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062 – RADIO NAVIGATION
062-01

RADIO AIDS

062-01-01 Ground Direction Finder D/F (including
classification of bearings)
11122
...
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain
bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:
A – 107 NM
B – 158 NM
C – 134 NM
D – 114 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
11148
...
What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a
service to an aircraft at FL080?
A – 134 nm
B – 107 nm
C – 91 nm
D – 114 nm
Ref: all
Ans: A
11214
...
What is the appropriate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT
above MSL?
A – 180 NM
B – 220 NM
C – 120 NM
D – 150 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
11248
...
If, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH,
is means:
A – the bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the
QGH level
B – the VDF service will be handled by a different VDF unit, operating on the
same frequency
C – the VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the
airfield, based on VDF bearings
D – the service will be limited to bearings, no positions will be given by the
DF station
Ref: all
Ans: C
11267
...
With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the
ground station is a:
A – QTE
B – QUJ
C – QDR
D – QDM
Ref: all
Ans: A

15501
...

A – FL 50
B – FL 80
C –FL 100
D – FL 60
Ref: all
Ans: D
15522
...
5 MHz
D – On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary
Ref: all
Ans: C
16214
...
If the aircraft is flying directly towards the receiver and
they are approximately at the same height the received frequency will be:
A – 11 MHz
B – 10,000011 GHz
C – 9,999989 GHz
D – 11 GHz
Ref: all
Ans: B
16232
...
The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050o
(VAR 10oW) for a conventional vor is:
A – 050o
B – 040o
C – 230o
D – 220o
Ref: all
Ans: C
16256
...
5 MHz
B – on the Approach frequency
C – on the frequency notified for VDF services
D – on the frequency agreed between the pilot and ATC but chosen from one
of the available ATC frequencies
Ref: all
Ans: C
16257
...
The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by:
A – time of day
B – type of surface
C – height of aircraft
D – intensity of ionisation
Ref: all
Ans: C

16261
...
A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz
should have an effective length of:
A – 16,67 metres
B – 166,67 metres
C – 83,33 metres
D – 8,33 metres
Ref: all
Ans: D
16265
...
Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:
A – reflection from the surface
B – passing over or through mediums of different conductivity
C – passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength
D – passing through ionised regions of the upper atmosphere
Ref: all
Ans: C

16267
...
000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a
transmitter at sea level, at a range of:
A – 88,4 nm
B – 88,4 nm
C – 70,7 nm
D – 200 km
Ref: all
Ans: A
16268
...
At a range of 200 nm from a VHF
communications transmitter, and you are receiving a good signal
...
000 feet
B – You should have been receiving the signal from a range of 240 nm
C – You are probably receiving a sky wave signal
D – You are probably receiving a duct propagation signal
Ref: all
Ans: D
16269
...
(Refer to figure 062-06)
...
What is QTE?
A – Magnetic track from the station
B – Magnetic track to the station
C – True track from station
D – True track to the station
Ref: all
Ans: C
16389
...
The emission characteristics A3E describe:
A – ILS
B – VHF communications
C – HF communications
D – VOR
Ref: all
Ans: B
21524
...
What is the “Q” code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
A – “Request QNH”
B – “Request QDR”
C – “Request QTE”
D – “Request QDM”
Ref: all
Ans: B
21595
...
Which Q code would give a magnetic bearing from a VDF station:
A – QDM
B – QDR
C – QUJ
D – QTE
Ref: all
Ans: B
21624
...
Which Q code would give a true track from a VDF station:
A – QDM
B – QDR
C – QUJ
D – QTE
Ref: all
Ans: D
21637
...
5 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: D
21639
...
A frequency of 2400 KHz is equivalent to a wavelength of:
A – 125 metres
B – 105 metres
C – 0
...
Refraction of an electro-magnetic radiation is:
A – The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of
different electrical conductivity
B – The loss of power as it passes through or over areas of different electrical
conductivity
C – Is bending resultant from reflection from objects
D – Is loss of power through reflection from objects
Ref: all
Ans: A
21649
...
An aircraft wishing to use the VDF service must:
A – Be equipped with a VOR indicator unit
B – Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be
established
C – Ask the controller to transmit for a long enough period to establish the
bearing
D – Be within 10NM of the VDF aerial
Ref: all
Ans: B
21651
...
5 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: A

21652
...
A class C magnetic bearing is received from a station
...
Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range:
A – 3000 to 30000 MHz
B – 3000 to 30000 KHz
C – 300 to 3000 MHz
D – 300 to 3000 KHz
Ref: all
Ans: C
21803
...
What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown:
A – VHF radio
B – VOR
C – VOR/DME
D – None
Ref: all
Ans: A
22360
...
This is:
A – A QUJ accurate to ±2o
B – A QTE accurate to ±2o
C - A QUJ accurate to ±5o
D – A QTE accurate to ±5o
Ref: all
Ans: B
22376
...
What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be
guaranteed?
A – 3 MHz
B – 30 MHz
C – 300 MHz
D – 3 GHz
Ref: all
Ans: B

