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062 – RADIO NAVIGATION
062-01

RADIO AIDS

062-01-01 Ground Direction Finder D/F (including
classification of bearings)
11122
...
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain
bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:
A – 107 NM
B – 158 NM
C – 134 NM
D – 114 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
11148
...
What is the maximum range at which a VDF station at 325 ft can provide a
service to an aircraft at FL080?
A – 134 nm
B – 107 nm
C – 91 nm
D – 114 nm
Ref: all
Ans: A
11214
...
What is the appropriate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT
above MSL?
A – 180 NM
B – 220 NM
C – 120 NM
D – 150 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
11248
...
If, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH,
is means:
A – the bearing will only be accurate when the aircraft is flying above the
QGH level
B – the VDF service will be handled by a different VDF unit, operating on the
same frequency
C – the VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the
airfield, based on VDF bearings
D – the service will be limited to bearings, no positions will be given by the
DF station
Ref: all
Ans: C
11267
...
With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the
ground station is a:
A – QTE
B – QUJ
C – QDR
D – QDM
Ref: all
Ans: A

15501
...

A – FL 50
B – FL 80
C –FL 100
D – FL 60
Ref: all
Ans: D
15522
...
5 MHz
D – On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary
Ref: all
Ans: C
16214
...
If the aircraft is flying directly towards the receiver and
they are approximately at the same height the received frequency will be:
A – 11 MHz
B – 10,000011 GHz
C – 9,999989 GHz
D – 11 GHz
Ref: all
Ans: B
16232
...
The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050o
(VAR 10oW) for a conventional vor is:
A – 050o
B – 040o
C – 230o
D – 220o
Ref: all
Ans: C
16256
...
5 MHz
B – on the Approach frequency
C – on the frequency notified for VDF services
D – on the frequency agreed between the pilot and ATC but chosen from one
of the available ATC frequencies
Ref: all
Ans: C
16257
...
The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by:
A – time of day
B – type of surface
C – height of aircraft
D – intensity of ionisation
Ref: all
Ans: C

16261
...
A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz
should have an effective length of:
A – 16,67 metres
B – 166,67 metres
C – 83,33 metres
D – 8,33 metres
Ref: all
Ans: D
16265
...
Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:
A – reflection from the surface
B – passing over or through mediums of different conductivity
C – passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength
D – passing through ionised regions of the upper atmosphere
Ref: all
Ans: C

16267
...
000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a
transmitter at sea level, at a range of:
A – 88,4 nm
B – 88,4 nm
C – 70,7 nm
D – 200 km
Ref: all
Ans: A
16268
...
At a range of 200 nm from a VHF
communications transmitter, and you are receiving a good signal
...
000 feet
B – You should have been receiving the signal from a range of 240 nm
C – You are probably receiving a sky wave signal
D – You are probably receiving a duct propagation signal
Ref: all
Ans: D
16269
...
(Refer to figure 062-06)
...
What is QTE?
A – Magnetic track from the station
B – Magnetic track to the station
C – True track from station
D – True track to the station
Ref: all
Ans: C
16389
...
The emission characteristics A3E describe:
A – ILS
B – VHF communications
C – HF communications
D – VOR
Ref: all
Ans: B
21524
...
What is the “Q” code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
A – “Request QNH”
B – “Request QDR”
C – “Request QTE”
D – “Request QDM”
Ref: all
Ans: B
21595
...
Which Q code would give a magnetic bearing from a VDF station:
A – QDM
B – QDR
C – QUJ
D – QTE
Ref: all
Ans: B
21624
...
Which Q code would give a true track from a VDF station:
A – QDM
B – QDR
C – QUJ
D – QTE
Ref: all
Ans: D
21637
...
5 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: D
21639
...
A frequency of 2400 KHz is equivalent to a wavelength of:
A – 125 metres
B – 105 metres
C – 0
...
Refraction of an electro-magnetic radiation is:
A – The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of
different electrical conductivity
B – The loss of power as it passes through or over areas of different electrical
conductivity
C – Is bending resultant from reflection from objects
D – Is loss of power through reflection from objects
Ref: all
Ans: A
21649
...
An aircraft wishing to use the VDF service must:
A – Be equipped with a VOR indicator unit
B – Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be
established
C – Ask the controller to transmit for a long enough period to establish the
bearing
D – Be within 10NM of the VDF aerial
Ref: all
Ans: B
21651
...
5 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: A

21652
...
A class C magnetic bearing is received from a station
...
Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range:
A – 3000 to 30000 MHz
B – 3000 to 30000 KHz
C – 300 to 3000 MHz
D – 300 to 3000 KHz
Ref: all
Ans: C
21803
...
What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF letdown:
A – VHF radio
B – VOR
C – VOR/DME
D – None
Ref: all
Ans: A
22360
...
This is:
A – A QUJ accurate to ±2o
B – A QTE accurate to ±2o
C - A QUJ accurate to ±5o
D – A QTE accurate to ±5o
Ref: all
Ans: B
22376
...
What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be
guaranteed?
A – 3 MHz
B – 30 MHz
C – 300 MHz
D – 3 GHz
Ref: all
Ans: B

22804
...
If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: “your true bearing is 256o,
class alpha”
...
The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of:
A – 100 m to 10 m
B – 1 m to 100 cms
C – 10 m to 1 m
D – 100 cms to 10 cms
Ref: all
Ans: C
24956
...
What is the frequency?
A – 1
...
5 GHz
C – 1
...
The approximate ground waves of LF and MF are (by day) ___ and ___
respectively, with ___ suffering more from atmospheric attenuation
...
With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give bearings if:
A – the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country
B – conditions are poor and bearings do not fall within the station’s classified
limits
C – the pilot does not use the prescribed terminology
D – none of the above
Ref: all
Ans: B
24973
...
A Class B VDF bearing has accuracy limits of plus or minus:
A – 2 degrees
B – 7 degrees
C – 3 degrees
D – 5 degrees
Ref: all
Ans: D

