
In an AWR with a colour CRT areas of greatest turbulence are indicated by:
A – iso-echo areas coloured black
B – large areas of flashing red
C – iso-echo areas with no colour
D – most rapid change of colour
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

25080
...
The Cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:
A – a greater range can be achieved
B – a wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage
C – a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam
D – it allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
25570
...
ATC area surveillance radars will normally operate to a maximum range of:
A – 100 nm
B – 200 nm
C – 300 nm
D – 400 nm
Ref: all
Ans: C

8158
...
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a
transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies
(transmitter; receiver):
A – 1090 MHz; 1090 MHz
B – 1090 MHz; 1030 MHz
C – 1030 MHz; 1090 MHz
D – 1030 MHz; 1030 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: C
8166
...
5 Mhz
B – 1030 +/- 0
...
3 Mhz
D – 1120 +/- 0
...
The ATC transponder system excluding Mode S contains:
A – four modes, each 1024 codes
B – two modes, each 4096 codes
C – four modes, each 4096 codes
D – two modes, each 1024 codes
Ref: all
Ans: B

8178
...
What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillnce Radar (SSR)
transponder codes?
A – 4096
B – 3600
C – 1000
D – 760
Ref: all
Ans: A
8200
...
The accuracy of SSR height as displayed to the air traffic controller is:
A - +/- 25 ft
B - +/- 50 ft
C - +/- 75 ft
D - +/- 100 ft
Ref: all
Ans: B

8209
...
Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?
A – The frequency is too high
B – SSR does not use the echo principle
C – The PRF is jittered
D – By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns
Ref: all
Ans: B
8226
...
Which SSR mode A code should be selected when entering European airspace
from an area where no code has been allocated:
A – 7000
B – 7500
C – 2000
D – 0000
Ref: all
Ans: C

8234
...
25 hPa
Ref: all
Ans: D
8240
...
These 4096 codes
can be used in:
A – mode C only
B – mode A only
C – all modes
D – mode S
Ref: all
Ans: C
8249
...
With regard to the advantages of SSR which of the following statements is
correct?
A – Little power is required to effect longish range
B – No aircraft manoeuvres are necessary for identification
C – Range, bearing and height can be calculated from reply signals
D – All of the above
Ref: all
Ans: D

11238
...
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be
selected to code:
A – 7000
B – 7700
C – 7600
D – 7500
Ref: all
Ans: C
11311
...
The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
A – phase differences
B – pulses
C – frequency differences
D – amplitude differences
Ref: all

Ans: B
11336
...
Which statement regarding Mode S transponders is most correct?
A – Mode S transponders reduce RT traffic and provide a datalink facility
B – Mode S transponders are used with TCAS III
C – Mode S transponders are used to assist GPS positioning
D – Mode S and Mode C transponders operate on different frequencies
Ref: all
Ans: A
11340
...
Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to
indicate transponder malfunction?
A – 7600
B – 0000
C – 4096
D – 9999
Ref: all
Ans: B

15536
...
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
A – 7600
B – 7500
C – 7000
D – 7700
Ref: all
Ans: D
15539
...
The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
A – unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
B – an emergency
C – transponder malfunction
D – entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been
required
Ref: all
Ans: D

15543
...
The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
A – an emergency
B – unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
C – transponder malfunction
D – radio communication failure
Ref: all
Ans: D
15545
...
What are the frequencies used for interrogation and response for SSR?
A – 1090 MHz for interrogation from the ground 1030 MHz for response from
the aircraft
B – 1030 MHz for interrogation from the ground 1090 MHz for response from
the aircraft
C – 1090 MHz for interrogation from the aircraft 1030 MHz for response from
the ground
D – 1030 MHz for interrogation from the aircraft 1090 MHz for response from
the ground
Ref: all
Ans: B

16407
...
With SSR, interrogation and response signals:
A – are separated by 63 MHz
B – must be set by the pilot but are always 60 MHz apart
C – are at standard frequencies separated by 60 MHz
D – are at variable frequencies set by the controller but are always 63 MHz
apart
Ref: all
Ans: C
16644
...
SSR, in ATC use:
A – is complementary to primary radar
B – suffers from greater attention (than primary radar) due to the higher
frequency used
C – replaces primary radar
D – uses primary radar techniques
Ref: all
Ans: A

16646
...
When a mode C interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft
is coded and transmitted
...
2 hPa
D – any of the above as directed by ATC
Ref: all
Ans: C
16648
...
Data transmission and exchange is conducted in:
A – Mode A
B – Mode C
C – Mode D
D – Mode S
Ref: all
Ans: D

16650
...
A mode S transponder will:
A – not respond to interrogations made on mode A
B – respond normally to mode A/C interrogations
C – respond to mode A interrogations but not mode C
D – not respond to mode A/C as it is on the different frequency
Ref: all
Ans: B
21590
...
Which of the following radar equipment operate by means of the pulse
technique?
1
...
Airborne Weather Radar
3
...
Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
A – 1, 2 and 4 only
B – 1, 2, 3 and 4
C – 2, 3 and 4 only
D – 2 and 4 only
Ref: all

Ans: B
21616
...
What transponder code is selected in the event of an emergency:
A – 7000
B – 7500
C – 7600
D – 7700
Ref: all
Ans: D
21621
...
If a radar pulse contains 300 cycles of RF energy at a frequency of 600 MHz,
the physical lengthof the pulse is:
A – 1550 metres
B – 150 metres
C – 1
...
15 metres
Ref: all
Ans: B