22804
...
If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: “your true bearing is 256o,
class alpha”
...
The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of:
A – 100 m to 10 m
B – 1 m to 100 cms
C – 10 m to 1 m
D – 100 cms to 10 cms
Ref: all
Ans: C
24956
...
What is the frequency?
A – 1
...
5 GHz
C – 1
...
The approximate ground waves of LF and MF are (by day) ___ and ___
respectively, with ___ suffering more from atmospheric attenuation
...
With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give bearings if:
A – the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country
B – conditions are poor and bearings do not fall within the station’s classified
limits
C – the pilot does not use the prescribed terminology
D – none of the above
Ref: all
Ans: B
24973
...
A Class B VDF bearing has accuracy limits of plus or minus:
A – 2 degrees
B – 7 degrees
C – 3 degrees
D – 5 degrees
Ref: all
Ans: D

24991
...
Given that the compass heading is 270o, the deviation is 2oW, the variation is
30oE and the relative bearing of a beacon is 316o, determine the QDR:
A – 044
B – 048
C – 074
D – 224
Ref: all
Ans: A

062-01-02 ADF (incl
...
An aircraft is HOMING to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing
of zero
...
An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
A – a beam rotating at 20 Hz
B – bi-local circular
C – a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
D – omnidirectional
Ref: all
Ans: D

11117
...
With a transmission from an NDB aerial, the ___ component travels in the ___
plane and the signal is ___ polarised
...
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability
include:
A – height error – station interference – mountain effect
B – static interference – station interference – latitude error
C – static interference – night effect – absence of failure warning system
D – coastal refraction – lane slip – mountain effect
Ref: all
Ans: C
11130
...
When considering the propagation of ADV transmissions night effect is most
pronounced:
A – at dusk and dawn
B – during the long winter nights
C – at or near the coast
D – when flying at low altitude
Ref: all
Ans: A
11132
...
An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will ___ speed and bend ___ the
normal
...
When ADF equipment which incorporates a sense aerial and a loop aerial is
tuned to a NDB and the loop aerial is rotated so that a sharp null is found the
aerial is:
A – either at right angles or in line with the incoming signals
B – in line with the incoming signals
C – at right angles to the incoming signals
D – aligned with the aircraft nose
Ref: all
Ans: B

11162
...
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
equipment are caused by:
A – misalignment of the loop aerial
B – signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wing
C – signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
D – sky wave/ground wave contamination
Ref: all
Ans: C
11173
...
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF
receivers?
A – 255 – 455 kHz
B – 190 – 1750 kHz
C – 300 – 3000 kHz
D – 200 – 2000 kHz
Ref: all
Ans: B

11179
...
By what factor should the
transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20
NM?
A – Eight
B – Six
C – Four
D – Two
Ref: all
Ans: C
11188
...
What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?
A–8m
B – 8000 m
C – 800 m
D – 80 m
Ref: all
Ans: C
11194
...
The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings:
A – by day and night
B – by day only
C – by night only
D – never
Ref: all
Ans: D
11200
...
An RMI indicates aircraft heading
...
The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is ___ allowing a maximum error of ___
on 95% of occasions during ___
A – 3/1, ±5 degrees, daylight hours only
B – 3/1, ±5 degrees, 24 hours
C – 5/1, ±3 degrees, 24 hours
D – 5/1, ±3 degrees, daylight hours only
Ref: all
Ans: A
11230
...
Any
quadrantal error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
A – zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI
B – at a maximum
C – at a minimum
D – zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR
Ref: all
Ans: B
11233
...
An aircraft over the sea is receiving a signal from an NDB 50nm from the
coast and another from an NDB 20nm from the coast
...
The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to:
A – make the signal audible
B – cut out the static noise
C – improve the strength of the received signal
D – attenuate the received signal
Ref: all
Ans: A
11271
...
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
A – Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
B – Frequency drift at the ground station
C – Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
D – Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
Ref: all
Ans: C
15498
...
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for
both propagations, the extend of the error is a position line plotted by an
aircraft that is over water will be:
A – the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of
180o and 360o
B – greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
C – the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of
090o and 270o
D – greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
Ref: all
Ans: D
16246
...
The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power is 200 watts
is:
A – 50 to 60 nm
B – 100 to 120 nm
C – 150 to 170 nm
D – 200 to 200 nm
Ref: all
Ans: A

16249
...
A relative bearing indicator shows 030o
...
The intercept angle for a course to the NDB of 180o M is:
A – 120o
B – 030o
C – 150o
D – 060o
Ref: all
Ans: D
16251
...
The heading of the aeroplane
is 020o M
...
An aeroplanes RMI shows an NDB bearing 070o, w/v calm
...
The aeroplane should:
A – fly to the NDB and join the pattern
B – fly to the NDB then fly outbound on 150o for 1 minute
C – fly to the NDB then fly a teardrop with an outbound heading of 120o for 1
minute and a rate one turn to join in bound
D – fly to the NDB then fly choose either (B) or (C) above as preferred
Ref: all
Ans: A