24991
...
Given that the compass heading is 270o, the deviation is 2oW, the variation is
30oE and the relative bearing of a beacon is 316o, determine the QDR:
A – 044
B – 048
C – 074
D – 224
Ref: all
Ans: A

062-01-02 ADF (incl
...
An aircraft is HOMING to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing
of zero
...
An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
A – a beam rotating at 20 Hz
B – bi-local circular
C – a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
D – omnidirectional
Ref: all
Ans: D

11117
...
With a transmission from an NDB aerial, the ___ component travels in the ___
plane and the signal is ___ polarised
...
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability
include:
A – height error – station interference – mountain effect
B – static interference – station interference – latitude error
C – static interference – night effect – absence of failure warning system
D – coastal refraction – lane slip – mountain effect
Ref: all
Ans: C
11130
...
When considering the propagation of ADV transmissions night effect is most
pronounced:
A – at dusk and dawn
B – during the long winter nights
C – at or near the coast
D – when flying at low altitude
Ref: all
Ans: A
11132
...
An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will ___ speed and bend ___ the
normal
...
When ADF equipment which incorporates a sense aerial and a loop aerial is
tuned to a NDB and the loop aerial is rotated so that a sharp null is found the
aerial is:
A – either at right angles or in line with the incoming signals
B – in line with the incoming signals
C – at right angles to the incoming signals
D – aligned with the aircraft nose
Ref: all
Ans: B

11162
...
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
equipment are caused by:
A – misalignment of the loop aerial
B – signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wing
C – signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
D – sky wave/ground wave contamination
Ref: all
Ans: C
11173
...
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF
receivers?
A – 255 – 455 kHz
B – 190 – 1750 kHz
C – 300 – 3000 kHz
D – 200 – 2000 kHz
Ref: all
Ans: B

11179
...
By what factor should the
transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20
NM?
A – Eight
B – Six
C – Four
D – Two
Ref: all
Ans: C
11188
...
What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?
A–8m
B – 8000 m
C – 800 m
D – 80 m
Ref: all
Ans: C
11194
...
The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings:
A – by day and night
B – by day only
C – by night only
D – never
Ref: all
Ans: D
11200
...
An RMI indicates aircraft heading
...
The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is ___ allowing a maximum error of ___
on 95% of occasions during ___
A – 3/1, ±5 degrees, daylight hours only
B – 3/1, ±5 degrees, 24 hours
C – 5/1, ±3 degrees, 24 hours
D – 5/1, ±3 degrees, daylight hours only
Ref: all
Ans: A
11230
...
Any
quadrantal error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
A – zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI
B – at a maximum
C – at a minimum
D – zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR
Ref: all
Ans: B
11233
...
An aircraft over the sea is receiving a signal from an NDB 50nm from the
coast and another from an NDB 20nm from the coast
...
The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to:
A – make the signal audible
B – cut out the static noise
C – improve the strength of the received signal
D – attenuate the received signal
Ref: all
Ans: A
11271
...
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
A – Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
B – Frequency drift at the ground station
C – Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
D – Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
Ref: all
Ans: C
15498
...
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for
both propagations, the extend of the error is a position line plotted by an
aircraft that is over water will be:
A – the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of
180o and 360o
B – greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
C – the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of
090o and 270o
D – greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
Ref: all
Ans: D
16246
...
The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power is 200 watts
is:
A – 50 to 60 nm
B – 100 to 120 nm
C – 150 to 170 nm
D – 200 to 200 nm
Ref: all
Ans: A

16249
...
A relative bearing indicator shows 030o
...
The intercept angle for a course to the NDB of 180o M is:
A – 120o
B – 030o
C – 150o
D – 060o
Ref: all
Ans: D
16251
...
The heading of the aeroplane
is 020o M
...
An aeroplanes RMI shows an NDB bearing 070o, w/v calm
...
The aeroplane should:
A – fly to the NDB and join the pattern
B – fly to the NDB then fly outbound on 150o for 1 minute
C – fly to the NDB then fly a teardrop with an outbound heading of 120o for 1
minute and a rate one turn to join in bound
D – fly to the NDB then fly choose either (B) or (C) above as preferred
Ref: all
Ans: A

16253
...
Which of the following NDBs will
give the greatest costal refraction LOP error?
A – NDB sited on the coast-RBI 330o
B – NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 330o
C – NDB sited on the coast-RBI 300o
D – NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 300o
Ref: all
Ans: B
16254
...
Which of the following is true about the ADF?
A – Its accuracy is the same by day and by night
B – It does not have a signal failure warning
C – It should not be used at night because of sky waves
D – Sky waves do not affect the bearing accuracy provided they come from
the correct NDB
Ref: all
Ans: B
16387
...
What is the approved frequency band assigned to aeronautical NDBs?
A – 190-1750 Hz
B – 190-1750 KHz
C – 190-1750 MHz
D – 190-1750 GHz
Ref: all
Ans: B
16391
...
An NDB aerial is (i) so as to ensure the range is (ii) by minimising (iii) due to
(iv):
A – (i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) diffraction; (iv) the ground wave
B – (i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) energy losses to the
surface
C – (i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) refraction; (iv) the D layer
D – (i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) atmospheric refraction
Ref: all
Ans: B
16773
...
ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range
should be accurate to within a maximum error of:
A - +/-10o
B - +/-2
...
A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain
navigation systems to give false indications
...
A VOR and an ADF are co-located
...
In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF
bearing of:
A – 60
B – 240
C – 300
D – 120
Ref: all
Ans: A
21526
...
To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is:
A – a beam rotating at 30 Hertz
B – frequency modulated at 30 Hertz
C – omni-directional
D – unidirectional
Ref: all
Ans: C

21534
...