21718
...
With SSR interrogation and response signals:
A – Are separated by 63 MHz
B – Must be set by the pilot but are always 60 MHz apart
C – Are at standard frequencies separated by 60 MHz
D – Are at variable frequencies set by the controller and are always 63 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: C
21720
...
If altitude reporting is
required, the aeroplane’s transponder should be set to “ALT” and will respond
to:
A – Mode C interrogations only
B – Mode A interrogations only
C – Mode C and A interrogations
D – Mode C and Ident interrogations
Ref: all
Ans: C
21721
...
A mode A/C transponder will:
A – Not respond to interrogations made on mode S
B – Respond to mode S interrogations but cannot send data
C – Respond to mode S interrogations with limited data
D – Not respond to mode S as it is on a different frequency
Ref: all
Ans: B
21749
...
The SSR code for a total radio failure is:
A – A7500
B – A7600
C – A7500 plus mode C
D – A7600 plus mode C
Ref: all
Ans: B
22287
...
The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to:
A – QNH unless QFE is in use
B – 1013
...
SSR is not affected by weather clutter because:
A – It uses different frequencies for transmission and reception
B – The wavelength is too short to be reflected from cloud droplets
C – The equipment uses a moving target indicator
D – The frequency used penetrates clouds
Ref: all
Ans: D
22771
...
The SSR conspicuity code is:
A – 7000
B – 2000
C – 0033
D – 4321
Ref: all
Ans: A
24947
...
With regard to SSR which of the following statements is true:
A – it is a secondary radar system operating in the UHF frequency band
B – mode A is used for identification, with mode C for automatic height
information
C – it is compulsory when flying in Upper Airspace and in the whole of UK
controlled airspace under IFR to carry Mode A 4096 codes and also Mode
C
D – all of the above
Ref: all
Ans: D
24955
...
064 ft as flight
level:
A – 350
B – 35064
C – 3506
D – 351
Ref: all
Ans: D
25075
...
With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude
failure?
A – 9999
B – 0000
C – 4096
D – 7600
Ref: all
Ans: B

062-02-05 Use of Radar Observations and Application
to In-flight Navigation
16632
...
What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to
a primary radar system?
A – Aircraft position only
B – Aircraft position and SSR code
C – Aircraft position, SSR code and altitude
D – Aircraft altitude
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A

21715
...
Precision Approach Radars are required under the ICAO specifications to
indicate an aircraft within the following parameters:
A – Azimuth: 10o, Vertical: 4o, Range: 7 nm
B – Azimuth: 20o, Vertical: 7o, Range: 9 nm
C – Azimuth: 30o, Vertical: 10o, Range: 10 nm
D – Azimuth: 40o, Vertical: 15o, Range: 15 nm
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
22364
...
The radar shows
an island on a bearing of 20R
...
The true bearing and distane to plot from the island to establish the
aircraft position is:
A – 230o/135 nm
B – 080o/135 nm
C – 260o/135 nm
D – 245o/135 nm
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C

062-05

AREA NAVIGATION SYSTEMS
062-05-01 General philosophy

7981
...
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in green on an electronic
Flight Instrument System (EFIS) indicate:
A – engaged modes
B – cautions, abnormal sources
C – the earth
D – the ILS deviation point
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8077
...
The JAR OPS colour for selected heading is:
A – red
B – magenta
C – green
D – cyan
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
8085
...
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems
(EFIS) increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order:
A – green, amber/yellow, red, magenta
B – green, red, magenta, black
C – black, amber/yellow, magenta, red
D – amber/yellow, magenta, black
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8089
...
The colour recommended in JAR OPS for armed AFCS modes is:
A – green
B – yellow
C – white
D – magenta
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
8105
...
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) indicate:
A – cautions, abnormal sources
B – flight envelope and system limits
C – warnings
D – engaged modes
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

8116
...
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems
(EFIS), armed modes are coloured:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – amber/yellow
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8122
...
The colour recommended in JAR OPS 1 for the active route is:
A – cyan
B – magenta
C – green
D – amber
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
8136
...
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems
(EFIS), selected data and values are coloured:
A – green
B – white
C – magenta
D – yellow
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8142
...
5 mm corresponds to a frequency of:
A – 2833
...
4 MHz
D – 28333 MHz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

8152
...
Attenuation of a radio wave is the:
A – increase of its power by the combination of multi-path signals
B – change of its frequency by use of sidebands
C – change of its amplitude by use of sidebands
D – reduction of its power by absorption, scattering or spreading
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
11169
...
The JAR-25 recommended colour for a downpath waypoint is:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – cyan
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

11378
...
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems
(EFIS), the active route/flight plan is coloured:
A – cyan
B – magenta
C – green
D – yellow
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
16416
...
To increase the maximum theoretical range of a pulse radar system:
A – reduce the PRF and increase the power
B – increase the PRF and reduce the power
C – reduce the PRF and increase the PRF
D – maintain the PRF and increase the power
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

21569
...
0nm for 95% of the flight time
B – ±1
...
0nm for 95% of the flight time
D – ±8
...
Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic
RNAV system?
A – It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme
B – It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking
and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
C – It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-NavMode and continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary
stations goes off the air
D – It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21630
...
What is the accepted accuracy of PRNAV:
A – 0
...
5 nm
D – 2 nm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

22799
...
25 nm
B – 0
...
0 nm
D – 2
...
In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the
most accurate position?
A – GPS/rho
B – Rho/theta
C – Rho/rho
D – GPS/theta
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

062-05-02 Typical Flight deck Equipment and
Operation
2819
...
The FMC position is:
A – the average of the IRS positions
B – the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
C – computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions
D – computer generated from the radio navigation positions
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: C
8069
...
In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated
by the Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct?
A – When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from
the actual take-off time
B – When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS
C – When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
D – When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising
Mach number is equal to the FMC calculated Mach number
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
8090
...
The databases on a FMC:
A – can be read or written on to at any time
B – can be modified by the pilot
C – are read only
D – are updated once every 28 weeks
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: C
8110
...
Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System
generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
A – Flight Control Computer
B – Flight Management Computer
C – Symbol Generator
D – Navigation database
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
8127
...
The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or
Navigation Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
A – indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown
B – corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
C – indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
D – represents the track of the aircraft over the ground
...
When is the IRS position updated:
A – at VOR beacons on route by the pilots
B – continuously by the FMC
C – at significant waypoints only
D – on the ground only
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
8154
...
1 IRS
D – the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS,
GPS, etc)
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
8156
...
The FMS database can be:
A – altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates
B – read and altered by the pilots
C – only read by the pilots
D – altered by the pilots every 28 days
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