16253
...
Which of the following NDBs will
give the greatest costal refraction LOP error?
A – NDB sited on the coast-RBI 330o
B – NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 330o
C – NDB sited on the coast-RBI 300o
D – NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 300o
Ref: all
Ans: B
16254
...
Which of the following is true about the ADF?
A – Its accuracy is the same by day and by night
B – It does not have a signal failure warning
C – It should not be used at night because of sky waves
D – Sky waves do not affect the bearing accuracy provided they come from
the correct NDB
Ref: all
Ans: B
16387
...
What is the approved frequency band assigned to aeronautical NDBs?
A – 190-1750 Hz
B – 190-1750 KHz
C – 190-1750 MHz
D – 190-1750 GHz
Ref: all
Ans: B
16391
...
An NDB aerial is (i) so as to ensure the range is (ii) by minimising (iii) due to
(iv):
A – (i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) diffraction; (iv) the ground wave
B – (i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) energy losses to the
surface
C – (i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) refraction; (iv) the D layer
D – (i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) atmospheric refraction
Ref: all
Ans: B
16773
...
ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range
should be accurate to within a maximum error of:
A - +/-10o
B - +/-2
...
A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain
navigation systems to give false indications
...
A VOR and an ADF are co-located
...
In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF
bearing of:
A – 60
B – 240
C – 300
D – 120
Ref: all
Ans: A
21526
...
To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
A – a beam rotating at 30 Hertz
B – frequency modulated at 30 Hertz
C – omni-directional
D – unidirectional
Ref: all
Ans: C

21534
...

Given:
Compass heading 270o
At aircraft deviation 2oW, Variation 30oE
At station Variation 28oE
Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft:
A – 252o
B – 254o
C – 072o
D – 074o
Ref: all
Ans: B
21535
...
To convert the RMI bearings
of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the
application of magnetic variation is:
A – NDB: aircraft position
VOR: aircraft position
B – NDB: beacon position
VOR: beacon position
C – NDB: beacon position
VOR: aircraft position
D – NDB: aircraft position
VOR: beacon position
Ref: all
Ans: D
21543
...
If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090o and the ADF pointer indicates 225o, the
relative bearing to the station will be:
A – 135o
B – Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure
C – 315o
D – 225o
Ref: all
Ans: A
21548
...

A - +/-10o
B - +/- 5o
C - +/- 2
...
In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials,
the:
A – mode selector should be switched to ‘loop’
B – sense aerial must be tuned separately
C – signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
D – BFO switch must be selected to ‘ON’
Ref: all
Ans: C
21565
...
On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct read-out (no
calculation is necessary from the pilot) of the magnetic bearing from the
aircraft to the NDB?
A – Fixed card ADF and RMI
B – Moving card ADF and RMI
C – Moving and fixed card ADF
D – Fixed card ADF only
Ref: all
Ans: B
21571
...
There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the
coast
...
What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
A – 50 – 100 NM
B – 25 – 50 NM
C – 10 – 25 NM
D – 100 – 300 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
21584
...
Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
A – The range is limited to the line of sight
B – Aircraft height is not limiting for the reception of signals from the NDB
C – The range of an NDB will most likely increase at day time compared to
night time
D – The transmitter power of the NDB station has no affect on the range
Ref: all
Ans: B
21613
...
The QDM is:
A – 235o
B – 200o
C – 055o
D – 020o
Ref: all
Ans: D

21618
...
What gives the greatest error in ADF:
A – Coastal effect
B – Night effect
C – Static interference from thunderstorms
D – Quadrantal error
Ref: all
Ans: C
21654
...
The ICAO allocated band of frequencies for NDB is:
A – 255 – 455 KHz
B – 200 – 1750 KHz
C – 255 – 1750 KHz
D – 200 – 455 KHz
Ref: all
Ans: B