Given:
Compass heading 270o
At aircraft deviation 2oW, Variation 30oE
At station Variation 28oE
Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft:
A – 252o
B – 254o
C – 072o
D – 074o
Ref: all
Ans: B
21535
...
To convert the RMI bearings
of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the
application of magnetic variation is:
A – NDB: aircraft position
VOR: aircraft position
B – NDB: beacon position
VOR: beacon position
C – NDB: beacon position
VOR: aircraft position
D – NDB: aircraft position
VOR: beacon position
Ref: all
Ans: D
21543
...
If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090o and the ADF pointer indicates 225o, the
relative bearing to the station will be:
A – 135o
B – Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure
C – 315o
D – 225o
Ref: all
Ans: A
21548
...

A - +/-10o
B - +/- 5o
C - +/- 2
...
In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials,
the:
A – mode selector should be switched to ‘loop’
B – sense aerial must be tuned separately
C – signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
D – BFO switch must be selected to ‘ON’
Ref: all
Ans: C
21565
...
On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct read-out (no
calculation is necessary from the pilot) of the magnetic bearing from the
aircraft to the NDB?
A – Fixed card ADF and RMI
B – Moving card ADF and RMI
C – Moving and fixed card ADF
D – Fixed card ADF only
Ref: all
Ans: B
21571
...
There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the
coast
...
What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?
A – 50 – 100 NM
B – 25 – 50 NM
C – 10 – 25 NM
D – 100 – 300 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
21584
...
Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?
A – The range is limited to the line of sight
B – Aircraft height is not limiting for the reception of signals from the NDB
C – The range of an NDB will most likely increase at day time compared to
night time
D – The transmitter power of the NDB station has no affect on the range
Ref: all
Ans: B
21613
...
The QDM is:
A – 235o
B – 200o
C – 055o
D – 020o
Ref: all
Ans: D

21618
...
What gives the greatest error in ADF:
A – Coastal effect
B – Night effect
C – Static interference from thunderstorms
D – Quadrantal error
Ref: all
Ans: C
21654
...
The ICAO allocated band of frequencies for NDB is:
A – 255 – 455 KHz
B – 200 – 1750 KHz
C – 255 – 1750 KHz
D – 200 – 455 KHz
Ref: all
Ans: B

21757
...
The aircraft’s indicated position is:
A – Nearer to the coastline than its actual position
B – Further from the coastline than its actual position
C – Correct because the coastal refraction errors will cancel out because two
fixes have been taken
D – Correct in azimuth but false in range
Ref: all
Ans: A
21772
...
When identifying an NDB (NON A1A) it is necessary to:
A – Turn the BFO on
B – Turn the BFO off
C – Turn the ANT on
D – Turn the ANT off
Ref: all
Ans: A
21781
...
What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF:
A – BFO on
B – Select the loop position
C – Both the loop and sense aerials must receive the signal
D – Select the ANT position
Ref: all
Ans: C
21783
...
When using ADF (i), the accuracy is (ii) than (iii), because the surface wave is
(iv):
A – (i) by day; (ii) greater; (iii) by night; (iv) not present
B – (i) by night; (ii) greater; (iii) by day; (iv) not present
C – (i) by night; (ii) less; (iii) by day; (iv) contaminated by sky waves
D – (i) by day; (ii) less; (iii) by night; (iv) contaminated by sky waves
Ref: all
Ans: C
22332
...
An NDB has a range of 50 nm with a power output of 80 watts: The power
required to increase the range to 75 nm is:
A – 120 watts
B – 150 watts
C – 180 watts
D – 320 watts
Ref: all
Ans: C
22349
...
If an NDB signal is received at a range of 1000 nm:
A – The signal is a surface wave and is quite usable
B – It will be a ground wave and will be inaccurate
C – It is a space wave and will be inaccurate
D – It is a sky wave and is inaccurate
Ref: all
Ans: D
22353
...
NDB operate in the:
A – VLF and LF bands

B – LF and MF bands
C – VLF, LF and MF bands
D – VLF and MF bands
Ref: all
Ans: B
22357
...
An aircraft over the sea will experience (i) coastal refraction effect when the
radio waves cross the coastline at (ii) and the NDB is (iii):
A – (i) More; (ii) 90o; (iii) Near the coast
B – (i) Less; (ii) 45o; (iii) Well inland
C – (i) Less; (ii) 90o; (iii) Near the coast
D – (i) More; (ii) 45o; (iii) On the coast
Ref: all
Ans: C
22365
...
When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the (i)
should be used for VOR and at the (ii) for ADF:
A – (i) Aircraft; (ii) aircraft
B – (i) Aircraft; (ii) station
C – (i) Station; (ii) aircraft
D – (i) Station; (ii) station
Ref: all
Ans: C
22763
...

Assuming Coastal Refraction is the same for each, from which NDB will an
aircraft flying over the sea receive the greatest error?
A – The NDB at 20 nm
B – The NDB at 50 nm
C – Same when the relative bearing is 090/270
D – Same when the relative bearing is 180/360
Ref: all
Ans: B
22768
...
95 MHz
D – 200 – 500 KHz
Ref: all
Ans: B
22868
...
For long range NDB’s the most common type is:
A – LF NON A1A

B – LF NON A2A
C – MF NON A1A
D – MF NON A2A
Ref: all
Ans: A
24507
...
The ADF pointer indicates
225 degrees
...
NDBs transmit mainly in the:
A – VHF band
B – UHF band
C – HF band
D – MF band
Ref: all
Ans: D
24962
...
When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be selected
OFF for the:
A – tone signal on NONA1A
B – ident signal on NONA1A
C – tone signal on NONA2A
D – ident signal on NONA2A
Ref: all
Ans: D
24974
...
The relative bearing of an NDB is
035o at 1300
...
If the G/S is 180kt,
what is the aircraft’s distance from the NDB at 1312:
A – 18 nm
B – 36 nm
C – 24 nm
D – 30 nm
Ref: all
Ans: B
24977
...
By what factor should the power be
increased to achieve a range of 20 nm?
A – 16
B–2
C–4
D–8
Ref: all
Ans: C
24980
...
The frequency band chosen for NDB’s is:
A – upper MF and lower LF
B – VLF
C – upper LF and lower MF
D – LF
Ref: all
Ans: C
24990
...
Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?
A – static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning
B – station interference, mountain effect, selective availability
C – coastal refraction, slant range, night effect
D – lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference
Ref: all
Ans: D