15534
...
With regard to FMS, what are the possible modes of operation for dual FMC
installations?
A – Dual
B – Dual and single
C – Dual, independent, and single
D – None of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
16418
...
Why is gate number requested by the FMC?
A – So that pilots can choose as an option this gate for the return flight
B – So that the FMS can convert the gate position into a WGS 84 co-ordinate
for the inertial navigation system
C – To inform the company of departure gate by date link
D – None of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

16420
...
The FMS is composed of:
A – the command display unit and the flight management computer
B – the automatic flight control system and the power management controls
system
C – the flight management computer only
D – the EFIS and EICAM displays
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21502
...
(Refer to figure 062-07)
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
display in PLAN mode?
A – Figure 2
B – Figure 3
C – Figure 4
D – Figure 1
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21506
...
(Refer to figure 062-08)
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
display in PLAN mode?
A – Figure 6
B – Figure 3
C – Figure 4
D – Figure 2
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

21508
...
(Refer to figure 062-08)
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
A – Figure 1
B – Figure 5
C – Figure 6
D – Figure 4
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21510
...
In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to
navigation in the FMC is provided by:
A – Navigation radios GPS Inertial Reference Systems
B – Inertial Reference Systems Aircraft Weather Radar Navigation radios
C – GPS Aircraft Weather Radar Navigation radios
D – Inertial Reference Systems Navigation radios Terrain Collision Alerting
System
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21557
...
In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:
A – navigation database
B – air data computer
C – performance database
D – auto flight computers
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21559
...
In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS), data relating to STARs and SIDs is stored in the:
A – navigation database
B – air data computer
C – performance database
D – auto flight computers
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21561
...
In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System
(FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the:
A – performance database
B – air data computer
C – navigation database
D – auto flight computers
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21574
...
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an electronic
flight Instrument System (EFIS) indicate:
A – cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes
B – flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
C – warnings; cautions and abnormal sources
D – warnings; flight envelope and system limits
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21602
...
The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate:
A – when the forecast W/V equals the actual W/V and the FMS calculated
Mach No
...

B – If the ground speed and position are accurate
C – If the forecast W/V at take-off is entered
D – If the ground speed is correct and the take-off time has been entered
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
22311
...
The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation
will include:
A – ETD, aircraft position, and planned route
B – Planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway
C – Navigation database, aircraft position and departure aerodrome
D – Departure runway, planned route and ETD
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
22324
...
The colour recommended in JAR OPS 1 for engaged modes is:
A – green
B – magenta
C – cyan
D – white
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
22326
...
In accordance with JAR 25, which features of an EFIS display are coloured
CYAN:
A – Engaged moes
B – The sky
C – The flight director bars
D – System limits and flight envelope
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
22759
...
Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information:
A – FULL VOR/ILS/NAV and MAP
B – PLAN, CTR MAP and EXP VOR/ILS/NAV
C – CTR MAP and PLAN
D – PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS/NAV
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
24987
...
For position fixing the B737-800 FMC uses:
A – DME/DME
B – VOR/DME
C – DME/DME or VOR/DME
D – Any combination of VOR, DME and ADF
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
25091
...
Which of the following is independent of external inputs?
A – INS
B – Direct reading magnetic compass
C – VOR/DME
D – ADF
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
25093
...
The EHSI is showing 5 deg fly right with a TO indication
...
The radial is:
A – 275
B – 265
C – 085
D – 095
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
8073
...
the navigation database in the FMC:
A – is read only for the pilots
B – can be modified by the pilots to meet route requirements
C – can be amended by the pilots to update navigational data
D – is inaccessible to the flight crew
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

8080
...
The variation at the
beacon is 13W and the variation at the aircraft is 5W
...
(Refer to figure 062-08)
The EHSI in display 1 (figure 1) is in ___ mode
A – FULL NAV
B – FULL VOR
C – EXP VOR
D – ILS
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
8102
...
(Refer to figure 062-09)
The aircraft is:
A – left of the localiser and above the glide path
B – right of the localiser and below the glide path
C – left of the localiser and below the glide path
D – right of the localiser and above the glide path
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
8144
...
You are maintaining a track of 315oM on a heading of 299oM
...
The true heading is ___ the true track is ___ and the
drift is ___
A – 287o, 303o, 16o port
B – 326o, 311o, 16o starboard
C – 311o, 327o, 16o starboard
D – 311o, 327o, 16o port
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

21425
...
(Refer to figure 062-08)
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
A – Figure 4
B – Figure 5
C – Figure 6
D – Figure 1
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21428
...
(Refer to figure 062-12)
What is the manually selected heading?
A – 272o (M)
B – 280o (M)
C – 300o (M)
D – 260o (M)
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21430
...
(Refer to figure 062-09)
What is the instantaneous aircraft track?
A – 280o (M)
B – 272o (M)
C – 300o (M)
D – 260o (M)
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

21435
...
(Refer to figure 062-11)
The ‘O’ followed by the letters ‘KABC’ indicates:
A – the destination airport
B – an off-route airport
C – a designated alternate airport
D – an off-route VOR/DME
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21437
...
(Refer to figure 062-08)
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
A – Figure 4
B – Figure 5
C – Figure 6
D – Figure 1
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21439
...
(Refer to figure 062-07)
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
A – Figure 1
B – Figure 2
C – Figure 3
D – Figure 4
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