21757
...
The aircraft’s indicated position is:
A – Nearer to the coastline than its actual position
B – Further from the coastline than its actual position
C – Correct because the coastal refraction errors will cancel out because two
fixes have been taken
D – Correct in azimuth but false in range
Ref: all
Ans: A
21772
...
When identifying an NDB (NON A1A) it is necessary to:
A – Turn the BFO on
B – Turn the BFO off
C – Turn the ANT on
D – Turn the ANT off
Ref: all
Ans: A
21781
...
What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF:
A – BFO on
B – Select the loop position
C – Both the loop and sense aerials must receive the signal
D – Select the ANT position
Ref: all
Ans: C
21783
...
When using ADF (i), the accuracy is (ii) than (iii), because the surface wave is
(iv):
A – (i) by day; (ii) greater; (iii) by night; (iv) not present
B – (i) by night; (ii) greater; (iii) by day; (iv) not present
C – (i) by night; (ii) less; (iii) by day; (iv) contaminated by sky waves
D – (i) by day; (ii) less; (iii) by night; (iv) contaminated by sky waves
Ref: all
Ans: C
22332
...
An NDB has a range of 50 nm with a power output of 80 watts: The power
required to increase the range to 75 nm is:
A – 120 watts
B – 150 watts
C – 180 watts
D – 320 watts
Ref: all
Ans: C
22349
...
If an NDB signal is received at a range of 1000 nm:
A – The signal is a surface wave and is quite usable
B – It will be a ground wave and will be inaccurate
C – It is a space wave and will be inaccurate
D – It is a sky wave and is inaccurate
Ref: all
Ans: D
22353
...
NDB operate in the:
A – VLF and LF bands

B – LF and MF bands
C – VLF, LF and MF bands
D – VLF and MF bands
Ref: all
Ans: B
22357
...
An aircraft over the sea will experience (i) coastal refraction effect when the
radio waves cross the coastline at (ii) and the NDB is (iii):
A – (i) More; (ii) 90o; (iii) Near the coast
B – (i) Less; (ii) 45o; (iii) Well inland
C – (i) Less; (ii) 90o; (iii) Near the coast
D – (i) More; (ii) 45o; (iii) On the coast
Ref: all
Ans: C
22365
...
0
B – 3
...
5
D – 1
...
When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly?
A – a constant track
B – a great circle track
C – a rhumb line track
D – a constant heading
Ref: all
Ans: B

11134
...
The VOR indicates the aircraft position
...

A – 001o outside
B – 181o inside
C – 001o inside
D – 181o outside
Ref: all
Ans: A
11135
...
The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI)
are fly:
A – left with FROM showing
B – right with TO showing
C – right with FROM showing
D – left with TO showing
Ref: all
Ans: D
11138
...
To make the
VOR/ILS deviation indicator needle centralise with the TO flag showing, the
following bearing should be selected on the OBS:
A – 100 degrees
B – 110 degrees
C – 290 degrees
D – 280 degrees
Ref: all
Ans: D

11143
...
Given:
Magnetic heading 280o VOR radial 090o
What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to
centralise the VOR deviation needle with a TO indication?
A – 100o
B – 280o
C – 270o
D – 090o
Ref: all
Ans: C
11153
...
The
setting the pilot should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:
A – 285, TO
B – 105, TO
C – 285, FROM
D – 105, FROM
Ref: all
Ans: A

11155
...
Given:
VOR station position N61o E025o, variation 13oE
...
An aircraft is on a VOR radial of 235o, heading 003o(M), and with the OBS
set to 060
...
If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
A – rhumbline track
B – great circle track
C – line of constant bearing
D – constant magnetic track
Ref: all
Ans: B

11183
...
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104o radial
...
A VOR is sited at position 58o00 N 073o00 W where the magnetic variation
equals 32oW
...
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
A – 360
B – 208
C – 212
D – 180
Ref: all
Ans: C
11203
...
One degree at 200 NM
represents a width of:
A – 2
...
5 NM
C – 2
...
0 NM
Ref: all
Ans: B

11204
...
The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR:
A – Is always directed towards the aircraft
B – Is like a figure of 8
C – Is a pencil beam
D – Rotates at 30 revolutions per second
Ref: all
Ans: D
11210
...
The RMI indicates aircraft magnetic heading
...
With reference to the VOR:
A – Failure of the monitor will cause the beacon to cease its ident
B – A typical VOR frequency is 118
...
Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional,
signal of a conventional VOR is correct?
A - The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each
time it rotates
B – The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it
the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
C – The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz
either side of the allocated frequency each time it rotates
D – The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with
the reference signal
Ref: all
Ans: B
11235
...

From/To indicator indicates TO
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right
On what radial is the aircraft?
A – 085
B – 275
C – 265
D – 095
Ref: all
Ans: B

11240
...
The captain of an aircraft flying at FL 100 wishes to obtain weather
information at the destination airfield (0 ft MSL) from the airfields VOR
...
3 NM
D – 123 NM
Ref: all
Ans: D
11244
...
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
A – SHF
B – UHF
C – VHF
D – HF
Ref: all
Ans: C

11253
...
For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090 deg would be achieved by
flying ___ from the beacon
...
An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant
bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5
...
In order to ensure accurate track
guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately:
A – 165 NM
B – 50 NM
C – 105 NM
D – 210 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
11261
...
The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135o
...
(Refer to figure 062-05)
Refer to the diagram of a VOR/ILS deviation indicator
...
At the time of observation the
aircraft was located on radial:
A – 063o
B – 253o
C – 245o
D – 243o
Ref: all
Ans: A
11272
...