062-01-03 CVOR & DVOR (incl
...
If the signal from a VOR is lost, how is this shown on the B737-400 EHSI
display?
A – By removal of the deviation bar and pointer
B – By showing a fail flag alongside the deviation bar
C – A flashing red FAIL message appears in the frequency location
D – An amber FAIL message appears in the frequency location
Ref: all
Ans: A

11115
...
The variation at the aircraft
position is 8oE
...
The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
A – 108 to 117
...
95 MHz
C – 118 to 135
...
95 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: A
11120
...
Assuming no error when using a
deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2o deviation, how many dots deviation from
the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
A – 6
...
0
C – 4
...
5
Ref: all
Ans: D
11129
...
(Refer to figure 062-04)
An aircraft is attempting to track 186oM on an airway defined by a VOR 80
nm away
...
With these indications the
aircraft is on the ___ radial and ___ the airway
...
An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300o, the track selector
(OBS) reads: 330
...
An aircraft is on a heading of 100 degrees (m) from a VOR
...
The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by:
A – phase comparison between a 108 Mhz reference signal and a 30 Hz
variable signal
B – phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an
amplitude modulated variable signal
C – phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a
frequency modulated variable signal
D – phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 Mhz
variable signal
Ref: all
Ans: B
11147
...
An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial
...
Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
A – static interference
B – uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
C – night effect
D – quadrantal error
Ref: all
Ans: B
11159
...
Estimated position of an
aircraft N59o E025o, variation 20oE
What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
A – 167o
B – 347o
C – 160o
D – 193o
Ref: all
Ans: A
11170
...
The correct indications are:
A – TO: ½ Scale deflection to the left
B – FROM: ½ Scale deflection to the left
C – TO: ½ Scale deflection to the right
D – FROM: ½ Scale deflection to the right
Ref: all
Ans: A
11180
...
What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL 150 can receive
signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
A – 156 NM
B – 220 NM
C – 147 NM
D – 184 NM
Ref: all
Ans: D
11189
...
Which of the
following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
A – 284o with the FROM flag showing
B – 284o with the TO flag showing
C – 104o with the TO flag showing
D – 104o with the FROM flag showing
Ref: all
Ans: B
11193
...
An aircraft is located at position 56o00 N 073o00 W where the
magnetic variation equals 28oW
...
The VOR system is limited to about 1o of accuracy
...
0 NM
B – 3
...
5 NM
D – 3
...
Using a VOR outside the DOC may result in interference from:
A – other beacons
B – other aircraft
C – sky waves
D – ground waves
Ref: all
Ans: A
11205
...
The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90o out
of phase on magnetic:
A – west
B – south
C – east
D – north
Ref: all
Ans: C
11215
...
To convert the RMI bearings of
NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct positions to read magnetic
variation are: (VOR), (NDB)
A – aircraft position, beacon position
B - beacon position, beacon position
C – beacon position, aircraft position
D – aircraft position, aircraft position
Ref: all
Ans: C

11222
...
15 Mhz
C – The TO/FROM indicator shows whether the aircraft is heading towards or
away from the beacon
D – Wide coverage is obtained from only a few beacons
Ref: all
Ans: A
11229
...
Given:
Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090o
...
In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the
magnetic variation:
A – at the VOR
B – at the aircraft location
C – at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
D – at both the VOR and aircraft
Ref: all
Ans: A
11241
...
At
what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain this information?
A – 1230 km
B – 123 km
C – 12
...
If the reference phase differs 30o with the variable phase the radial from the
VOR station will be:
A – 030o
B – 330o
C – 210o
D – 150o
Ref: all
Ans: A
11252
...
An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100
FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
A – 135 NM
B – 123 NM
C – 128 NM
D – 142 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
11255
...

A – west
B – north
C – east
D – south
Ref: all
Ans: C
11258
...
5o
...
An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is
locked on to a reading of 090o
...
The
available information from the VOR is:
A – Radial 315o, relative bearing unknown
B – Radial unknown, relative bearing 225o
C – Radial unknown, relative bearing 045o
D – Radial 135o, relative bearing unknown
Ref: all
Ans: D

11270
...
Assume that the
indicator is set to define the centreline of an airway, that the aircraft is 90 nm
from the VOR and inbound to the facility
...
An aircraft on a heading of 280o(M) is on a bearing of 090o(M) from a VOR
...
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244o radial
...
If the compass providing information to the RMI suddenly gets a 20o
deviation:
A – the magnetic track to the VOR station may be read on the compass card
under the tip of the VOR needle
B – the number of the received radial may still be read on the compass card
under the tail of the VOR needle
C – the relative bearing to the VOR, as observed on the RMI, will jump 20o
D – all 3 answers are correct
Ref: all
Ans: D
11281
...
The VOR OBS is also set to
270o with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed
...
The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR:
A – Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR
B – Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or
away from the VOR
C – Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre
the aircraft towards or from the CDI needle
D – Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI
indication
Ref: all
Ans: B

11288
...
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 210 may receive
signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is
approximately:
A – 163 NM
B – 245 NM
C – 204 NM
D – 183 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
11296
...
5
C – 1
...
A VOR is sited at position A (45o00N, 010o00E)
...
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is
10oW and at B is 15oW, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
A – 185o
B – 180o
C – 190o
D – 195o
Ref: all
Ans: C

15480
...
If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range,
errors could be caused by:
A – sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency
B – interference from other transmitters
C – noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the
transmitter
D – sky wave interference from the same transmitter
Ref: all
Ans: B
15488
...
An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within
range of a serviceable VOR
...
5o or more
D – 2
...
An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100 FT
above MSL at an approximate maximum range of:
A – 100 NM
B – 120 NM
C – 110 NM
D – 90 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C
15518
...
Which of the following lists information required to input a way point or
Phantom Station into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
A – Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the way point or Phantom
Station
B – Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the way point or
Phantom Station
C – Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the way point or Phantom
Station
D – Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the way point or Phantom
Station
Ref: all
Ans: D