21443
...
(Refer to figure 062-09)
What drift is being experienced?
A – 20o Right
B – 20o Left
C – 12o Right
D – 8o Left
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21513
...
In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
on a B737-400 will radar returns not be shown?
A – EXP VOR/ILS PLAN and MAP
B – FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
C – FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
D – FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21664
...
A Moving Target Indicator:
A – Rejects all moving targets
B – Is only effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit
C – Rejects all stationary targets
D – Is not effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21735
...
(Refer to figure 062-04)
For the diagram below the aircraft is on an airway 80 nm from the beacon
...
The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in the ___ mode:
A – WEA
B – CONT
C – MAP
D – MAN
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
22309
...
5 nm
C – 5o
D – 0
...
When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track
represents:
A – 2o
B – 5o
C – 5 nm
D – 2 nm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

22314
...
The range arcs in the expanded and map modes are recommended by JAR
OPS to be coloured:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – cyan
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
22317
...
The inputs to the EHSI display during automatic flight include:
A – auto-throttle, IRS and FMC
B – FCC, FMC and ADC
C – IRS, FMC and radio navigation facilities
D – IRS, ADC and FCC
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

22320
...
The JAR OPS recommended colour for an off route waypoint is:
A – White
B – Magenta
C – Green
D – Cyan
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
22322
...
The JAR OPS recommended colour for on active route in the PLAN mode is:
A – white
B – magenta
C – green
D – cyan
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

22368
...
5 dots fly right
...
The radial that the
aircraft is on and the correct way to turn after intercepting the required track to
fly to the facility is:
A – 092 right
B – 100 left
C – 272 right
D – 280 left
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
24959
...
What radial is the a/c on?
A – 082
B – 094
C – 262
D – 274
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
25090
...
On the Boeing 737-400 EFIS EHSI, on which modes is a Weather Radar
Display available:
A – MAP, PLAN, FULL VOR/ILS
B – MAP, PLAN, EXP VOR/ILS
C – MAP, EXP VOR/ILS, EXP NAV
D – MAP, FULL VOR/ILS, FULL NAV
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

25147
...
Your ground speed is 156 knots and the ROD
will be 800 fpm
...
1 nm
B – 15
...
7 nm
D – 30
...
Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate
Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
A – VOR/DME
B – DME/DME
C – NDB/VOR
D – VOR/VOR
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

062-05-05 VOR/DME Area Navigation (RNAV)
2824
...
The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:
A – VOR/DME
B – twin VOR
C – twin DME
D – any of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
8016
...
What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV
system in the en-route mode?
A – 1 NM
B – 5 NM
C – 2 NM
D – 10 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
8081
...
5 nm
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

8083
...
In order that a waypoint designated by a VOR can be used by a RNAV system:
A – the VOR must be identified by the pilot
B – the VOR must be within range when the waypoint is input
C – the VOR need not be in range when input or used
D – the VOR need not be in range when input but must be when used
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
8107
...
According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is:
A – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path
within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids only
B – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within
the specified limits of self-contained on-board systems
C – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within
the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the
specified lmits of self-contained on-board systems but not a combination
of the two
D – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path
within the coverage of appropriate ground based navigation aids or within
the specified limits of self-contained on-board systems or a combination
of the two
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
8131
...
What are the primary navigation inputs used by RNAV system?
A – INS, Mapping Radar, FMC database
B – INS, Nav Aids, TAS and Drift
C – Nav Aids, INS, FMC database
D – Nav Aids, Mapping Radar, FMC database
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

8148
...
The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is:
A – 0
...
5 nm standard deviation or better
C – 1 nm standard deviation or better
D – 1
...
What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot RNAV system in
the approach mode?
A – 10 NM
B – 0
...
5 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
15533
...
RNAV routes are:
A – usually specified by waypoints co-incident with point source aids such as
VOR, DME or NDB facilities
B – specified by waypoints defined as a position in latitude and longitude
based on the WGS 84 system
C – selected according to TCAS inputs
D – none of the above are correct
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
16410
...
What is an example of a self contained RNAV system?
A – GPS
B – DME/DME
C – VOR/DME
D – INS
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
16413
...
5 dots = 5o off track)
B – angular displacement from the course line (eg
...
5 dots = 5 nm off track)
D – distance of track (eg
...
With regard to RNAV, what are phantom or ghost stations?
A – Waypoints defined by radials and ranges from suitable VOR/DME
facilities
B – Spurious waypoints produced by the system when the aircraft exceeds the
maximum theoretical range from the VOR facility
C – Waypoints which have been lost from the command display unit memory
D – Temporary waypoints which are produced when the aircraft is over the
cone of confusion of a VOR facility
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
16415
...
(Refer to figure 062-13)
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME bsed
Area Navigation Equipment when using a ‘Phantom Station’ at position ‘X’?
A – 11 NM
B – 14 NM
C – 8 NM
D – 9 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

21500
...
(Refer to figure 062-13)
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based
Area Navigation Equipment when using a ‘Phantom Station’ at position ‘X’?
A – 8 NM
B – 11 NM
C – 14 NM
D – 9 NM
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21536
...
In an FMS, how does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME
information?
A – the pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the
VOR/DME Area navigation control panel
B – The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and
the system itself tunes the DME stations providing the best angular
position lines
C – The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned
on the aircraft’s normal VHF NAV selector
D – The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner
and it always tunes the DME stations closest to the aircraft position
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21553
...
On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead
reckoning mode?
A – Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data
Computer; heading from the aircraft compass
B – TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass
C – Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs
D – TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the
last computed W/V
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

21581
...
Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area
Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode?
A – The system is receiving information from only one VOR
B – The system is receiving information from one VOR and one DME
C – The system is receiving information from one VOR and two DMEs
D – The system is receiving information from the two DMEs
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21608
...
When operating in an RNAV mode using multiple DME, inaccuracy can be
due to:
A – Sky wave interference
B – Mutual interference between the DMEs
C – Inability to confirm the aircraft is within the DOC of the DMEs because of
identification problems
D – The DMEs locking onto each other’s returns
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
22313
...
The range read out in the aircraft will
be:
A – 12 nm
B – 25 nm plan range
C – 35 nm
D – 25 nm slant range
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