The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the
VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle with a TO indication is:
A – 100o
B – 090o
C – 270o
D – 280o
Ref: all
Ans: C
11274
...
In order
to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
A – 064o with the FROM flag showing
B – 064o with the TO flag showing
C – 244o with the FROM flag showing
D – 244o with the TO flag showing
Ref: all
Ans: B

11275
...
An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270o(M)
...
In which sector is the
aircraft from the VOR ground station:
A – SE
B – SW
C – NW
D – NE
Ref: all
Ans: C
11283
...
Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result in:
A – loss of signal due to line of sight limitations
B – interference from other VORs operating on the same frequency
C – sky wave contamination of the VOR signal
D – scalloping errors
Ref: all
Ans: B
11294
...
Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of
an airway at 100 nm from the VOR beacon?
A–5
B – 2
...
5
D–3
Ref: all
Ans: C
15477
...
An aircraft is located at
position B (44o00N, 010o00E)
...
The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
A – envelope matching
B – beat frequency discrimination
C – difference in depth of modulation
D – phase comparison
Ref: all
Ans: D
15481
...
In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
A – VHF
B – UHF
C – SHF
D – EHF
Ref: all
Ans: A
15489
...
What angular deviation are you from the selected
radial?
A – 10o or more
B – less than 10o
C – 1
...
5o or more
Ref: all
Ans: A

15499
...
(Refer to figure 062-10)
The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
A – VOR/DME
B – TACAN
C – VOR
D – Airport
Ref: all
Ans: A
15525
...
Given:
Aircraft heading 160o (M)
Aircraft is on radial 240o from a VOR
Selected course on HIS is 250o
The HSI indications are deviation bar:
A – ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
B – ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
C – behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
D – behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
Ref: all
Ans: C
16235
...
Which of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest
inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
A – Coastal refraction
B – Sky waves
C – Night effect
D – Thunderstorms nearby
Ref: all
Ans: D
16240
...
This:
A – does not affect the VOR indications in any way
B – reverses the indications
C – improves the accuracy
D – improves the range
Ref: all
Ans: D

16241
...
If the OBS is set to
260o, the CDI will show:
A – fly left TO
B – fly right TO
C – fly left FROM
D – fly right FROM
Ref: all
Ans: A
16242
...
What is the approved frequency band assigned to VOR?
A – 108-117,975 MHz which is LF
B – 108-117,975 MHz which is MF
C – 108-117,975 MHz which is HF
D – 108-117,975 MHz which is VHF
Ref: all
Ans: D
16393
...
With reference to a VOR, the cone of confusion is:
A – the area outside the DOC
B – the area directly overhead a VOR
C – the change over from TO to FROM when the OBS is set 90o to the radial
D – the change over from FROM to TO when the OBS is set 90o to the radial
Ref: all
Ans: B
16848
...
The needle shows two dots fly left
...
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 230 may receive
signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
A – 190 NM
B – 230 NM
C – 170 NM
D – 151 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
21515
...
A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of
313 m
...
An aeroplane flies over position A which is due North of a VOR station sited
at position B
...
What
radial from B is the aircraft on?
A – 350o
B – 018o
C – 010o
D – 342o
Ref: all
Ans: C
21529
...
Course 340o is selected
on the HIS (Horizontal Situation Indicator)
...
An airraft is situated at 30oN – 005oE with a magnetic variation of 10oW
...
The
aircraft is situated on the VOR radial:
A – 101o
B – 281o
C – 286o
D – 256o
Ref: all
Ans: C
21533
...

The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the
VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle is:
A – 360o
B – 270o
C – 090o
D – 180o
Ref: all
Ans: C
21554
...
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 230 may receive
signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
A – 170 NM
B – 230 NM
C – 190 NM
D – 151 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
21577
...
The needle is close to
full right deflection
...
Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?
A – Scalloping
B – Coastal refraction
C – Quadrantal error
D – Night effect
Ref: all
Ans: A
21612
...
You set
the course 190o on your OBS
...
Your aircraft is heading 075oM
...
The VOR
indications are ‘TO’ with the needle showing right deflection
...
Heading 270o with 270o set on the OBS with FROM indicated the VOR
indicator shows 4 dots to the left
...
A VOR receiver with a phase comparison of 90o will be on what radial:
A – North
B – East
C – South
D – West
Ref: all
Ans: B
21632
...
The reference signal of a conventional VOR is:
A – 30 Hz frequency modulated
B – 30 Hz amplitude modulated
C – 9960 Hz frequency modulated
D – 9960 amplitude modulated
Ref: all
Ans: A
21657
...
20
B – 108
...
10
D – 118
...
At an altitude of 20000 ft you would expect to detect a sea level VOR at a
range of:
A – 143NM
B – 200NM
C – 260NM
D – 178NM
Ref: all
Ans: D
21659
...
When comparing conventional and Doppler VOR, which of the following
applies to the Doppler VOR:
A – The reference and variphase signals are reversed but the phase difference

A – To allow ground mapping
B – To alert pilots to the presence of cloud
C – To display areas of turbulence
D – To allow simultaneous mapping and cloud detection
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
22393
...
If the
range is reduced to 50 nm:
A – The image will decrease in area and remain where it is
B – The image will decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
C – The image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the screen
D – The image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
22762
...
The AWR can be used on the ground provided:
i
...

iii
...


The aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles
The conical beam is selected
Maximum uplift is selected
The AWR must never be operated on the ground

A – iv
B – i, ii
C – i, ii, iii
D – ii, iii
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
22880
...
If the beam width is 5o and the range of the
cloud is 40 nm, the height of the cloud above the aircraft is approximately:
A – 3000 ft
B – 6000 ft
C – 4000 ft
D – 9000 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
24978
...
In an AWR with a colour CRT areas of greatest turbulence are indicated by:
A – iso-echo areas coloured black
B – large areas of flashing red
C – iso-echo areas with no colour
D – most rapid change of colour
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

25080
...
The Cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:
A – a greater range can be achieved
B – a wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage
C – a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam
D – it allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
25570
...
ATC area surveillance radars will normally operate to a maximum range of:
A – 100 nm
B – 200 nm
C – 300 nm
D – 400 nm
Ref: all
Ans: C

8158
...
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a
transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies
(transmitter; receiver):
A – 1090 MHz; 1090 MHz
B – 1090 MHz; 1030 MHz
C – 1030 MHz; 1090 MHz
D – 1030 MHz; 1030 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: C
8166
...
5 Mhz
B – 1030 +/- 0
...
3 Mhz
D – 1120 +/- 0
...
The ATC transponder system excluding Mode S contains:
A – four modes, each 1024 codes
B – two modes, each 4096 codes
C – four modes, each 4096 codes
D – two modes, each 1024 co
position and velocity
B – transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes
autonomously
C – compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit
the computed position back to the user segment
D – monitor the satellites orbits and status
Ref: all
Ans: A
8032
...
Wing) on
the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
A – It may prevent the reception of signals
B – It causes multipath propagation
C – The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using
an algorithm and iformation from unaffected signals
D – It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected
Ref: all
Ans: A

8034
...
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a nonprecision approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
system?
A – If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS,
otherwise barometric altitude
B – Barometric altitude
C – Radar altitude
D – GPS altitude
Ref: all
Ans: B
8040
...
Which one of the following is an advantage of a multi-sensor system using
inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial
navigational system (INS)?
A – The average position calculated from data provided by both systems
increases overall accuracy
B – The activation of Selective Availability can be recognised by the INS
C – The GNSS can be used toupdate a drifting INS
D – The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy
Ref: all
Ans: C
8045
...
The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is
A – an ellipsoid
B – a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
C – a sphere
D – a geoid
Ref: all
Ans: A
8047
...
The time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for

the: NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A – 12
...
NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:
A – regular auto-synchronisation with the satellite clocks
B – adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error
C – synchronisation with the satellite clocks on initialisation
D – having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver
Ref: all
Ans: B
8051
...
Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
A – L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)
B – L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
C – L1-precise (P)
D – L2-selected availability (S/A)
Ref: all
Ans: A
8052
...
Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR
conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the
position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of
conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?
A – it must be continued under VFR conditions
B – It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all
systems must be checked
C – It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
D – The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error
or switch off the faulty system
Ref: all
Ans: C
8055
...

ii
...

iv
...


offset of the satellite clock from GMT
edphemeris data
health data
ionospheric delays
solar activity

A – i, ii, iii, iv, v
B – i, ii, iii
C – i, ii, iv
D – ii, iii, iv
Ref: all
Ans: C
8059
...
How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise
which of the received signals belongs to which satellite?
A – Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
B – The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
C – The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and
compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellites
D – Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an
individual Pseudo Random Noise code
Ref: all
Ans: D
8061
...
Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most
accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
A – 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120o from each other and an elevation of
45o above the horizon
B – 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120o
from each other together with a fourth directly overhead
C – 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90o from each other and a low elevation
above the horizon
D – 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90o from each other and an elevation of
45o above the horizon
Ref: all
Ans: B