15542
...
The variable signal of a conventional VOR is:
A – 30 Hz frequency modulated
B – 30 Hz amplitude modulated
C – 9960 Hz frequency modulated
D – 9960 Hz amplitude modulated
Ref: all
Ans: B
16238
...
When using a DVOR, the pilot should be aware that the reference and variable
signals are reversed
...
An aeroplane is on radial 070o of a VOR, HDG is 270o
...
A VOT is:
A – a test VOR
B – a terminal VOR
C – a trial VOR
D – a tracking VOR
Ref: all
Ans: A
16392
...
If you correctly tuned in a VOR situated to your east, your RMI should read
___ and your OBS would read ___
A – 000; 000 with needle central and TO indicated
B – 090; 090 with needle central and FROM indicated
C – 000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated
D – 090; 090 with needle central and TO indicated
Ref: all
Ans: C

16845
...
An aircraft on a heading of 270o (M) has 093 set on the OBS and TO indicated
on the VOR L/R deviation indicator
...
The
aircraft is on the:
A – 277o radial
B – 089o radial
C – 097o radial
D – 269o radial
Ref: all
Ans: D
21444
...
(Refer to figure 062-12)
What is the value of the selected course?
A – 260o (M)
B – 272o (M)
C – 299o (M)
D – 280o (M)
Ref: all
Ans: C

21521
...
Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at
which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals?
A – 120 NM
B – 180 NM
C – 100 NM
D – 151 NM
Ref: all
Ans: D
21527
...
The magnetic variation at A is 18oW, and at B is 10oW
...
An aircraft is on the 120o radial from a VOR station
...
If the magnetic heading is 070o
the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be:
A – behind
B – in front
C – right
D – left
Ref: all
Ans: A

21530
...
A
VOR is located at 30oN – 013oE with a magnetic variation of 15oW
...
An aircraft, on a heading of 180oM is on a bearing of 270oM from a VOR
...
In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver:
A – uses pulse technique to determine the radial
B – measures the time difference between reception of the two signals
transmitted from the ground installation
C – measures the phase difference between the reference phase and the
variable phase of the signal
D – measures the time difference between sending the interrogation signal and
receiving the transponder signal
Ref: all
Ans: C

21576
...
The OBS is set on 048o, TO appears in the window
...
The VOR radial is approximately:
A – 218o
B – 058o
C – 038o
D – 238o
Ref: all
Ans: D
21598
...
You are on a compass heading of 090o on the 255 radial from a VOR
...
The deviation bar will show:
A – Full scale deflection right with a ‘from’ indication
B – Full scale deflection left with a ‘from’ indication
C – Full scale deflection left with a ‘to’ indication
D – Full scale deflection right with a ‘to’ indication
Ref: all
Ans: B

21614
...
The OBI is set to 025o
...
Relative to the
station, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials:
A – 115o and 205o
B – 295o and 025o
C – 025o and 115o
D – 205o and 295o
Ref: all
Ans: D
21619
...
Which segment are you in:
A – NE
B – NW
C – SE
D – SW
Ref: all
Ans: B
21622
...
What use if any does TACAN provide to civilian users:
A – Bearing information only
B – Bearing and range information
C – Range information only
D – It is of no use to civilian pilots
Ref: all
Ans: C

21656
...
A frequency most suitable for a terminal VOR would be:
A – 108
...
15
C – 108
...
05
Ref: all
Ans: A
21658
...
The Declared Operational Coverage of a VOR is:
A – An altitude and range limited by transmitter power
B – A range limited by transmitter power
C – An altitude and range limited by signal to noise ratio
D – A range limited by signal to noise ratio
Ref: all
Ans: C

21748
...
What are the indications to show that you are receiving a Doppler VOR:
A – The identification will always end with a D
B – There is no difference from the conventional VOR indications
C – The Doppler VOR identification begins with a D
D – The ident is spoken eg “Aberdeen Doppler VOR”
Ref: all
Ans: B
21765
...
5o
B – 1o
C – 1
...
An aircraft at FL 350 is using a VOR (2060 amsl)
...
What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the
centreline of an airway (10 nm wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is
5
...
On a CVOR the phase difference between the AM and FM signals is 30o
...
The maximum range an aircraft at FL 270 can receive transmissions from a
VOR/DME at 800 ft is:
A – 275 nm
B – 200 nm
C – 240 nm
D – 220 nm
Ref: all
Ans: C

21788
...
75
B – 109
...
35
D – 112
...
What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can
be received by an aircraft at FL 012
...
What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users:
A – magnetic bearing
B – DME
C – Nothing
D – DME and magnetic bearing
Ref: all
Ans: B
21795
...
In doppler VOR the reference signal is (iii) and the
direction of rotation will (iv):
A – (i) Clockwise; (ii) FM; (iii) FM; (iv) Clockwise
B – (i) Anticlockwise; (ii) AM; (iii) AM; (iv) Clockwise
C – (i) Clockwise; (ii) AM; (iii) AM; (iv) Anticlockwise
D – (i) Anticlockwise; (ii) FM; (iii) AM; (iv) Anticlockwise
Ref: all
Ans: C

21799
...
A position report is required when crossing the 133 radial from VOR
Y
...
The JAR OPS recommendation for the colour of a VORTAC which is not in
use by the FMC is:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – cyan
Ref: all
Ans: D
22343
...
When the term “radial” is used in reference to VOR it means:
A – The magnetic bearing of the VOR station
B – The magnetic bearing from the VOR station
C – The magnetic bearing of the aircraft to the station
D – The true bearing from the VOR station
Ref: all
Ans: B