062-06

SELF-CONTAINED AND EXTERNAL-REFERENCED
NAVIGATION SYSTEMS
062-06-01 Doppler

8015
...
Due to Doppler effect an apparent decrase in the transmitted frequency, which
is proportional to the transmitters velocity, will occur when:
A – the transmitter and receiver move towards each other
B – the transmitter moves away from the receiver
C – the transmitter moves toward the receiver
D – both transmitter and receiver move away from each other
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: B
8058
...
A LOP is inaccurate and may be ambiguous:
A – in the vicinity of the base line bisector
B – in the vicinity of the base line extensions
C – at extreme ground wave range
D – at night due to sky wave effect
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: B
16213
...
Updating Doppler is undertaken when:
A – the co-ordinates are reset to revise the position base on alternative
information
B – a new database is loaded
C – the equipment is re-initialised with the data and time, and the atomic clock
is actuated
D – all of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: A
16216
...
Sea bias error:
A – is due to the movement of the seea and can be partially corrected by the
land/sea switch
B – is due to the movement of the sea and is not affected by the land/sea
switch
C – is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is not affected by the
land/sea switch
D – is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is partially corrected by
the land/sea switch
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: D
16218
...
A radio facility transmits on a wavelength of 2,22 cm
...
The 4-beam moving Janus array aligns with the aircraft centre line by:
A – rotating the array towards the beams with the smallest Doppler shift
B – rotating the array until matched pairs of beams receive the same difference
in Doppler shift
C – measuring the drift and rotating the array by the same amount
D – all of the above
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: B

16221
...
Doppler may unlock over:
A – shallow fast running water
B – a calm sea
C – a desert surface
D – ice
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: B
16422
...
8 Hz and 13
...
8 KHz and 13
...
8 MHz and 13
...
8 GHz and 13
...
The largest error and source of error on a Doppler derived position is:
A – Cross track due to compass error
B – Along track due to TAS computation error
C – Cross track due to errors in drift measurement
D – Cross track due to error in drift bias
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: C

21730
...
When a transmitter is moving towards a receiver, the correct description of
Doppler Effect is:
A – There is a decrease in apparent wavelength which is dependent on the
transmitter velocity
B – There is a decrease in apparent wavelength which is independent of the
transmitter velocity
C – There is a increase in apparent wavelength which is dependent on the
transmitter velocity
D – There is an increase in apparent wavelength which is independent of the
transmitter velocity
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl
Ans: A
22773
...
In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string
of pulses on a frequency close to 100 KHz?
A – Loran C
B – GPS
C – Decca
D – Doppler
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
8023
...
Loran C coverage is:
A – global
B – confined to certain limited areas of the world
C – unrestricted between latitudes 80oN and 70oS
D – unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but limited over the
major continental land masses
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

8041
...
The principle of operation of LORAN C is:
A – differential range by phase comparison
B – differential range by pulse technique
C – range by pulse technique
D – range by phase comparison
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
8124
...
LORAN C is available:
A – globally
B – in oceanic areas
C – in continental areas
D – in designated areas
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

11348
...
Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation
system?
A – 10
...
6 KHz
B – 1750 – 1950 KHz
C – 90 – 110 KHz
D – 978 – 1213 MHz
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
11383
...
X and Y are 100 nm apart
...
The accuracy of Loran is given as:
A – ±½ km on 95% of occasions between 900 km and 1000 km over the sea
B – ±1 nm on 95% of occasions between 900 nm and 1000 nm over the sea
C – ±1 km on 95% of occasions between 900 km and 1000 km over the sea
D – ±½ nm on 95% of occasions between 900 nm and 1000 nm over the sea
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

16200
...
Loran C operates at a frequency of:
A – 100 MHz
B – 100 KHz
C – 1000 KHz
D – 1000 MHz
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B
16202
...
The most accurate position lines, for a Loran C pair, are found:
A – behind the master station
B – behind the Slave station
C – on any base line extension
D – along the base line bisector
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

16204
...
Loran is available for use:
A – in North and south America
B – worldwide, pole to pole
C – North America, North Atlantic, parts of Europe and the Mediterranean
D – every where except the old eastern bloc
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C
16206
...
The time difference is measured in a Loran receiver by:
A – crystal oscillation
B – indexing
C – phase comparison
D – phase measurement
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: B

16208
...
A hyperbola cuts the base line 60 Km from the Master end and 150 Km from
the Slave end
...
Propagation error is due to:
A – coastal refraction
B – sky wave effect
C – super refraction
D – differences in surface conductivity
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D
16423
...
LORAN C operates using ___ which one ___ as master and the others
arranged around it and known as ___ secondary (slave) ___
A – networks or chains of stations; stations; W, X, Y and Z stations
B – satellites; satellite; W, X, Y and Z; satellites
C – networks or chains of stations; station; red, green and purple; stations
D – Satellites; Satellites; X, Y and Z; satellites
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: A
21731
...
The master and slave stations of a hyperbolic navigation system are between
50 to 100 nm apart
...
A hyperbolic position line joins all points of:
A – equal range between two ground stations
B – zero phase difference between two signals
C – equal difference in range between two stations
D – equal time taken by two simultaneous transmissions
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: C

062-06-04 Decca navigation system
7983
...
The principle of operation of DECCA is:
A – identification of equal time differences from signals with coded group
repetition intervals (GRI)
B – comparison of phase shift
C – analysis of time referenced scanning beam
D – analysis of time of arrival and time difference by phase comparison
Ref: AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl
Ans: D

062-06-05 Global Navigation Satellite Systems GNSS:
GPS/GLONASS
2827
...
What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?
A–5
B–4
C–3
D–2
Ref: all
Ans: C
7972
...
Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with
the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
A – The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver
position in relation to a D-GPS ground station
B – The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more
accurate the position fix
C – A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more
accurate position fix
D – Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for Non Precision
Approaches
Ref: all
Ans: B