8063
...
The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:
A – provides X, Y and Y co-ordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the
satellite data
B – provides X
...
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
A – Latitude, longitude and altitude
B – Latitude and longitude
C – Latitude, longitude and time
D – Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
Ref: all
Ans: D
8066
...
What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain
a three dimensional fix?
A–4
B–3
C–5
D–6
Ref: all
Ans: A
11350
...
In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems
(GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
A – EHF
B – SHF
C – UHF
D – VHF
Ref: all
Ans: C
11355
...
The GPS satellite navigation system operates by:
A – measuring the time for the signal to travel to the receiver and back
B – measuring the time for the signal to reach the receiver
C – phase comparison
D – measuring the phase of the incoming signal
Ref: all
Ans: B
11360
...
Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)
code, forms part of the so called Navigation Message transmitted by
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
A – Time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix (Selective
Availability SA)
B – Almanac data; satellite status information
C – Data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data
D – Time; position of the satellites
Ref: all
Ans: B
11363
...
The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a Pseudo-Range is because
the:
A – measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code
B – calculated range includes receiver clock error
C – movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not
taken into account
D – calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit
Ref: all
Ans: B
11368
...
6 MHz only
B – 1575
...
6 MHz and 1575
...
6 MHz or 1575
...
What is RAIM and what is its function?
A – Integrity monitoring of satellites by the receiver to ensure accurate
navigation
B – GPS integrity monitoring of master and slave stations to ensure correct
alignment
C – Resolution and intensity monitoring for increased accuracy
D – Integrity monitoring of satellites by the master station to increase accuracy
Ref: all
Ans: A

11370
...
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is
obtained by:
A – timing the period that is taken for a satellites transmission to reach the
aircraft’s receiver
B – the aircrafts receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received
from a satellite in a known position
C – timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft’s
transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known
position
D – the aircraft’s receiver measuring the time difference between signals
received from a minimum number of satellites
Ref: all
Ans: A
11373
...

A–3
B–4
C–5
D–2
Ref: all
Ans: B

11374
...
Unauthorised civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access:
A – the P and Y codes
B – the P code
C – the C/A and P codes
D – the C/A code
Ref: all
Ans: D
11376
...
The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A – only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle
above the horizon
B – minimised by computing the average of all signals
C – minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing
signals transmitted by the satellites
D – negligible
Ref: all
Ans: C

11381
...
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term
inclination denotes the angle between the:
A – orbital plane and the equatorial plane
B – horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a
satellite
C – orbital plane and the earth’s axis
D – horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a
satellite
Ref: all
Ans: A
11386
...
What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most
suitable for use on board an aircraft?
A – Sequential
B – Multichannel
C – Multiplex
D – Any hand held type
Ref: all
Ans: B
15495
...

The number of satellites is:
A–4
B–5
C–6
D–7
Ref: all
Ans: C
15497
...
The number of satellites is:
A–3
B–4
C–5
D–6
Ref: all
Ans: B

15503
...
Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can
be processed by unauthorised civil aviation receivers?
A – C/A and P
B – P and Y
C – C/A
D–P
Ref: all
Ans: C
15529
...
In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all,
the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
A – It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites
B – It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellitie signals
C – It increases because only signals from satellites in the roost suitable
geometric constellation are selected by the receiver
D – It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the
computing process in the receiver is quicker
Ref: all
Ans: B

15531
...
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, Search the Sky
is a:
A – continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for
satellites rising above the horizon
B – procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored
satellite data available
C – continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites
D – procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming
operational
Ref: all
Ans: B
16191
...
Clock bias is the process of correcting the pseudo range for:
A – receiver clock errors
B – satellite clock errors
C – receiver and satellite clock errors
D – UTC errors
Ref: all
Ans: A
16193
...
It is transmitted
only on L1
B – The P code is the only code available for civilian use
...
It is transmitted on
both L1 and L2
D – The P code is for authorised (military) use only
...
Airborne GNSS receivers are protected from the effects of selective
availability (SA) by:
A – warning transmitted on the satellite Nav message
B – use of RAIM techniques
C – warning transmitted from the ground segment
D – NOTAMS
Ref: all
Ans: B
16195
...
In respect of the use of GNSS, Dilution of Precision (DOP) is a loss of
accuracy due to:
A – relative position of the visible satellites
B – ionospheric effects
C – multi-path signals from some satellites
D – use of satellites at low altitudes
Ref: all
Ans: A
16426
...
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) a fix is obtained by:
A – the aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from
a number of satellites in known positions
B – measuring the time taken for an aircraft’s transmissions to travel to a
number of satellites, in known positions and return to the aircraft’s
receiver
C – measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number
of satellites received in a specific sequential order
D – measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites
transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver
Ref: all
Ans: D
21544
...
How many satellites from the nominal NAVSTAR/GPS constellation?
A – 36
B – 12
C–6
D – 24
Ref: all
Ans: D
21552
...
In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites placed?
A – Geo-stationary
B – Elliptical
C – Circular
D – Pole to pole
Ref: all
Ans: B
21573
...
What is the minimum number of satellites required for the NAVSTAR/GPS to
carry out two dimensional operation?
A–3
B–4
C–5
D–2
Ref: all
Ans: A
21592
...
Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained
with the LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation
system of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
A – A LAAS corrects the position of the aircraft by relaying the information
via a geo-stationary satellite
B – The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the aircraft
position in relation to the LAAS ground reference station
C – A LAAS cannot correct for satellite timing and orbital position error
D – The closer the receiver is to a LAAS ground reference station, the more
accurate is the aircraft position fix
Ref: all
Ans: D
21633
...
Where on the Earth would you have the most satellites ‘visible’:
A – At the Equator
B – At the Poles
C – It will be the same anywhere on the Earth
D – Depends on the time of day
Ref: all
Ans: A
21635
...
What happens with RAIM:
A – The ground stations monitor the satellites
B – The satellites monitor the ground stations
C – The receiver monitors the satellites
D – The satellites moinitor the receiver
Ref: all
Ans: C
21638
...
A transmission of RF energy at a wavelength of 18 metres is in which
frequency band?
A – MF
B – LF
C – HF
D – VHF
Ref: all
Ans: C
21732
...
They result from:
A – Master and slave signals travelling over different surfaces to reach the
receiver
B – Sky wave effect
C – slave signal having a higher frequency than the master
D – Atmospheric refraction
Ref: all
Ans: A
21733
...
The GNSS receiver determines the aeroplane velocity by:
A – Integrating measured change of position with time
B – Determining satellite/aeroplane relative velocities from Doppler shift
measurements
C – Determining the Doppler shift of the receiver frequency
D – Determining the rate of change of ‘pseudo ranges’
Ref: all
Ans: B