22361
...
(Refer to figure 062-01)
The indication was obtained when the aircraft was at a range of 50 nm from
the VOR
...
3 nm left of track
D – 089 radial and 3
...
The maximum width of the cone of silence above a VOR at 30 000 ft is:
A – 4
...
2 nm
C – 11
...
8 nm
Ref: all
Ans: C
22372
...
Assuming that the VOR is correctly set-up, the radial and
horizontal distance the aircraft is off track are:
A – 062 radial and 9 nm right of track
B – 074 radial and 6 nm left of track
C – 242 radial and 6 nm left of track
D – 254 radial and 9 nm right of track
Ref: all
Ans: A

22380
...
5 nm
C – 2 nm
D – 3
...
An aircraft is flying a heading of 090o along the Equator, homing to a VOR
...
In a VOR the reference signal and the variable signal have a 30 Hz
modulation
...
The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:
A – At all times
B – By day only
C – By night only
D – At all times except dawn and dusk
Ref: all
Ans: A

22800
...
If the
DME range is 90 nm your VOR radial and distance from the centre line will
be:
A – 074; 9 nm
B – 242; 6 nm
C – 062; 9 nm
D – 254; 9 nm
Ref: all
Ans: C
22863
...
A VOR indication of 240o FROM is given
...
The heading o(T) in nil wind to reach the station is:
A – 231
B – 051
C – 053
D – 233
Ref: all
Ans: C

22866
...
Variation at the VOR is 5E
...
The aircraft’s position relative to the airway lateral boundary is:
A – 3 nm inside the airways eastern boundary
B – 1 nm inside the airways western boundary
C – 1 nm outside the airways western boundary
D – 1 nm inside the airways eastern boundary
Ref: all
Ans: B
22873
...
The variation of a VOR at the same location is
12oW
...
An aircraft bears 036o (T) from a VOR beacon
...
What OBS setting would make the
CDI needle central with ‘TO’ showing?
A – 028o
B – 208o
C – 232o
D – 052o
Ref: all
Ans: B

24950
...
The indications of a VOR in an aircraft tracking towards a VOR are 075o (M)
TO and deviation indicator central
...

What are the drift and heading in o(M)?
A – 12oS; 087
B – 12oP; 063
C – 12oS; 063
D – 12oP; 087
Ref: all
Ans: C
24994
...
What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and
have the same identification?
A – 2000 m
B – 60 m
C – 600 m
D–6m
Ref: all
Ans: C

24996
...
When tracking the 090 radial outbound from a VOR, the track flown is:
A – a straight line
B – a rhumb line
C – a great circle
D – a constant true heading
Ref: all
Ans: C
24998
...
On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E (VAR 13oE) is an aircraft at
59N025E (VAR 20oE)?
A – 160
B – 347
C – 193
D – 167
Ref: all
Ans: D

25000
...
At a range of 200 nm from a VOR, if there is an error of 1o, how far off the
centreline is the aircraft?
A – 3
...
75 nm
C – 7 nm
D – 1 nm
Ref: all
Ans: A
25094
...
An aircraft at FL 360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME
...
7 nm
C – 10 nm
D – 13
...
The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmission and
reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
A – transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
B – pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
C – aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz
removed from each other
D – pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft
Ref: all
Ans: D
11167
...
The slant range from the
ground transponder was:
A – 165 NM
B – 186 NM
C – 296 NM
D – 330 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
11168
...
What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground
installations if they are to have the same Morse code identifier?
A – 60 m
B – 2000 m
C – 600 m
D – 300 m
Ref: all
Ans: C

11187
...
In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring
Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying
at FL 400?
A – When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
B – When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
C – When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
D – When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM
Ref: all
Ans: B
11202
...
You want to identify the DME by listening
to the call sign
...
A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal
strength will switch the equipment in the first instance to:
A – standby mode
B – search mode
C – memory mode
D – signal controlled search
Ref: all
Ans: C
11213
...
5nm
B – decreases with increase of range
C – increases with increase of altitude
D – is approximately ±2 nm
Ref: all
Ans: B
11217
...
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
A – UHF band and is a primary radar system
B – VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
C – UHF band and is a secondary radar system
D – SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
Ref: all
Ans: C

11251
...
The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30
...
An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected
from the ground because:
A – the pulse recurrence rates are varied
B – DME transmits twin pulses
C – they are not on the receiver frequency
D – DME uses the UHF band
Ref: all
Ans: C
11290
...
An aircraft passing vertically above the station at
flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
A – 11 NM
B – 7 NM
C – 6 NM
D – 8 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C

11301
...
The reason for this is:
A – the beacon is saturated
B – the aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME
C – the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
D – the aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response
Ref: all
Ans: C
11303
...
The
reason for this is that the:
A – aeroplane is below the line of sight altitude
B – aeroplane is circling around the station
C – altitude is too high
D – range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM
Ref: all
Ans: A
11304
...
60 PPS after 100 seconds
D – stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max
...
On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:
A – ground equipment failure
B – airborne equipment failure
C – the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
D – the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search
Ref: all
Ans: C

15476
...
A DME station is located 1,000 feet above MSL
...
Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft
ground speed?
A – A VOR station sited on the flight route
B – A DME station sited across the flight route
C – A DME station sited on the flight route
D – An ADF sited on the flight route
Ref: all
Ans: C
15482
...
For a conventional DME facility Beacon Saturation will occur whenever the
number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:
A – 80
B – 100
C – 200
D – 60
Ref: all
Ans: B
15484
...
The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the
maximum systematic error should not exceed:
A - + or – 1
...
25 NM
D - + or – 1
...
ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring
Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
A - + or – 0
...
25 NM plus 0
...
25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5
NM
D - + or – 0
...
25% of the distance measured
Ref: all
Ans: D

15541
...
Height error has the greatest effect on accuracy when an aeroplane is:
A – over the base line extensions at low altitude
B – at the base line bisector at low altitudes
C – at the base line bisector at high altitude
D – over the base line extension at high altitude
Ref: all
Ans: D
16231
...
Given:
Height of aircraft 32,000 feet
DME indicated range 16 nm
The actual range is:
A – 22
...
58 NM
C – 15
...
58 NM
Ref: all
Ans: C