7975
...
Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting
flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system?
A – GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric
altitude
B – The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude
C – GPS altitude
D – Barometric altitude
Ref: all
Ans: D
7977
...
This enables a suitable receiver on the
aircraft to recognise and correct for multipath errors
Ref: all
Ans: C

7978
...
The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A – above mean sea level
B – above ground level
C – above the WGS84 ellipsoid
D – pressure altitude
Ref: all
Ans: C
7980
...
The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
A - under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by DGPS stations
B – inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing
and fuselage
C – in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines
D – on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity
Ref: all
Ans: D

7987
...
It is caused by the signal from one satellite
being received from different directions (multipath effect)
Ref: all
Ans: C
7989
...
In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:
A – differentiate between satellites
B – pass satgellite ephemeris information
C – pass satellite time and ephemeris information
D – pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information
Ref: all
Ans: A

7991
...
What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?
A – To control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users
B – To monitor the satellites in orbit
C – To maintain the satellites in orbit
D – Degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorised users
Ref: all
Ans: B
7997
...
The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
A – inclined 55o to the equatorial plane
B – inclined 55o to the earth axis
C – inclined 90o to the equatorial plane
D – parallel to the equatorial plane
Ref: all
Ans: A

8000
...
Commercial aviation uses:
A - only the 1
...
575 MHz carrier wave and one code
C – only the 1
...
The number of satellites required for a fully operational NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A – 12
B – 21
C – 24
D – 30
Ref: all
Ans: C
8004
...
The GPS Navstar system transmits in the L1 and L2 frequency bands
...
Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS
transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
A – C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies
B – The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
C – The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
D – The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
Ref: all
Ans: B
8007
...
The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:
A – space, control, user
B – space, control, ground
C – space, control, air
D – space, ground, air
Ref: all
Ans: A
8010
...
The action you
should take is:
A – continue the flight in VMC
B – continue using the conventional systems
C – continue using the GPS
D – switch off the faulty system after determining which one is in error
Ref: all
Ans: B

8014
...
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
A – is the biggest part of the total error, it cannot be corrected
B – is corrected by using signals from four satellites
C – can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the
satellite clocks
D – is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks
installed in the satellites
Ref: all
Ans: B
8018
...
In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation
message?
A – EHF
B – VHF
C – UHF
D – SHF
Ref: all
Ans: C
8021
...
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce
an accurate independent 3-D position fix?
A–3
B–5
C – 24
D–4
Ref: all
Ans: D
8024
...
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time
taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
A – 25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
B – 12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
C – 12
...
The skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver:
A – is done prior to each fix
B – is done when the receiver position is in error
C – involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before
determining which satellites are in view
D – is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the
accuracy of the satellite data
Ref: all
Ans: B
8027
...
Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the
most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
A – GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
B – NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
C – NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
D – NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
Ref: all
Ans: D

8030
...
One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
A - transmit signals which can be used by sitable receivers to determine time,
position and velocity
B – transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes
autonomously
C – compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit
the computed position back to the user segment
D – monitor the satellites orbits and status
Ref: all
Ans: A
8032
...
Wing) on
the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
A – It may prevent the reception of signals
B – It causes multipath propagation
C – The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using
an algorithm and iformation from unaffected signals
D – It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected
Ref: all
Ans: A

8034
...
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a nonprecision approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
system?
A – If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS,
otherwise barometric altitude
B – Barometric altitude
C – Radar altitude
D – GPS altitude
Ref: all
Ans: B
8040
...
Which one of the following is an advantage of a multi-sensor system using
inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial
navigational system (INS)?
A – The average position calculated from data provided by both systems
increases overall accuracy
B – The activation of Selective Availability can be recognised by the INS
C – The GNSS can be used toupdate a drifting INS
D – The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy
Ref: all
Ans: C
8045
...
The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is
A – an ellipsoid
B – a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
C – a sphere
D – a geoid
Ref: all
Ans: A
8047
...
The time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for

the: NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A – 12
...
NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:
A – regular auto-synchronisation with the satellite clocks
B – adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error
C – synchronisation with the satellite clocks on initialisation
D – having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver
Ref: all
Ans: B
8051
...
Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
A – L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)
B – L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
C – L1-precise (P)
D – L2-selected availability (S/A)
Ref: all
Ans: A
8052
...
Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR
conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the
position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of
conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?
A – it must be continued under VFR conditions
B – It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all
systems must be checked
C – It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
D – The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error
or switch off the faulty system
Ref: all
Ans: C
8055
...

ii
...

iv
...


offset of the satellite clock from GMT
edphemeris data
health data
ionospheric delays
solar activity

A – i, ii, iii, iv, v
B – i, ii, iii
C – i, ii, iv
D – ii, iii, iv
Ref: all
Ans: C
8059
...
How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise
which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
A – Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
B – The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
C – The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and
compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellites
D – Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an
individual Pseudo Random Noise code
Ref: all
Ans: D
8061
...
Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most
accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
A – 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120o from each other and an elevation of
45o above the horizon
B – 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120o
from each other together with a fourth directly overhead
C – 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90o from each other and a low elevation
above the horizon
D – 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90o from each other and an elevation of
45o above the horizon
Ref: all
Ans: B