21736
...
Which of the following affects the User Equivalent Range Error (UERE)?
A – Errors in the receiver processor’s ionospheric model
B – Errors in the receiver clock
C – Failure of the altitude input
D – Poor geometry of satellites
Ref: all
Ans: B
21738
...
When setting up the GNSS receiver before use, the present position should be
entered because:
A – the receiver cannot acquire the satellites without knowing where it is
B – this will reduce the time to first fix
C – this will allow the map display to function
D – this will help any dependant equipment such as IRS to stabilise
Ref: all
Ans: B

21740
...
The Glonass satellite system differs from the Navstar GPS system in that:
A – the satellites are at a lower orbital height
B – it is intended to use less satellites
C – the orbital paths are at a smaller angle to the plane of the equator
D – the satellites are geostationary
Ref: all
Ans: A
21742
...
It is changed every 28 days
D – An ‘ionospheric delay’ model is determined from the satellite Nav
message
Ref: all
Ans: D
21743
...
In a Pseudolite DGPS a data link is provided:
A – To communicate satellite position information to the reference station
B – To communicate navigation signals from the satellite to the aeroplane’s
GNSS receiver
C – To communicate DGPS corrections and integrity information to the
aeroplane’s GNSS receiver
D – To communicate corrections of clock and position from the reference
station to the satellite
Ref: all
Ans: C
21745
...
In order for a GPS receiver to conduct RAIM it must use a minimum of:
A – Three satellites plus a barometric input
B – Four satellites
C – Five satellites
D – Five satellites plus a barometric input
Ref: all
Ans: C
21747
...
5 minutes
B – At a rate of 1 subframe every 12
...
5 seconds
D – As dictated by the master control station
Ref: all
Ans: A

21750
...
Which band is used for the
P code and which for the C/A code:
A – L1 is modulated with the P code only
B – L1 is modulated with the P and C/A code
C – L2 is modulated with the C/A code only
D – L2 is modulated with the P and C/A code
Ref: all
Ans: B
21751
...
Which of the following will cause the greatest GPS error:
A – Ephemeris error
B – Satellite clock error
C – Ionospheric error
D – Latitude error
Ref: all
Ans: C
21763
...
The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:
A – barometric altitude
B – radio altimeter
C – GPS altitude
D – GPS or barometric altitude
Ref: all
Ans: A
22298
...
The positioning of a GNSS serial on an aircraft is:
A – in the fin
B – on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
C – on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
D – under the fuselage
Ref: all
Ans: C
22300
...
The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS
SVs includes:
A – satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information
B – satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error
C – position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error
D – ionospheric propagation information, X, Y and Z co-ordinates and
corrections, satellite clock time and error
Ref: all
Ans: A
22302
...
The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:
A – determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver
B – determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data
C – transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
D – transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
Ref: all
Ans: B
22304
...
If the receiver
deselects one satellite then the flight should be continued:
A – using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring the receiver output
B – using alternative navigation systems
C – using alternative radio navigation systems only
D – using inertial reference systems only
Ref: all
Ans: B

22305
...
Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:
A – barometric
B – GNSS
C – radio
D – radio of GNSS
Ref: all
Ans: A
22307
...
RAIM is achieved:
A – by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which
alt relayed to receivers via geo-stationary satellites
B – by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the
corrections to receivers using pseudolites
C – within the receiver
D – any of the above
Ref: all
Ans: C

22394
...
The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is:
A – VHF
B – UHF
C – EHF
D – SHF
Ref: all
Ans: B
22396
...
The orbits of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellites are inclined at:
A – 55o to the earth’s axis

---