16234
...
If an NDB has a published range of 30 nm, its accuracy is:
A – guaranteed to that range
B – only guaranteed at night to that range
C – only guaranteed by day to that range
D – is not protected in any way
Ref: all
Ans: C
16394
...
Which of the following statements is TRUE in respect to microwave landing
system?
A – Azimuth and elevation signals use the same aerial on a time share basic
B – Azimuth and elevation signals are transmitted at the same UHF frequency
C – A special precision DME, operating in the SHF band, provides range
information
D – Range information is provided by precision DME operating in the UHF
Ref: all
Ans: D

21528
...
The DME receiver is capable of determining ground
speed
...
An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station
...
An aircraft, at FL 410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level
...
8 km
B – 6
...
1 NM
D – 6
...
DME channels operate in the frequency band which includes:
A – 600 MHz
B – 110 MHz
C – 300 MHz
D – 1000 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: D

21570
...
The design requirements for DME stipulate that at a range of 100 NM the
maximum systematic error should not exceed:
A - + or – 1
...
25 NM
D - + or – 1
...
The indicated range from a DME station is:
A – slant range
B – ground range
C – 0 when passing overhead the station
D – ground range only if the beacon is co-located with VOR
Ref: all
Ans: A
21578
...
When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM
...
6 NM
B – 5
...
9 NM
D – 4
...
Which one is the most correct statement regarding the range of the DME
system?
A – Operates on the principle of phase comparison
B – Operates on VHF
C – Range within “line of sight”, and maximum 200 Nm
D – Has unlimited range due to ground wave propagation
Ref: all
Ans: C
21609
...
An aircraft at FL 210 cannot receive a signal from a DME 220 nm away
...
How many aircraft will DME accommodate before reaching saturation:
A – 50
B – 100
C – 120
D – 150
Ref: all
Ans: B
21660
...
The maximum number of aeroplanes that can be responded to by the DME
ground facility is:
A – 100
B – 10
C – 150
D – Unlimited
Ref: all
Ans: A
21662
...
In DME interrogation and responses are separated by 63 MHz in order to:
A – Avoid station saturation
B – Differentiate between precision and ordinary DME
C – Facilitate channel selection
D – Prevent self-triggering
Ref: all
Ans: D
21666
...
The accuracy of DME is:
A – ±1nm
B – ±¼ nm + 1
...
25% of the range whichever is the greater
Ref: all
Ans: B
21760
...
A VOR and DME are frequency paired
...

This denotes that:
A – The two beacons are co-located
B – The beacons are supporting the same site but are not co-located
C – The beacons are greater than 2000 m apart
D – The beacons are at the same location but are more than 1000 m apart
Ref: all
Ans: B
21773
...
The slant range is:
A – 9
...
7 km
C – 5
...
7 km
Ref: all
Ans: C
21775
...
In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is
coding STZ
...
Which of the following provides distance information:
A – DME
B – VOR
C – ADF
D – VDF
Ref: all
Ans: A
21791
...
A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about ___ aircraft are
using the transponder
...
A DME Transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because:
A – the PRF of the pulse pairs is jittered
B – it uses MTI
C – the interrogation and reply frequencies differ
D – the reflections will all fall within the fly back period
Ref: all
Ans: C

21810
...
The plan range is:
A – 13
...
5 nm
C – 15 nm
D – 17
...
What are the DME frequencies?
A – 1030 and 1090 MHz
B – 1030 – 1090 MHz
C – 960 and 1215 MHz
D – 960 – 1215 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: D
22329
...
The true aircraft
range from the DME is between:
A – 24
...
5 nm
B – 23
...
75 nm
C – 25
...
8 nm
D – 22
...
5 nm
Ref: all
Ans: B
22335
...
DME pulses are transmitted as pulse pairs
...
How does the DME tell different aircraft apart:
A – By using a jittered PRF
B – By the different frequencies transmitted
C – By the differences in wavelength
D – By the phase of the received pulses
Ref: all
Ans: A
22373
...
An aircraft at FL 200 is 220 nm from a DME (0 ft amsl)
...
A typical DME frequency is:
A – 1000 MHz
B – 1300 MHz
C – 1000 KHz
D – 113
...
Which of the following would give the best indication of speed:
A – A VOR on the flight plan route
B – A VOR off the flight plan route
C – A DME on the flight plan route
D – A DME off the flight plan route
Ref: all
Ans: C
22793
...
A DME transmitter is operating in the search-for-lock phase
...
If the DME ground transmitter fails
A – the last measured range is frozen for 20 secs
B - all range information is immediately lost
C – the last recorded range is retained until the ground transmitter is restored
D – the counters continue to rotate for 8 to 10 seconds
Ref: all
Ans: D
22801
...
“DME is a ___ radar which provides ___ distances between the aircraft and a
ground ___”
...
If a DME transponder becomes saturated it will:
A – give preference to the nearest 100 aircraft
B – give preference to the furthest aircraft up to a maximum of 70
C – give preference to the aircraft with the strongest transmissions
D – give preference to the first 100 aircraft which interrogated it
Ref: all
Ans: C

24949
...
The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects
replies to other aircraft transmissions because:
A – the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft
B – the pulse pairs from each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation
C – the interrogation frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
D – the interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz
Ref: all
Ans: A
25003
...
The time from the transmission of the interrogation pulse to the receipt of the
reply from the DME ground station is 2000 microseconds (ignore the delay at
the DME)
...
The DME counters are rotating continuously
...
On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating
...
A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:
A – the surface of the runway
B – less than 50 ft
C – less than 100 ft
D – less than 200 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
11095
...
An aircraft carrying out a 3o glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction
in ground speed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold
...
Every 10 kt decrease in ground speed, on a 3o ILS glide path, will require an
approximate:
A – increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
B – decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
C – decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
D – increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11124
...
25o glide slope at a ground speed
of 140 kt is approximately:
A – 850 FT/MIN
B – 800 FT/MIN
C – 670 FT/MIN
D – 700 FT/MIN
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11125
...
The ILS
indication will show:
A – Fly right and fly down
B – Fly left and fly down
C – Fly right and fly up
D – Fly left and fly up
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