8063
...
The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:
A – provides X, Y and Y co-ordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the
satellite data
B – provides X
...
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
A – Latitude, longitude and altitude
B – Latitude and longitude
C – Latitude, longitude and time
D – Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
Ref: all
Ans: D
8066
...
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain
a three dimensional fix?
A–4
B–3
C–5
D–6
Ref: all
Ans: A
11350
...
In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems
(GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
A – EHF
B – SHF
C – UHF
D – VHF
Ref: all
Ans: C
11355
...
The GPS satellite navigation system operates by:
A – measuring the time for the signal to travel to the receiver and back
B – measuring the time for the signal to reach the receiver
C – phase comparison
D – measuring the phase of the incoming signal
Ref: all
Ans: B
11360
...
Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)
code, forms part of the so called Navigation Message transmitted by
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
A – Time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix (Selective
Availability SA)
B – Almanac data; satellite status information
C – Data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data
D – Time; position of the satellites
Ref: all
Ans: B
11363
...
The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a Pseudo-Range is because
the:
A – measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code
B – calculated range includes receiver clock error
C – movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not
taken into account
D – calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit
Ref: all
Ans: B
11368
...
6 MHz only
B – 1575
...
6 MHz and 1575
...
6 MHz or 1575
...
What is RAIM and what is its function?
A – Integrity monitoring of satellites by the receiver to ensure accurate
navigation
B – GPS integrity monitoring of master and slave stations to ensure correct
alignment
C – Resolution and intensity monitoring for increased accuracy
D – Integrity monitoring of satellites by the master station to increase accuracy
Ref: all
Ans: A

11370
...
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is
obtained by:
A – timing the period that is taken for a satellites transmission to reach the
aircraft’s receiver
B – the aircrafts receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received
from a satellite in a known position
C – timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft’s
transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known
position
D – the aircraft’s receiver measuring the time difference between signals
received from a minimum number of satellites
Ref: all
Ans: A
11373
...

A–3
B–4
C–5
D–2
Ref: all
Ans: B

11374
...
Unauthorised civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access:
A – the P and Y codes
B – the P code
C – the C/A and P codes
D – the C/A code
Ref: all
Ans: D
11376
...
The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A – only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle
above the horizon
B – minimised by computing the average of all signals
C – minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing
signals transmitted by the satellites
D – negligible
Ref: all
Ans: C

11381
...
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term
inclination denotes the angle between the:
A – orbital plane and the equatorial plane
B – horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a
satellite
C – orbital plane and the earth’s axis
D – horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a
satellite
Ref: all
Ans: A
11386
...
What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most
suitable for use on board an aircraft?
A – Sequential
B – Multichannel
C – Multiplex
D – Any hand held type
Ref: all
Ans: B
15495
...

The number of satellites is:
A–4
B–5
C–6
D–7
Ref: all
Ans: C
15497
...
The number of satellites is:
A–3
B–4
C–5
D–6
Ref: all
Ans: B

15503
...
Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can
be processed by unauthorised civil aviation receivers?
A – C/A and P
B – P and Y
C – C/A
D–P
Ref: all
Ans: C
15529
...
In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all,
the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
A – It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites
B – It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellitie signals
C – It increases because only signals from satellites in the roost suitable
geometric constellation are selected by the receiver
D – It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the
computing process in the receiver is quicker
Ref: all
Ans: B

15531
...
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, Search the Sky
is a:
A – continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for
satellites rising above the horizon
B – procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored
satellite data available
C – continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites
D – procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming
operational
Ref: all
Ans: B
16191
...
Clock bias is the process of correcting the pseudo range for:
A – receiver clock errors
B – satellite clock errors
C – receiver and satellite clock errors
D – UTC errors
Ref: all
Ans: A
16193
...
It is transmitted
only on L1
B – The P code is the only code available for civilian use
...
It is transmitted on
both L1 and L2
D – The P code is for authorised (military) use only
...
Airborne GNSS receivers are protected from the effects of selective
availability (SA) by:
A – warning transmitted on the satellite Nav message
B – use of RAIM techniques
C – warning transmitted from the ground segment
D – NOTAMS
Ref: all
Ans: B
16195
...
In respect of the use of GNSS, Dilution of Precision (DOP) is a loss of
accuracy due to:
A – relative position of the visible satellites
B – ionospheric effects
C – multi-path signals from some satellites
D – use of satellites at low altitudes
Ref: all
Ans: A
16426
...
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) a fix is obtained by:
A – the aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from
a number of satellites in known positions
B – measuring the time taken for an aircraft’s transmissions to travel to a
number of satellites, in known positions and return to the aircraft’s
receiver
C – measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number
of satellites received in a specific sequential order
D – measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites
transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver
Ref: all
Ans: D
21544
...
How many satellites from the nominal NAVSTAR/GPS constellation?
A – 36
B – 12
C–6
D – 24
Ref: all
Ans: D
21552
...
In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites placed?
A – Geo-stationary
B – Elliptical
C – Circular
D – Pole to pole
Ref: all
Ans: B
21573
...
What is the minimum number of satellites required for the NAVSTAR/GPS to
carry out two dimensional operation?
A–3
B–4
C–5
D–2
Ref: all
Ans: A
21592
...
Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained
with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation
system of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
A – A LAAS corrects the position of the aircraft by relaying the information
via a geo-stationary satellite
B – The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the aircraft
position in relation to the LAAS ground reference station
C – A LAAS cannot correct for satellite timing and orbital position error
D – The closer the receiver is to a LAAS ground reference station, the more
accurate is the aircraft position fix
Ref: all
Ans: D
21633
...
Where on the Earth would you have the most satellites ‘visible’:
A – At the Equator
B – At the Poles
C – It will be the same anywhere on the Earth
D – Depends on the time of day
Ref: all
Ans: A
21635
...
What happens with RAIM:
A – The ground stations monitor the satellites
B – The satellites monitor the ground stations
C – The receiver monitors the satellites
D – The satellites moinitor the receiver
Ref: all
Ans: C
21638
...
A transmission of RF energy at a wavelength of 18 metres is in which
frequency band?
A – MF
B – LF
C – HF
D – VHF
Ref: all
Ans: C
21732
...
They result from:
A – Master and slave signals travelling over different surfaces to reach the
receiver
B – Sky wave effect
C – slave signal having a higher frequency than the master
D – Atmospheric refraction
Ref: all
Ans: A
21733
...
The GNSS receiver determines the aeroplane velocity by:
A – Integrating measured change of position with time
B – Determining satellite/aeroplane relative velocities from Doppler shift
measurements
C – Determining the Doppler shift of the receiver frequency
D – Determining the rate of change of ‘pseudo ranges’
Ref: all
Ans: B