11140
...
5 NM from touchdown
...
The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:
A – A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone
B – An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz modulated tone
C – A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone
D – A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
11145
...
What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3o glide
path at a ground speed of 120 kt?
A – 550 FT/MIN
B – 600 FT/MIN
C – 800 FT/MIN
D – 950 FT/MIN
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

11156
...
Lined up on the ILS of runway
25, the localiser needle will be:
A – right of centre
B – left of centre
C – centred
D – centred with the fail flag showing
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
11158
...
Using the 1 in 60 rule, calculate the rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3
...

A – 172 ft/min
B – 325 ft/min
C – 641 ft/min
D – 522 ft/min
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
11178
...
For a category one ILS glide path of 3
...
49 to 5
...
49 to 5
...
65 to 5
...
65 to 5
...
What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner
Marker beacon?
A – white – amber – blue
B – amber – white – green
C – blue – amber – white
D – blue – green – white
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
11195
...
The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the
active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress
than during good weather operations is:
A – heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals
B – aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
C – to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations
D – to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B

11212
...
Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the
ILS localiser cockpit display represent:
A – 2
...
5 degrees
C – 2
...
5 degrees
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
11228
...

A – (i) 8o (ii) 10
B – (i) 25o (ii) 17
C – (i) 35o (ii) 25
D – (i) 5o (ii) 8
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
11231
...
On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150
Hz modulation
...
A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200 deg
...
An aircraft on an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz modulation than 150
Hz modulation in both localiser and glide path
...
What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information
for a 3o ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
A – 0
...
75o above the glide path and 8o each side
of the localiser centreline
B – 1
...
25o above the horizontal and 8o each side
of the localiser centreline
C – 0
...
5o each side of the localiser
centreline
D – 3o above and below the glide path and 10o each side of the localiser
centreline
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11284
...
An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser
inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
A – will receive signals without identification coding
B – will not normally receive signals
C – may receive false course indications
D – can expect signals to give correct indications
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C

11291
...
At 5
...
Using an angle of 0
...

A – 1280 ft
B – 1325 ft
C – 1375 ft
D – 1450 ft
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
11299
...
Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
A – 112,10 MHz
B – 108,25 MHz
C – 110,20 MHz
D – 109,15 MHz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D

15487
...
6 NM from the
threshold
...
The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two
overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i) frequencies and carry different
(ii)
...
A Cat III ILS glide path transmitter provides reliable guidance information
down to:
A – the surface of the runway
B – a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway
C – a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway
D – a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
15504
...
What frequency is assigned to all ILS marker beacons?
A – One chosen from between 108-112 MHz at odd tenths
B – 75 MHz
C – 90 Hz
D – 150 Hz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
16615
...
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A – A localiser back beam should only be used for approaches if there is a
published procedure
B – All localisers have back beams
...
An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing
guidance to a height of:
A – 15m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold
B – 60m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold
C – 15m on QNH
D – 60m on QNH
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A

16618
...
On a localiser the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz
...
The upper limit of the vertical coverage of the localiser must be:
A – not less than 300 m above the highest point on the approach
B – not less than 7o above the horizontal (drawn from the localiser)
C – not less than 600 m above the horizontal
D – not less than 35o above the horizontal
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
16621
...
In order to maintain a 3o glide path at an approach speed of 150 kts, the rate of
descent required is approximately:
A – 600 feet per minute
B – 300 feet per minute
C – 450 feet per minute
D – 750 feet per minute
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
16623
...
A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides
accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
A – runway surface
B – 200 feet above the inner marker
C – 200 feet above the runway threshold
D – 50 feet above ILS reference point
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21518
...
According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation
below the glide path during ILS approach?
A – Half scale deflection
B – One quarter scale deflection
C - Three quarter scale deflection
D – Full scale deflection
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21537
...
5 degrees
B – 1
...
5 degrees
D – 2
...
Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display,
what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centre line
when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
A – 1
...
0o to the left
C – 2
...
0o to the left
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21541
...
5o above or below the correct glide path
B – 0
...
5o above or below the correct glide path
D – 1
...
Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is
approximately:
A – 10o offset from the localiser centre line
B – 5o offset from the localiser centre line
C – 1
...
5o offset from the localiser centre line
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: D
21566
...
What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are
used on an ILS approach?
A – 75 kHZ
B – 90 HZ
C – 328 mHZ
D – 63 mHZ

135 kHZ
150 HZ
335 mHZ
123 mHZ

Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21587
...
What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
A – 400 Hz
B – 1300 Hz
C – 3000 Hz
D – 75 MHz
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: C
21596
...
Visual: Blue light flashes
B – Audio: 1300 Hz, alternating dots and dashes
...
Visual: Blue light flashes
D – Audio: 3000 Hz, alternating dots and dashes
...
Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System
(ILS) localiser radiation pattern?
A – Two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier frequency
B – Two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency
C - pencil beam comprising a series of smaller beams each carrying a
different modulation
D – Two overlapping lobes on different radio carrier frequencies but with the
same modulation
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: B
21599
...
Which range facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter
identification group?
A – Locator
B – Inner marker
C – Outer marker
D – Glide path
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21667
...
Which of the following is true with respect to marker beacons?
A – An airway marker and an ILS inner marker carry the same modulation
B – Airway markers and ILS middle markers have the same modulations
C – Airway markers and ILS outer markers have the same modulations
D – No two markers have the same modulations
Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir
Ans: A
21681
...
ILS markers are identified in the aeroplane by colour light and audio signal
...
The azimuth

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