21736
...
Which of the following affects the User Equivalent Range Error (UERE)?
A – Errors in the receiver processor’s ionospheric model
B – Errors in the receiver clock
C – Failure of the altitude input
D – Poor geometry of satellites
Ref: all
Ans: B
21738
...
When setting up the GNSS receiver before use, the present position should be
entered because:
A – the receiver cannot acquire the satellites without knowing where it is
B – this will reduce the time to first fix
C – this will allow the map display to function
D – this will help any dependant equipment such as IRS to stabilise
Ref: all
Ans: B

21740
...
The Glonass satellite system differs from the Navstar GPS system in that:
A – the satellites are at a lower orbital height
B – it is intended to use less satellites
C – the orbital paths are at a smaller angle to the plane of the equator
D – the satellites are geostationary
Ref: all
Ans: A
21742
...
It is changed every 28 days
D – An ‘ionospheric delay’ model is determined from the satellite Nav
message
Ref: all
Ans: D
21743
...
In a Pseudolite DGPS a data link is provided:
A – To communicate satellite position information to the reference station
B – To communicate navigation signals from the satellite to the aeroplane’s
GNSS receiver
C – To communicate DGPS corrections and integrity information to the
aeroplane’s GNSS receiver
D – To communicate corrections of clock and position from the reference
station to the satellite
Ref: all
Ans: C
21745
...
In order for a GPS receiver to conduct RAIM it must use a minimum of:
A – Three satellites plus a barometric input
B – Four satellites
C – Five satellites
D – Five satellites plus a barometric input
Ref: all
Ans: C
21747
...
5 minutes
B – At a rate of 1 subframe every 12
...
5 seconds
D – As dictated by the master control station
Ref: all
Ans: A

21750
...
Which band is used for the
P code and which for the C/A code:
A – L1 is modulated with the P code only
B – L1 is modulated with the P and C/A code
C – L2 is modulated with the C/A code only
D – L2 is modulated with the P and C/A code
Ref: all
Ans: B
21751
...
Which of the following will cause the greatest GPS error:
A – Ephemeris error
B – Satellite clock error
C – Ionospheric error
D – Latitude error
Ref: all
Ans: C
21763
...
The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:
A – barometric altitude
B – radio altimeter
C – GPS altitude
D – GPS or barometric altitude
Ref: all
Ans: A
22298
...
The positioning of a GNSS serial on an aircraft is:
A – in the fin
B – on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
C – on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
D – under the fuselage
Ref: all
Ans: C
22300
...
The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS
SVs includes:
A – satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information
B – satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error
C – position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error
D – ionospheric propagation information, X, Y and Z co-ordinates and
corrections, satellite clock time and error
Ref: all
Ans: A
22302
...
The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:
A – determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver
B – determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data
C – transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
D – transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
Ref: all
Ans: B
22304
...
If the receiver
deselects one satellite then the flight should be continued:
A – using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring the receiver output
B – using alternative navigation systems
C – using alternative radio navigation systems only
D – using inertial reference systems only
Ref: all
Ans: B

22305
...
Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:
A – barometric
B – GNSS
C – radio
D – radio of GNSS
Ref: all
Ans: A
22307
...
RAIM is achieved:
A – by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which
alt relayed to receivers via geo-stationary satellites
B – by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the
corrections to receivers using pseudolites
C – within the receiver
D – any of the above
Ref: all
Ans: C

22394
...
The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is:
A – VHF
B – UHF
C – EHF
D – SHF
Ref: all
Ans: B
22396
...
The orbits of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellites are inclined at:
A – 55o to the earth’s axis
B – 55o to the plane of the equator
C – 65o to the earth’s axis
D – 65o to the plane of the equator
Ref: all
Ans: B

22398
...
Which GNSS is authorised for use on European Airways:
A – GLONASS
B – NAVSTAR/GPS
C – Galileo
D – COSPAS/SARSAT
Ref: all
Ans: B
22761
...
The inclination of a satellite is:
A – The angle between the SV orbit and the equator
B – The angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane
C – 90o minus the angle between the SV orbit and the Equator
D – 90o minus the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane
Ref: all
Ans: A

22765
...
Which of the following statements concerning differential GPS is true:
A – Local area DGPS gives the same improvement in accuracy regardless of
distance from the station
B – DGPS removes SV ephemeris and clock errors and propagation errors
C – DGPS can improve the accuracy of position information
D – Wide area DGPS accuracy improves the closer the aircraft is to the ground
station
Ref: all
Ans: C
22794
...
The geodetic reference system used to define latitude and longitude by GPS
equipment is:
A – UKGRS 90
B – GDR 95
C – OSGB 36
D – WGS 84
Ref: all
Ans: D
22876
...
The effect of the ionosphere on NAVSTAR/GPS accuracy is:
A – only significant for satellites close to the horizon
B – minimised by averaging the signals
C – minimised by the receivers using a model of the ionosphere to correct the
signals
D – negligible
Ref: all
Ans: C
25084
...
This is achieved by:
A – introducing an offset in the satellite’s clocks
B – random dithering of the broadcast satellites clock time
C – random dithering of the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates
D – introducing an offset in the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates
Ref: all
Ans: B

25085
...
How many satellites are neededfor a 2D fix?
A–4
B–2
C–3
D–5
Ref: all
Ans: C
25087
...

A – SHF
B – UHF
C – VHF
D – EHF
Ref: all
Ans: B
25088

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